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Questions from 2a SBA Practice > Mock 2 > Flashcards

Mock 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CHADS VASc score used for?

A

Assessing stroke risk and anticoagulation need in AF patients

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2
Q 
Which parameter isn’t in the scoring system used to calculate the stroke risk in patients with Atrial Fibrillation?
A. Age
B. Blood Pressure
C. Congestive Heart Failure
D. Diabetes
E. Family History
A

Family History

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3
Q

What is an irregularly irregular pulse seen in?

A

AF

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4
Q

What is pulses paradoxus?

A

When the BP drops significantly during inspiration

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5
Q

What is radio-radial delay?

A

Where pulse is significantly stronger in one arm than the other

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6
Q

What condition is radio-radial delay seen in?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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7
Q

What produces early diastolic decrescendo murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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8
Q

What produces ejection systolic crescendo murmur heard loudest on expiration?

A

Aortic stenosis

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9
Q

What causes pan systolic murmur?

A

Mitral regurgitation

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10
Q

What causes mid-diastolic murmur?

A

Mitral stenosis

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11
Q

What causes an ejection systolic murmur heart loudest on inspiration?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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12
Q

What are the 3 cardinal signs of HF?

A
  1. SOB
  2. Fatigue
  3. Ankle oedema
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13
Q

What does an R wave resemble on an ECG?

A

An M

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14
Q

What does a slurred S wave resemble on an ECG?

A

A W

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15
Q

What are the 6 Ps of critical ischaemia?

A 
Pain 
Pallor
Paralysis
Paraesthesia 
Perishingly cold 
Pulselessness
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16
Q

What are the 4 features of teratology of fallow?

A
  1. RVH
  2. VSD
  3. Overriding aorta
  4. Stenosis of pulmonary outflow track

Think of the VSD overloading the already narrow Pulmonary outflow tract- which causes RVH

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17
Q

What is stage 1 clinical HTN?

A

More than 140/90

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18
Q

What is stage 2 clinical HTN?

A

More than 160/100

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19
Q

What is severe HTN?

A

More than 180/100

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20
Q

Give 5 signs of infective endocarditis

A
  1. Splinter haemorrhages
  2. Osler’s nodes
  3. Janeway lesions
  4. Roth spots
  5. Fever
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21
Q

What are xanthelasma?

A

Cholesterol deposits around the eyes

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22
Q

What usually presents with pale smelly stools that are hard to flush away?

A

Coeliac disease

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23
Q

What presents with generalised abdominal pain which gets better after passing wind/defecation and bloating + change in bowel habit?

A

IBS - A type of functional bowel disorder

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24
Q

What side of the abdomen does crohns pain usually present with?

A

Right side (cRohns)

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25
Q

What presents with RS abdomen pain, bloody stools, mouth ulcers?

A

Crohns

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26
Q

Where would you get abdominal pain in UC?

A

LLQ

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27
Q

What behaviours increase the likelihood of developing a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

Retching and vomiting

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28
Q

A 35 year-old-male comes to the A&E department because he has been vomiting blood. He said he had been having some abdominal pain, feeling very nauseous and had been retching several times a day before finally vomiting this morning and it had blood in it. He hasn’t noticed any weight loss, fevers or any other systemic symptoms. He drinks 2/3 pints every evening and has been eating/drinking as normal. He doesn’t take any prescribed or over the counter medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Peptic ulcer rupture
B. Oesophagealmalignancy
C. Gastroesophagealrefluxdisease D. Achalasia
E. Mallory Weiss tear

A

Mallory Weiss tear

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29
Q

What is sulfasalazine used to treat?

A

UC and Crohns

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30
Q

What is omeprazole?

A

A PPI

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31
Q

What is a first line medication for GORD?

A

PPI e.g. omeprazole

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32
Q

What is ranitidine?

A

A H2 antagonist

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33
Q

Give 4 causes of peptic ulcers

A

H.pylori
Increased acid production
NSAID use
Mucosal ischaemia

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34
Q

What could present with middle/upper abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation and bloating?

