Mock Exam B

Question 1

1 Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?

a) Subset of the value domain of a variable within a component or system in which all values are expected to be treated the same based on the specification
b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed based on test conditions
c) Work products produced during the test process for use in planning, designing, executing, evaluating, and reporting on testing
d) A source to determine an expected result to compare with the actual result of the system under test

Answer 1

a) Is not correct. Based on definition of equivalence partition
b) Is correct. Based on definition from Glossary
c) Is not correct. Based on Glossary definition of testware
d) Is not correct. Based on definition of test oracle

Question 2

2 Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?

a) To find defects and failures
b) To validate the project plan works as required
c) Ensuring of complete testing
d) Comparing actual results with expected results

Answer 2

a) Is correct. One of the major objectives of testing
b) Is not correct. Validation of the project plan would be a project management activity
c) Is not correct. Contradiction to principle #2; complete/exhaustive testing is not possible
d) Is not correct. “Comparing actual results with expected results” is a test performing activity, but not a test objective

Question 3

3 Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?

a) The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation
b) Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system
c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased
d) The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

Answer 3

a) Is not correct. This is an example of a mistake made by the developer
b) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in the code that may cause a failure)
c) Is correct. This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system should not be affected by the radio
d) Is not correct. This is an example of a defect (something wrong in a specification that may cause a failure if subsequently implemented)

Question 4

4 Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?

a) Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour
b) The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect
c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times
d) Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlight

Answer 4

a) Is not correct. The lack of familiarity of the requirements author with the fitness domain is a root cause
b) Is not correct. The lack of training of the tester in state transition testing was one of the root causes of the defect (the developer presumably created the defect, as well)
c) Is correct. The incorrect configuration data represents faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures
d) Is not correct. The lack of experience in designing user interfaces for wearable devices is a typical example of a root cause of a defect

Question 5

5 As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.

Which of the following testing principles is being applied?
a) Beware of the pesticide paradox
b) Testing is context dependent
c) Absence-of-errors is a fallacy
d) Defects cluster together

Answer 5

a) Is not correct. ‘Beware of the pesticide paradox’ is concerned with re-running the same tests and their fault-finding effectiveness decreasing
b) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with performing testing differently based on the context (e.g., games vs safety-critical)
c) Is not correct. This testing principle is concerned with the difference between a tested and fixed system and a validated system. No ‘errors’ does not mean the system is fit for use
d) Is correct. If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these areas

Question 6

6 Given the following test activities and tasks:

A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?
a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Answer 6

The correct pairing of test activities and tasks is:
A. Test design – (2) Identifying test data to support the test cases
B. Test implementation – (3) Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
C. Test execution – (4) Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause
D. Test completion – (1) Entering change requests for open defect reports
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 7

7 Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between the test basis and test artifacts?

a) Maintenance testing can be fully automated based on changes to the initial requirements
b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements
c) Test managers can identify which testers found the highest severity defects
d) Areas that may be impacted by side-effects of a change can be targeted by confirmation testing

Answer 7

a) Is not correct. Traceability will allow existing test cases to be linked with updated and deleted requirements (although there is no support for new requirements), but it will not help with the automation of maintenance testing
b) Is correct. If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case (with traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously uncovered requirements are covered by the new test case
c) Is not correct. Traceability between the test basis and test artifacts will not provide information on which testers found high-severity defects, and, even if this information could be determined, it would be of limited value
d) Is not correct. Traceability can help with identifying test cases affected by changes, however areas impacted by side-effects would be the focus of regression testing

Question 8

8 Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a developer’s?

a) A tester´s mindset tends to grow and mature as the tester gains experience
b) Ability to see what might go wrong
c) Good communication with team members
d) Focus on getting all things done

Answer 8

a) Is not correct. Both developers and testers gain from experience
b) Is correct. Developers are often more interested in designing and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions
c) Is not correct. Both developers and testers should be able to communicate well
d) Is not correct. Testers shall focus on the quality, not on the quantity

Question 9

9 Given the following statements about the relationships between software development activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:

