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Clinical Neuroscience > Mock Exam > Flashcards

Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which diagnostic tools are considered to detect early changes of Alzheimer’s disease?
- MRI
- psychometric tests
- biomarker-CSF / PET-Scan
- all of the above

A

all of the above

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2
Q

Which of the following apolipoprotein E (ApoE) genotype has the highest lifetime risk for AD-type dementia?
- E2/E4
- E3/E4
- E3/E3
- E4/E4

A

E4/E4

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3
Q

biomarker Alzheimer’s dementia

A

low aB1-42, high amyloid plaques, high pTau

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4
Q

Abeta rather being a binary biomarker of AD and tau being a progression biomarker

A
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5
Q

taking probes of CSF to test for AD

A

Standardized Lumbar Puncture:
- needle size (21G), time (morning, before noon), volume (12 ml)
- polypropylene tubes (prevent adhesion of proteins)
- without delay further processing (within 30 min)
- freezing of aliquots in -80º fridge

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6
Q

What did Aducanumab do in trials?

A

EMERGE & ENGAGE
- significant reduction in amyloid plagues
- mixed results on behavioral/primary outcome

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7
Q

In-vivo exposure is seen as a core element of cognitive behavioral therapy for patients with agoraphobia. How should they ideally behave during exposure?
- They should accept the increase of anxiety up to a certain point and apply relaxation techniques in case of extreme anxiety.
- They should accept the increase of anxiety, not apply avoidance or safety behavior, and wait until anxiety decreases by itself.
- They should constantly switch attention between anxiety provoking stimuli and distraction strategies.
- They should leave the anxiety provoking situation in case of extreme anxiety and re-start exposure with a low level of anxiety.

A

They should accept the increase of anxiety, not apply avoidance or safety behavior, and wait until anxiety decreases by itself.

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8
Q

Which of the following is an evidence-based and recommended pharmacological treatment for social phobia?
- anti-inflammatory drugs
- Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- antipsychotic drugs
- Lithium

A

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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9
Q

regarding Disorders associated with panic attacks

A

anorexia

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10
Q

lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia

A

1%

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11
Q

Schizophrenia - different descriptions

A
  • Kraepelin: premature aging or dementia, rapid cognitive decline in early adulthood
  • Bleuler: biological process, dementia secondary symptom, disorder of dissociation, negative symptoms are core features
  • Schneider: psychosis as core feature
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12
Q

Which answer is wrong? The core features of schizophrenia include …
- inflated sense of self-importance.
- social withdrawal.
- delusions and paranoia.
- cognitive dysfunction.

A

inflated sense of self-importance

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13
Q

Which of the following is true? Schizophrenia is a genetic disorder, …
- and its heritability is around 80%.
- but it is not heritable.
- and its heritability is around 10%.
- and environmental factors are not important.

A

and its heritability is around 80%.

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14
Q

Which of the following are effective treatments for schizophrenia?
- antipsychotic medication
- stimulate medication
- cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
- social skill training
- electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A
  • antipsychotic medication
  • cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
  • social skill training
  • electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
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15
Q

Which statement is correct? Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) …
- works via anodal and cathodal stimulation.
- is an invasive brain stimulation technique.
- exclusively activates inhibitory interneurons.
- exclusively impacts long term potentiation.

A

works via anodal and cathodal stimulation

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16
Q

What is the hollow mask illusion?
- perceiving other people as if they wear as mask
- perceiving the inside of a mask (i.e., the concave side) as a convex face
- perceiving the outside of a mask (i.e., the convex side) as an inverted face
- perceiving one’s own face is if it was a mask

A

perceiving the inside of a mask (i.e., the concave side) as a convex face

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17
Q

What theorem is often used to explain the emergence of illusions (such as the hollow mask illusion)?
- Nash’s theorem
- Bayes’ theorem
- Pythagoras’ theorem
- Fermat’s last theorem

A

Bayes’ theorem

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18
Q

Frankfurt’s free will

A
  • first-order desire: “I crave alcohol”
  • second-order volition: “I want a certain first-order desire to be my will”
  • free will: person is free to choose which first-order desire to be their will, satisfaction of volitions of second order
  • Wanton: no second-order volition present
  • unwilling addict: second-order volition is present, however, the person is not able to make the abstinence desire their will
  • willing addict: second-order volition wants the craving desire to be the will
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19
Q