A

Small bowel obstruction

HINT - Previous surgery causing adhesions

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35
Q

How do you treat H.Pylori infection?

A

REMEMBER WITH CAP

TRIPLE THERAPY OF:
Clarithromycin/Metronidazole
Amoxicillin
PPI e.g. omeprazole/lansoprazole

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36
Q

Give 4 risk factors for developing GORD

A

Obesity
Hiatus hernia
Smoking
Pregnancy

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37
Q

What is the first line investigation in large bowel obstruction?

A

Abdominal X-Ray

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38
Q

What is a potential diagnosis for left iliac fossa mass, abdominal pain, bloating and constipation?

A

Large bowel obstruction

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39
Q

What is achalasia?

A

The LOS doesn’t open in swallowing causing a backup of food in the oesophagus

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40
Q

Give 3 consequences of untreated GORD

A

Barretts oesophagus
Oesophagitis
Oesophageal ulcers

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41
Q

How do duodenal ulcers present?

A

They cause pain several hours after eating- pain gets better after eating

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42
Q

Why do people with duodenal ulcers get pain hours after eating?

A

Stomach acid in the duodenum

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43
Q

Which has a stronger genetic link, Crohns or UC?

A

Crohns

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44
Q

Which sex is affected more in Crohns and UC?

A

UC is 50/50

Crohns - females affected more

45
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

The dermatological manifestation of coeliac disease - often seen as a rash on extensor surfaces e.g. elbow

46
Q

What is the first line treatment for coeliac?

A

Gluten free diet

47
Q

Give 4 risk factors for oesophageal cancer

A

Achalasia - due to increase in vomiting
Alcohol
Obesity
Smoking

48
Q

What is the gold standard investigation in bowel cancer?

A

Colonoscopy

49
Q

Where is colon cancer most likely to be seen?

A

Distal colon

50
Q

Why is it easier to detect distal colon cancer?

A

The closer the cancer is to the outside of the body the more visible the blood and mucus is

51
Q

Pt presents with umbilical pain that has migrated to RIF- with fever and vomiting - diagnosis?

A

Appendicitis

52
Q

Straining to go to the toilet and blood when wiping - no weight loss - diagnosis?

A

Haemorrhoids - straining loosens and bulks the spongy vascular tissue

53
Q

What would you see when doing a blood test in a Crohns patient?

A
  1. Anaemia due to iron and folate deficiency

2. Raised ESR and CRP

54
Q

What is the most common cause of AKIs?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

55
Q

How can prostatic hyperplasia cause post-renal AKI?

A

It increases intra-tubular pressure, which decreases GFR - Causing rising urea and creatinine serum levels

56
Q

Give 4 risk factors of CKD

A

Diabetes
FHx
Increasing age
Recurrent UTIs

57
Q

Does pregnancy increase the risk of CKD?

A

No - but CKD increases the risk of pregnancy complications

58
Q

What is the most common causative organism in pyelonephritis ?

A

E-coli

59
Q

What is the best investigation to use in the management of pyelonephritis?

A

Midstream urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity

60
Q

What is the first line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy?

A

Nitrofuratoin

61
Q

Why is trimethoprim contraindicated in treating UTIs and pregnancy?

A

It inhibits folate synthesis

62
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

A

Fever, RUQ pain and jaundice

63
Q

What is reiter’s syndrome?

A

Also known as reactive arthritis:
Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Arthritis

64
Q

Describe how PKD is usually passed on

A

Autosomal dominant

65
Q

Give 4 complications of PKD

A

Cardiovascular disease
Kidney stones
Polycystic liver disease
Berry aneurysms leading to SAH

66
Q

How do you differentiate between Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

HL has Reed-Sternberg cells

67
Q

How do you differentiate acute myeloid leukaemia from other leukemias?

A

Auer rods are seen histologically In AML

68
Q

Is the progesterone only pill a risk factor for DVT?