1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?
a) True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4
b) True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4
c) True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3
d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

Answer 9

Considering each statement:
1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity. TRUE
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE – it should start as soon as drafts are available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development activity. FALSE – the analysis and
design of tests should start during the corresponding development activity, not the implementation
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle. TRUE
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Question 10

10 Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:

• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?
a) Integration testing
b) Acceptance testing
c) System testing
d) Component testing

Answer 10

Considering the scenario:
1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while these are not included for any of the other test levels
2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels
3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ -functional and structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing
Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 11

11 Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?

a) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing
b) Functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component testing
c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level
d) Functional and non-functional testing can be performed at any test level, while white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing

Answer 11

a) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, although it is correct that functional and non-functional testing can be performed at system and acceptance test levels, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component and integration testing
b) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing
c) Is correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, nonfunctional, white-box) at any test level
d) Is not correct. It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, non-functional, white-box) at any test level - so, it is incorrect to state that white-box testing is restricted to component testing and integration testing

Question 12

12 Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?

a) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts
b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix
c) The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before
d) The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly

Answer 12

a) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (which should be testing a defect has been fixed) is not correct
b) Is correct. The descriptions of both confirmation and regression testing match the intent of those in the syllabus
c) Is not correct. Although the description of regression testing is largely correct, the description of confirmation testing (re-running all previously run tests to get the same results) is not correct, as the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that tests that previously failed now pass (the fix worked)
d) Is not correct. Although the description of confirmation testing is largely correct, the description of regression testing (re-running tests that previously failed) is not correct (this is a more detailed description of confirmation testing)

Question 13

13 Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in Maintenance Testing?

a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile
b) Impact analysis is used to identify how data should be migrated into the maintained system
c) Impact analysis is used to decide which hot fixes are of most value to the user
d) Impact analysis is used to determine the effectiveness of new maintenance test cases

Answer 13

a) Is correct. Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when deciding if the change is worthwhile
b) Is not correct. Although testing migrated data is part of maintenance testing (see conversion testing), impact analysis does not identify how this is done
c) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change, so it can show the difference between different hot fixes in terms of the impact on the system, however it does not give any indication of the value of the changes to the user
d) Is not correct. Impact analysis shows which parts of a system are affected by a change; it cannot provide an indication of the effectiveness of test cases

Question 14

14 Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?

a) By introducing reviews, we have found that both the quality of specifications and the time required for development and testing have increased
b) Using static testing means we have better control and cheaper defect management due to the ease of detecting defects later in the lifecycle
c) Now that we require the use of static analysis, missed requirements have decreased and communication between testers and developers has improved
d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been found by performing only dynamic testing

Answer 14

a) Is not correct. Reviews should increase the quality of specifications, however the time required for development and testing should decrease
b) Is not correct. Detecting defects is generally easier earlier in the lifecycle
c) Is not correct. Reviews will result in fewer missed requirements and better communication between testers and developers, however this is not true for static analysis
d) Is correct. This is a benefit of static analysis

Question 15

15 Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?

a) As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists needed for the review
b) As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists provided for the review
c) As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based on the checklists provided for the review
d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review

Answer 15

a) Is not correct. During planning it is decided whether checklists are used. The preparation of the checklists is not part of the planning. In addition, the reviewers are neither involved in the planning, nor responsible for the creation of the checklists
b) Is not correct. During issue communication, any potential defects that have been identified in the individual review are communicated. The completion of checklists by the reviewers already takes place, if at all, during individual review
c) Is not correct. During review session, the reviewers communicate any potential defects of the work product that they did identify during the individual review. Defect reports are only created during the fixing and reporting activity
d) Is correct. Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials, like checklists

Question 16

16 Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews
b) Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings
c) Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
d) Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

Answer 16

a) Is correct. The management decides about performing the review
b) Is not correct. The moderator, not the review leader should ensure the effective running of review meetings
c) Is not correct. The author fixes the work product under review
d) Is not correct. The manager monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

Question 17

17 The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:

• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced

Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?
a) Informal Review
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Inspection

Answer 17

Considering the attributes:
* There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections; thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews
* The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is specified for all types of review.
* The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal reviews
* Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include individual review (even informal reviews)
* A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it would be less likely for an informal review
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 18

18 You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:
1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:
7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):
13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).

Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?
a) 6-10, 6-15, 7-12
b) 6-15, 9-11
c) 6-10, 6-15, 9-11
d) 6-15, 7-12

Answer 18

Considering the potential inconsistencies:
* 6-10 – If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is NOT inconsistent for borrowers to get system responses within 3 seconds.
* 6-15 - If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is inconsistent for all users to get system responses within 3 seconds.
* 7-12 – If borrowers can borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time it is NOT inconsistent for them to also reserve books (if they are on-loan).
* 9-11 – If a borrower can be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks it is inconsistent for them to also be allowed to borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks – as the length of valid loans are different.
Of the potential inconsistencies, 6-15 and 9-11 are valid inconsistencies.
Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 19

19 Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?

a) A testing practice in which an in-depth investigation of the background of the test object is used to identify potential weaknesses that are examined by test cases
b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests
c) An approach to test design in which test activities are planned as uninterrupted sessions of test analysis and design, often used in conjunction with checklist-based testing
d) Testing based on the tester’s experience, knowledge, and intuition

Answer 19

a) Is not correct. Exploratory testing is often carried out when timescales are short, so making in-depth investigations of the background of the test object is unlikely
b) Is correct. Glossary definition
c) Is not correct. Based on the Glossary definition of session-based testing, but with test execution replaced by test analysis
d) Is not correct. Glossary definition of experience-based testing

Question 20

20 Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object
2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis

Using notation for the following 4 options:

Black - Black-box test techniques
White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques

a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3
b) Black – 3 White – 1, 2; Experience – 4, 5
c) Black – 4 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3, 5
d) Black – 1, 3, 5 White – 2; Experience – 4

Answer 20

The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test
techniques is:
* Black-box test techniques
Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories are used as the test basis (5)
* White-box test techniques
Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2)
* Experience-based test techniques
Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution (3)

Thus:
a) Is correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 21

21 A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to encourage the user to keep fit.

The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:
Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition coverage?
a) 0, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000
b) 1000, 2001, 4000, 4001, 6000
c) 123, 2345, 3456, 4567, 5678
d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666

Answer 21

The following valid equivalence partitions can be identified:
1. Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
2. Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
3. Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
4. Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
5. Above 6000 - Way to Go!
The sets of test inputs therefore cover the following partitions:
a) Is not correct. 0 (1), 1000 (1), 2000 (2), 3000 (3), 4000 (3) – 3 partitions (out of 5)
b) Is not correct. 1000 (1), 2001 (3), 4000 (3), 4001 (4), 6000 (4) – 3 partitions (out of 5)
c) Is not correct. 123 (1), 2345 (3), 3456 (3), 4567 (4), 5678 (4) – 3 partitions (out of 5)
d) Is correct. 666 (1), 999 (1), 2222 (3), 5555 (4), 6666 (5) – 4 partitions (out of 5)

Question 22

22 A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours) and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).

Given the following test cases:

        Hours      Intensity      Score T1       1.5            v. low            10 T2       7.0            medium       60 T3       0.5            v. low            10

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of
ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer 22

The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified:
* Hours
1. Below 3 hours
2. 3 to 6 hours
3. Above 6 hours
* Intensity
4. Very low
5. Low
6. Medium
7. High
The given test cases cover the following valid input equivalence partitions:

T1 1.5 (1) Very low (4)
T2 7.0 (3) Medium (6)
T3 0.5 (1) Very low (4)

Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7).
These can be covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 23

23 A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this temperature.

The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:
Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!
11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the
highest level of boundary coverage?
a) 0°C, 11°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C
b) 9°C, 15°C, 19°C, 23°C, 100°C
c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C
d) 14°C, 15°C, 18°C, 19°C, 21°C, 22°C