DSM-5 criteria for depression

A

at least 5 out of 9 symptoms - including either 1 or 2 - for at least 2 weeks
- depressed mood
- markedly diminished interest or pleasure in (almost) all activities
- weight loss or decrease or increase in appetite
- insomnia or hypersomnia
- psychomotor agitation or retardation
- fatigue or loss of energy
- feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt
- diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness
- recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation, or specific suicide plan or suicide attempt
- hopelessness

20
Q

Which medication was recently approved in den USA for the treatment of depression?
- intranasal Esketamin
- intravenous Ketamin
- Psilocybin
- MDMA

A

intranasal Esketamin

21
Q

Default Mode Network is active

A

rumination

22
Q

psychedelics for depression treatment
“new drugs are underway”

A
23
Q

depression incidence in Germany

A

Europe (prevalence)
- depression: 6,9% (30,3 mio.)
- bipolar disorder: 0,9% (3,0 mio.)
Germany
- 1-year prevalence: 6.9%, 30.3 mio.
- 20% of German citiziens suffer from at least 1 MDD episode in life: 25% of women, 10% of men, 5% under 20, 2% under 12

24
Q

How are seizures classified according to 2017 ILAE classification?
- by duration (< or > 2 min)
- by etiology (genetic vs. acquired)
- by onset region (focal vs. generalized)
- by eye status (open with/without deviation vs. closed

A

by onset region (focal vs. generalized)

25
Q

Which aspects help to differentiate between generalized tonic clonic epileptic seizures and syncopes?
- Syncopes often lead to a loss of consciousness that is much shorter than in case of epileptic seizures.
- Eyes are always open during epileptic seizures but always closed during syncopes.
- Epileptic seizures rarely can be assigned to a clear trigger, while syncopes can be triggered by e.g. agitation.
- The time to complete reorientation is long (often > 5 min) for epileptic seizures but less than 1 min for syncopes.

A
  • Syncopes often lead to a loss of consciousness that is much shorter than in case of epileptic seizures.
  • Epileptic seizures rarely can be assigned to a clear trigger, while syncopes can be triggered by e.g. agitation.
  • The time to complete reorientation is long (often > 5 min) for epileptic seizures but less than 1 min for syncopes.
26
Q

Several antiepileptic drugs are approved for therapy. What are their mechanisms of action?
- antagonistic action on sodium channels
- antagonistic action on calcium channels
- agonistic action on GABA-A receptors
- antagonistic action on AMPA receptors

A
  • antagonistic action on sodium channels
  • antagonistic action on calcium channels
  • agonistic action on GABA-A receptors
  • antagonistic action on AMPA receptors
27
Q

regarding medication for epilepsy

A

different for focal and generalised (“is incurable” and “epilepsy is rare” was also an answer)

28
Q

medications for focal vs. global epilepsy

A
29
Q

side effects of epilepsy medication

A
  • dizziness, feeling lightheaded
  • feeling tired or sleepy
  • double vision or blurry vision
  • poor coordination or balance
  • unsteady walking
  • headache
  • stomach upset or pain
30
Q

regarding what characteristic of epilepsy it is

A

focal injury

31
Q

Lazarus’ transactional model of stress rests on the assumption that …
- stress occurs when the individual’s stress limits are exceeded.
- stress is caused primarily by adverse environmental factors.
- stress arises when the situation is appraised as challenging and one’s coping capacities are appraised as inadequate.
- in humans, stress is predominantly a social phenomenon.

A

stress arises when the situation is appraised as challenging and one’s coping capacities are appraised as inadequate.

32
Q

The fastest response system to acute stress is the …
- GABA system.
- HPA axis.
- mineralocorticoid system.
- autonomic nervous system.

A

autonomic nervous system

33
Q

The brain-based mineralocorticoid receptor is associated with …
- appraisal of the situation and response selection.
- recovery after stress exposure and return to homeostasis.
- consolidation of memory and behavioral adaptation.
- preventing the initial response from overshooting.

