Mock Exam Flashcards
Which diagnostic tools are considered to detect early changes of Alzheimer’s disease?
- MRI
- psychometric tests
- biomarker-CSF / PET-Scan
- all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following apolipoprotein E (ApoE) genotype has the highest lifetime risk for AD-type dementia?
- E2/E4
- E3/E4
- E3/E3
- E4/E4
E4/E4
biomarker Alzheimer’s dementia
low aB1-42, high amyloid plaques, high pTau
Abeta rather being a binary biomarker of AD and tau being a progression biomarker
taking probes of CSF to test for AD
Standardized Lumbar Puncture:
- needle size (21G), time (morning, before noon), volume (12 ml)
- polypropylene tubes (prevent adhesion of proteins)
- without delay further processing (within 30 min)
- freezing of aliquots in -80º fridge
What did Aducanumab do in trials?
EMERGE & ENGAGE
- significant reduction in amyloid plagues
- mixed results on behavioral/primary outcome
In-vivo exposure is seen as a core element of cognitive behavioral therapy for patients with agoraphobia. How should they ideally behave during exposure?
- They should accept the increase of anxiety up to a certain point and apply relaxation techniques in case of extreme anxiety.
- They should accept the increase of anxiety, not apply avoidance or safety behavior, and wait until anxiety decreases by itself.
- They should constantly switch attention between anxiety provoking stimuli and distraction strategies.
- They should leave the anxiety provoking situation in case of extreme anxiety and re-start exposure with a low level of anxiety.
They should accept the increase of anxiety, not apply avoidance or safety behavior, and wait until anxiety decreases by itself.
Which of the following is an evidence-based and recommended pharmacological treatment for social phobia?
- anti-inflammatory drugs
- Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- antipsychotic drugs
- Lithium
Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
regarding Disorders associated with panic attacks
anorexia
lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia
1%
Schizophrenia - different descriptions
- Kraepelin: premature aging or dementia, rapid cognitive decline in early adulthood
- Bleuler: biological process, dementia secondary symptom, disorder of dissociation, negative symptoms are core features
- Schneider: psychosis as core feature
Which answer is wrong? The core features of schizophrenia include …
- inflated sense of self-importance.
- social withdrawal.
- delusions and paranoia.
- cognitive dysfunction.
inflated sense of self-importance
Which of the following is true? Schizophrenia is a genetic disorder, …
- and its heritability is around 80%.
- but it is not heritable.
- and its heritability is around 10%.
- and environmental factors are not important.
and its heritability is around 80%.
Which of the following are effective treatments for schizophrenia?
- antipsychotic medication
- stimulate medication
- cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
- social skill training
- electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- antipsychotic medication
- cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
- social skill training
- electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
Which statement is correct? Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) …
- works via anodal and cathodal stimulation.
- is an invasive brain stimulation technique.
- exclusively activates inhibitory interneurons.
- exclusively impacts long term potentiation.
works via anodal and cathodal stimulation
What is the hollow mask illusion?
- perceiving other people as if they wear as mask
- perceiving the inside of a mask (i.e., the concave side) as a convex face
- perceiving the outside of a mask (i.e., the convex side) as an inverted face
- perceiving one’s own face is if it was a mask
perceiving the inside of a mask (i.e., the concave side) as a convex face
What theorem is often used to explain the emergence of illusions (such as the hollow mask illusion)?
- Nash’s theorem
- Bayes’ theorem
- Pythagoras’ theorem
- Fermat’s last theorem
Bayes’ theorem
Frankfurt’s free will
- first-order desire: “I crave alcohol”
- second-order volition: “I want a certain first-order desire to be my will”
- free will: person is free to choose which first-order desire to be their will, satisfaction of volitions of second order
- Wanton: no second-order volition present
- unwilling addict: second-order volition is present, however, the person is not able to make the abstinence desire their will
- willing addict: second-order volition wants the craving desire to be the will
DSM-5 criteria for depression
at least 5 out of 9 symptoms - including either 1 or 2 - for at least 2 weeks
- depressed mood
- markedly diminished interest or pleasure in (almost) all activities
- weight loss or decrease or increase in appetite
- insomnia or hypersomnia
- psychomotor agitation or retardation
- fatigue or loss of energy
- feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt
- diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness
- recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation, or specific suicide plan or suicide attempt
- hopelessness
Which medication was recently approved in den USA for the treatment of depression?
- intranasal Esketamin
- intravenous Ketamin
- Psilocybin
- MDMA
intranasal Esketamin
Default Mode Network is active
rumination
psychedelics for depression treatment
“new drugs are underway”
depression incidence in Germany
Europe (prevalence)
- depression: 6,9% (30,3 mio.)
- bipolar disorder: 0,9% (3,0 mio.)
Germany
- 1-year prevalence: 6.9%, 30.3 mio.
- 20% of German citiziens suffer from at least 1 MDD episode in life: 25% of women, 10% of men, 5% under 20, 2% under 12
How are seizures classified according to 2017 ILAE classification?
- by duration (< or > 2 min)
- by etiology (genetic vs. acquired)
- by onset region (focal vs. generalized)
- by eye status (open with/without deviation vs. closed
by onset region (focal vs. generalized)
Which aspects help to differentiate between generalized tonic clonic epileptic seizures and syncopes?
- Syncopes often lead to a loss of consciousness that is much shorter than in case of epileptic seizures.
- Eyes are always open during epileptic seizures but always closed during syncopes.
- Epileptic seizures rarely can be assigned to a clear trigger, while syncopes can be triggered by e.g. agitation.
- The time to complete reorientation is long (often > 5 min) for epileptic seizures but less than 1 min for syncopes.
- Syncopes often lead to a loss of consciousness that is much shorter than in case of epileptic seizures.