Answer 23

For the input equivalence partitions given, the above used boundary value technique yields the following 8 coverage items:
10°C, 11°C, 15°C, 16°C, 19°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C.
Hence, the options have the following boundary value coverage:
a) Is not correct. 4 out of 8 (11, 20 ,22 and 23)
b) Is not correct. 3 out of 8 (15, 19 and 23)
c) Is correct. 5 out of 8 (10, 16, 19, 22 and 23)
d) Is not correct. 3 out of 8 (15, 19 and 22)

Question 24

24 Decision table testing is being performed on a speeding fine system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules R1 and R4, which are shown below:

                         Rules                                               R1                 R4 Conditions          Speed > 50                                     T                   F
                         School Zone                                   T                   F Actions                $250 Fine                                        F                   F
                         Driving license withdrawal          T                   F

Given the following additional test cases:
Rules DT1 DT2 DT3 DT4
Input Speed 55 44 66 77
School Zone T T T F
Expected Result $250 Fine F F F T
Driving license withdrawal T F T F

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the complete decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules R1 and R4)?
a) DT1, DT2
b) DT2, DT3
c) DT2, DT4
d) DT3, DT4

Answer 24

The complete decision table is shown below:
Rules R1 R2 R3 R4
Inputs Speed > 50 T T F F
School Zone T F T F
Outputs $250 Fine F T F F
Driving license withdrawal T F F F

To achieve full coverage, test cases covering rules 2 and 3 are needed.
DT4 satisfies the constraints of rule 2, while DT2 satisfies the constraints of rule 3.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Question 25

26 Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors
b) Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components
c) Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use
d) Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows

Answer 25

a) Is correct. This explains that each use case specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more actors. It also (later) explains that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors (basic, exceptional and errors)
b) Is not correct. Use cases normally specify requirements, and so do not ‘include’ the components that will implement them
c) Is not correct. Tests based on use cases do exercise interactions between the actor and the system, but they are focused on the functionality and do not consider the ease of use of user interfaces
d) Is not correct. Tests do cover the use case paths through the use case, but there is no concept of decision coverage of these paths, and certainly not of business process flows

Question 26

27 Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?

a) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of lines of source code exercised by tests
b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests
c) Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of lines of source code (without comments) exercised by tests
d) Statement coverage is a measure of the number of executable statements in the source code exercised by tests

Answer 26

a) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. The number of executable statements is often close to the number of lines of code minus the comments, but this option only talks about the number of lines of code exercised and not the proportion exercised
b) Is correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage)
c) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the percentage of executable statements exercised by tests, however many of the lines of source code are not executable (e.g., comments)
d) Is not correct. Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements exercised by tests. This option only talks about the number of executable statements exercised and not the proportion (or percentage) exercised

Question 27

28 Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT?

a) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths through the source code exercised by tests
b) Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows through the component exercised by tests
c) Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are exercised with both the true and false outcomes
d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code exercised by tests

Answer 27

a) Is not correct. A path through source code is one potential route through the code from the entry point to the exit point that could exercise a range of decision outcomes. Two different paths may exercise all but one of the same decision outcomes, and by just changing a single decision outcome a new path is followed. Test cases that would achieve decision coverage are typically a tiny subset of the test cases that would achieve path coverage. In practice, most nontrivial programs (and all programs with unconstrained loops, such as ‘while’ loops) have a potentially infinite number of possible paths through them and so measuring the percentage covered is practically infeasible
b) Is not correct. Coverage of business flows can be a focus of use case testing, but use cases rarely cover a single component. It may be possible to cover the decisions within business flows, but only if they were specified in enough detail, however this option only suggests coverage of “business flows” as a whole. Even if business flows would cover some decisions, the measure “Decision Coverage” don’t measure the percentage of business flows, but the percentage of decision outcomes exercised by the business flows
c) Is not correct. Achieving full decision coverage does require all ‘if’ statements to be exercised with both true and false outcomes, however, there are typically several other decision points in the code (e.g., ‘case’ statements and the code controlling loops) that also need to be taken into consideration when measuring decision coverage
d) Is correct. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes exercised (normally presented as a percentage)