A

appraisal of the situation and response selection.
(all others are associated with glucocorticoid receptors)

34
Q

On which receptor does psilocybin mostly act?
- Mu Opiod receptor
- Dopamine receptor
- GABA receptor
- Serotonin 2A receptor

A

Serotonin 2A receptor

35
Q

Which substance is an antagonist against the NMDA-receptor and is often used to induce psychotic experiences in the lab?
- Ketamin
- Glutamate
- Dopamine
- Serotonin

A

Ketamin

36
Q

Which of the following is true? Damage to the nigrostriatal dopaminergic system typically leads to …
- Gilles-de-la-Tourette syndrome.
- brainstem myoclonus.
- Parkinsonism.
- cortical myoclonus.

A

Parkinsonism

37
Q

Which of the following is true?
- The hallmark feature of Tourette syndrome is myoclonus.
- The hallmark feature of Parkinsonism is stooped posture.
- Dystonia is typically associated with epilepsy.
- Dystonia is a disorder of abnormal motor programs.

A

Dystonia is a disorder of abnormal motor programs

38
Q

Which one of the following is false?
- Deep brain stimulation can restore dopaminergic levels in nigrostriatal cells.
- Difficulty to treat levodopa-associated bothersome dyskinesias may be an indication for deep brain stimulation.
- Deep brain stimulation can induce behavioral changes.
- Deep brain stimulation can improve parkinsonian motor symptoms.

A

Deep brain stimulation can restore dopaminergic levels in nigrostriatal cells.

39
Q

Which of the following statements about perception is not true?
- Visual signals are processed in a hierarchical fashion, from the retina to the prefrontal cortex and from there to the primary and secondary visual cortex of the brain.
- The binding problem is the problem of how the unity of conscious perception is brought about by the distributed activities of the central nervous system.
- Binocular rivalry is a phenomenon of visual perception in which perception alternates between different images presented to each eye.
- Blindsight is a phenomenon in which people who are perceptually blind in a certain area of their visual field demonstrate some response to visual stimuli, without any qualitative experience (‘qualia’).

A

Visual signals are processed in a hierarchical fashion, from the retina to the prefrontal cortex and from there to the primary and secondary visual cortex of the brain.

40
Q

Cerebral Achromatopsia is an acquired deficit of …
- color perception.
- motion perception.
- face perception.
- form perception.

A

color perception

41
Q

Agnosia is …
- a loss of the ability to produce and/or comprehend language (while there is no deficit in sensory, motor or intellectual functioning and no psychiatric disorder).
- a loss of the ability to perform simple mathematical tasks, such as adding, subtracting, multiplying and even simply stating which of two numbers is larger).
- a loss of the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells (while the specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss).
- a loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned purposeful movements (despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements).

A

a loss of the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells (while the specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss).

42
Q

Which of the following is true? Language is a means of communication which …
- depends on the integrity of hearing and speaking.
- is defined by the fact that we have words for objects / concepts.
- is developed due to the formal instruction by parents.
- comprises (arbitrary) signs according to a set of rules.

A

comprises (arbitrary) signs according to a set of rules

43
Q

Which of the following is true? An aphasia …
- is a disorder of speech but not writing.
- affects language production but usually not language comprehension.
- is most commonly the result of degenerative disease.
- interferes with all aspects of language competence.

A

interferes with all aspects of language competence

44
Q

Which of the following is true? Broca’s aphasia …
- is diagnosed if the patient can only utter meaningless sounds.
- the most common form of aphasia.
- can be clearly delineated from all other aphasia types.
- is a non-fluent type of aphasia.

A

is a non-fluent type of aphasia

45
Q

Broca’s vs. Wernicke’s aphasia “cumbersome” regarding speech production

A
46
Q

Which statement is correct? Neuroplasticity …
- is usually suppressed by antidepressant medication.
- is only possible in the prenatal period and the first two years of life.
- exclusively happens in the hippocampus in mammals.
- is influenced by early life experiences.

A

is influenced by early life experiences

47
Q

Which intervention or condition usually does not have the potential to increase neuroplasticity?
- M. Huntington
- exercise
- juggling
- learning to play an instrument

A

M. Huntington

Clinical Neuroscience (15 decks)

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