- Epileptic seizures rarely can be assigned to a clear trigger, while syncopes can be triggered by e.g. agitation.
- The time to complete reorientation is long (often > 5 min) for epileptic seizures but less than 1 min for syncopes.
Several antiepileptic drugs are approved for therapy. What are their mechanisms of action?
- antagonistic action on sodium channels
- antagonistic action on calcium channels
- agonistic action on GABA-A receptors
- antagonistic action on AMPA receptors
- antagonistic action on sodium channels
- antagonistic action on calcium channels
- agonistic action on GABA-A receptors
- antagonistic action on AMPA receptors
regarding medication for epilepsy
different for focal and generalised (“is incurable” and “epilepsy is rare” was also an answer)
medications for focal vs. global epilepsy
side effects of epilepsy medication
- dizziness, feeling lightheaded
- feeling tired or sleepy
- double vision or blurry vision
- poor coordination or balance
- unsteady walking
- headache
- stomach upset or pain
regarding what characteristic of epilepsy it is
focal injury
Lazarus’ transactional model of stress rests on the assumption that …
- stress occurs when the individual’s stress limits are exceeded.
- stress is caused primarily by adverse environmental factors.
- stress arises when the situation is appraised as challenging and one’s coping capacities are appraised as inadequate.
- in humans, stress is predominantly a social phenomenon.
stress arises when the situation is appraised as challenging and one’s coping capacities are appraised as inadequate.
The fastest response system to acute stress is the …
- GABA system.
- HPA axis.
- mineralocorticoid system.
- autonomic nervous system.
autonomic nervous system
The brain-based mineralocorticoid receptor is associated with …
- appraisal of the situation and response selection.
- recovery after stress exposure and return to homeostasis.
- consolidation of memory and behavioral adaptation.
- preventing the initial response from overshooting.
appraisal of the situation and response selection.
(all others are associated with glucocorticoid receptors)
On which receptor does psilocybin mostly act?
- Mu Opiod receptor
- Dopamine receptor
- GABA receptor
- Serotonin 2A receptor
Serotonin 2A receptor
Which substance is an antagonist against the NMDA-receptor and is often used to induce psychotic experiences in the lab?
- Ketamin
- Glutamate
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
Ketamin
Which of the following is true? Damage to the nigrostriatal dopaminergic system typically leads to …
- Gilles-de-la-Tourette syndrome.
- brainstem myoclonus.
- Parkinsonism.
- cortical myoclonus.
Parkinsonism
Which of the following is true?
- The hallmark feature of Tourette syndrome is myoclonus.
- The hallmark feature of Parkinsonism is stooped posture.
- Dystonia is typically associated with epilepsy.
- Dystonia is a disorder of abnormal motor programs.
Dystonia is a disorder of abnormal motor programs
Which one of the following is false?
- Deep brain stimulation can restore dopaminergic levels in nigrostriatal cells.
- Difficulty to treat levodopa-associated bothersome dyskinesias may be an indication for deep brain stimulation.
- Deep brain stimulation can induce behavioral changes.
- Deep brain stimulation can improve parkinsonian motor symptoms.
Deep brain stimulation can restore dopaminergic levels in nigrostriatal cells.
Which of the following statements about perception is not true?
- Visual signals are processed in a hierarchical fashion, from the retina to the prefrontal cortex and from there to the primary and secondary visual cortex of the brain.
- The binding problem is the problem of how the unity of conscious perception is brought about by the distributed activities of the central nervous system.
- Binocular rivalry is a phenomenon of visual perception in which perception alternates between different images presented to each eye.
- Blindsight is a phenomenon in which people who are perceptually blind in a certain area of their visual field demonstrate some response to visual stimuli, without any qualitative experience (‘qualia’).
Visual signals are processed in a hierarchical fashion, from the retina to the prefrontal cortex and from there to the primary and secondary visual cortex of the brain.
Cerebral Achromatopsia is an acquired deficit of …
- color perception.
- motion perception.
- face perception.
- form perception.
color perception
Agnosia is …
- a loss of the ability to produce and/or comprehend language (while there is no deficit in sensory, motor or intellectual functioning and no psychiatric disorder).
- a loss of the ability to perform simple mathematical tasks, such as adding, subtracting, multiplying and even simply stating which of two numbers is larger).
- a loss of the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells (while the specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss).
- a loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned purposeful movements (despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements).
a loss of the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells (while the specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss).
Which of the following is true? Language is a means of communication which …
- depends on the integrity of hearing and speaking.
- is defined by the fact that we have words for objects / concepts.
- is developed due to the formal instruction by parents.
- comprises (arbitrary) signs according to a set of rules.
comprises (arbitrary) signs according to a set of rules
Which of the following is true? An aphasia …
- is a disorder of speech but not writing.
- affects language production but usually not language comprehension.
- is most commonly the result of degenerative disease.
- interferes with all aspects of language competence.
interferes with all aspects of language competence
Which of the following is true? Broca’s aphasia …
- is diagnosed if the patient can only utter meaningless sounds.
- the most common form of aphasia.
- can be clearly delineated from all other aphasia types.
- is a non-fluent type of aphasia.
is a non-fluent type of aphasia
Broca’s vs. Wernicke’s aphasia “cumbersome” regarding speech production
Which statement is correct? Neuroplasticity …
- is usually suppressed by antidepressant medication.
- is only possible in the prenatal period and the first two years of life.
- exclusively happens in the hippocampus in mammals.
- is influenced by early life experiences.
is influenced by early life experiences
Which intervention or condition usually does not have the potential to increase neuroplasticity?
- M. Huntington
- exercise
- juggling
- learning to play an instrument
M. Huntington