A

No- NICE actually recommends it for DVT risk women over the OCP

69
Q

What is the immediate treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

Plasma exchange ASAP

THIS IS A MEDICAL EMERGENCY DO NOT CONFIRM DIAGNOSIS FIRST

70
Q

What should you NOT give in TTP?

A

Platelets

71
Q

What score is used to asses for DVT?

A

DVT Wells score

72
Q

When should suspected DVT lead to same day assessment and management?

A

A woman who is pregnant/ has given birth in the past 6 weeks

73
Q

What score estimates major bleeding risk in patients on anticoagulants for AF?

A

HAS-BLED score

74
Q

What score is used to calculate stroke/MI risk in the next 10 years?

A

QRISK

75
Q

What is the treatment for a DVT?

A

LMWH and Oral anticoagulant e.g. warfarin

76
Q

What is the first line treatment for severe/complicated malaria?

A

IV Artesunate

77
Q

What is ferritin?

A

A protein that STORES iron - it is usually found in cells

78
Q

What is transferrin?

A

A protein that combines with ferritin to transport iron i.e. a taxi for iron

79
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated malaria?

A

Oral chloroquinine

80
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Increased size of tissue due to an increase in the number of cells

81
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increased tissue size due to increase in constituent cell size

82
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

An aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes

83
Q

What is the definition of granulation tissue?

A

New connective tissue with microscopic blood vessels forming on a wound surface

84
Q

What is Barretts oesophagus?

A

Metaplasia of stratified squamous cells to simple columnar cells in the distal oesophagus -usually as a result of GORD

85
Q

What cancers spread to bone?

A 
The 5 B's
Brain
Bronchus
Byroid
Bidney
Brostate
86
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose?

A

N-acetyl cystine

87
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

A neurological condition characterised by unilateral loss of sweating, dilated pupil and drooping eyelid

88
Q

What could be the diagnosis of somebody with raised ANA, anti-dsDNA and antiphospholipids?

A

Lupus

89
Q

What is the first line treatment for alcohol/ drug withdrawal seizure?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

90
Q

What is methadone used for?

A

Heroin addiction

91
Q

What is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy caused by?

A

Vitamin B1/Thiamine deficiency in the brain of chronic alcoholics

92
Q

What is a side effect of bisphosphonates?

A

Oesophagitis

93
Q

What is sjorgen’s syndrome?

A

The immune destruction of exocrine glands presenting with arthritis, dry eyes and dry mouth

94
Q

What is the test for sjorgen’s syndrome?

A

Schirmer’s test

95
Q

What is the first line management of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Ibuprofen

96
Q

Knee/one joint affected pain with fever- diagnosis?

A

Pseudogout - often presents with mono arthritis of the knee

97
Q

What is the first line treatment for gout?

A

Colchine or ibuprofen

98
Q

What does a T score of -1 - -2.5 suggest?

A

Osteopenia

99
Q

What does a T score of under -2.5 suggest?

A

Osteoporosis

100
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

The adult version of rickets - softening of bones due to vitamin D/ Calcium deficiency

101
Q

What should a patient who has had their first seizure be offered on discharge?

A

Sodium valproate

102
Q

What is intention tremor seen in?

A

Huntingtons disease

103
Q

What is resting tremor seen in?

A

Parkinsons - it stabilises upon active movement of the body part

104
Q

What is the first line treatment for giant cell arteritis?

A

Oral steroids

105
Q

How does cauda equina syndrome present?

A

Inability to open bowels/urinate
Reduced anal tone
Saddle anaesthesia

106
Q

Within what time frame should ischaemic stroke patients receive alteplase treatment after symptom onset?

A

Within 4.5 hours

107
Q

What is the most common infective cause of COPD exacerbation?

A

Haemophilius influenzae

108
Q

Give a sign of a life threatening asthma attack

A

SpO2 < 92%

109
Q

What asthma medication is known to cause tachycardia and resting tremor?

A

Salbutamol inhaler

Questions from 2a SBA Practice (3 decks)

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