Question 28

29 Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?

a) Error guessing requires you to imagine you are the user of the test object and guess mistakes the user could make interacting with it
b) Error guessing involves using your personal experience of development and the mistakes you made as a developer
c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past and typical mistakes made by developers
d) Error guessing requires you to rapidly duplicate the development task to identify the sort of mistakes a developer might make

Answer 28

a) Is not correct. error guessing is not a usability technique for guessing how users may fail to interact with the test object
b) Is not correct. Although a tester who used to be a developer may use their personal experience to help them when performing error guessing, the technique is not based on prior knowledge of development
c) Is correct. The basic concept behind error guessing is that the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists)
d) Is not correct. Duplicating the development task has several flaws that make it impractical, such as the requirement for the tester to have equivalent skills to the developer and the time involved in performing the development. It is not error guessing

Question 29

30 Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

a) The use of an independent test team allows project management to assign responsibility for the quality of the final deliverable to the test team, so ensuring everyone is aware that quality is the test team’s overall responsibility
b) If a test team external to the organization can be afforded, then there are distinct benefits in terms of this external team not being so easily swayed by the delivery concerns of project management and the need to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) An independent test team can work totally separately from the developers, need not be distracted with changing project requirements, and can restrict communication with the developers to defect reporting through the defect management system
d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer

Answer 29

a) Is not correct. Quality should be the responsibility of everyone working on the project and not the sole responsibility of the test team
b) Is not correct. First, it is not a benefit if an external test team does not meet delivery deadlines, and second, there is no reason to believe that external test teams will feel they do not have to meet strict delivery deadlines
c) Is not correct. It is bad practice for the test team to work in complete isolation, and we would expect an external test team to be concerned with changing project requirements and communicate well with developers
d) Is correct. Specifications are never perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent interpretation made by the developer

Question 30

31 Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing
b) Review tests developed by others
c) Prepare and acquire test data
d) Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability

Answer 30

a) Is correct. One of the typical tasks of a test manager
b) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester
c) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester
d) Is not correct. One of the typical tasks of a tester

Question 31

32 Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:
a) Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4
b) Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5
c) Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6
d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Answer 31

The correct pairings of examples to entry and exit criteria are:
* Entry criteria
o (3) The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified – example of the need for a test environment to be ready before testing can begin
o (5) The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked – example of the need for the test basis to be available before testing can begin
o (6) The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing –example of the need for a test object to have met the exit criteria for a prior level of testing before testing can begin
* Exit criteria
o (1) The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent – example of spending the testing budget being a signal to stop testing
o (2) 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope –example of all the planned tests being run being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on outstanding defects remaining)
o (4) Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two highpriority ones – example of the number of outstanding defects achieving a planned limit being a signal to stop testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on planned tests being run).

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Question 32

33 Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Test Case Priority Technical dependency on: Logical dependency on:
TC1 High TC4
TC2 Low
TC3 High TC4
TC4 Medium
TC5 Low TC2
TC6 Medium TC5

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and
logical dependencies?
a) TC1 – TC3 – TC4 – TC6 – TC2 – TC5
b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6
c) TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC5 – TC6 – TC2
d) TC4 – TC2 – TC5 – TC1 – TC3 – TC6

Answer 32

The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take account of the dependencies.
The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 – TC1 – TC3 or TC4 – TC3 – TC1 (we have no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3).
Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2 – TC5 – TC6.
This means there are two possible optimal schedules:
* TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 or
* TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is not correct

Question 33

34 Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

a) With the metrics-based approach, the estimate is based on test measures from the project and so this estimate is only available after the testing starts
b) With the expert-based approach, a group of expert users identified by the client recommends the necessary testing budget
c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort
d) With the metrics-based approach, an average of the testing costs recorded from several past projects is used as the testing budget

Answer 33

a) Is not correct. Estimates may be updated as more information becomes available, but estimates are needed to assist with planning before the testing starts
b) Is not correct. In the expert-based approach, the experts need to be experts in testing, not in using the test object
c) Is correct. Test Managers, who will be leading testers doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for estimating the necessary resources needed
d) Is not correct. While it is useful to know the testing costs from previous projects, a more sophisticated approach is needed than simply taking an average of past projects (the new project may not be like the previous projects, e.g., it may be far larger or far smaller than previous projects)

Question 34

35 Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

a) Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them
b) Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage
c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event
d) Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system

Answer 34

a) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of the likelihood of problem situations and the harm that may result from them but cannot be calculated by adding these together (the probability would be in the range 0 to 1 and the harm could be in dollars)
b) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers likelihood and chance (both forms of probability) with no consideration of the impact (or harm)
c) Is correct. See reasons from incorrect answers
d) Is not correct. Risk is determined by considering a combination of a likelihood and an impact. This definition only considers hazards and losses (a hazard is a bad event, like a risk, while loss is a form of impact) with no consideration of the likelihood (or probability)

Question 35

36 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture
b) The developers may not have time to fix all the defects found by the test team
c) The test cases may not provide full coverage of the specified requirements
d) The performance test environment may not be ready before the system is due for delivery

Answer 35

a) Is correct. If the expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product risk
b) Is not correct. If the developers run over budget, or run out of time, that is a problem with the running of the project – it is a project risk
c) Is not correct. If the test cases do not provide full coverage of the requirements, this means the testing may not fulfil the requirements of the test plan – it is a project risk
d) Is not correct. If the test environment is not ready, this means the testing may not be done, or it may have to be done on a different environment and it is impacting how the project is run – it is a project risk

Question 36

37 Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

a) The potential impact of security flaws has been identified as being particularly high, so security testing has been prioritized ahead of some other testing activities
b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will be performed in that area
c) The users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, so additional usability testing is planned for the replacement system
d) The time needed to load web pages is crucial to the success of the new website, so an expert in performance testing has been employed for this project

Answer 36

This question is looking for bad application of product risk analysis.
a) Is not correct. As we are told security flaws have a particularly high impact, their risk level will be higher, and thus we have prioritized the security testing ahead of some other testing. Thus, product risk analysis has influenced the testing properly.
b) Is correct. As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation
c) Is not correct. Because the users had problems with the user interface of the previous system, there is now high awareness of the risk associated with the user interface, which has resulted in additional usability testing being planned. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the thoroughness and scope of testing
d) Is not correct. As the time needed to load web pages has been identified as crucial to the success of the new website, the performance of the website should be considered a risk, and the employment of an expert in performance testing helps to mitigate this risk. Thus, product risk analysis has properly influenced the testing

Question 37

38 You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:
1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?
a) 1, 2, 6
b) 1, 4, 5, 6
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 3, 5, 6

Answer 37

Considering each of the pieces of information:
1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information.
2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less important piece of information.
3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed
information should be provided, so this is an important piece of information.
4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information.
5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information.
6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran, including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an important piece of information.

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is not correct
d) Is correct

Question 38

39 Given the following test activities and test tools:

1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and testware
4. Test design

A. Code coverage tools
B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools

Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?
a) 1 – B, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – A
b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – D, 4 – C

Answer 38

The correct pairings of test activities and test tools are:
1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis – (b) Dynamic analysis tools
2. Test execution and logging – (a) Code coverage tools
3. Management of testing and testware – (d) Defect management tools
4. Test design – (c) Test data preparation tools

Thus:
a) Is not correct
b) Is not correct
c) Is correct
d) Is not correct

Question 39

40 Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to introduce a tool into an organization?

a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and determining what would need to change
b) The need to evaluate the test automation skills and training, mentoring and coaching needs of the testers who will use the tool
c) The need to evaluate whether the tool provides the required functionality and does not duplicate existing test tools
d) The need to evaluate the tool vendor in terms of the training and other support they provide