mock/ Flashcards

1
Q
An example of normocytic anaemia is
A.	Iron deficiency
B.	Vitamin B12 deficiency
C.	Anaemia of chronic disease
D.	Haemolytic anaemia
E.	Folate deficiency
A

C. Anaemia of chronic disease

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2
Q

Choose the one incorrect statement
A. Supra renal glands are superior to kidneys
B. The liver is in direct contact with the right kidney
C. The duodenum is medial to the right kidney
D. The tail of the pancreas is anterior to the left kidney
E. The small intestine is medial to the left kidney

A

B. The liver is in direct contact with the right kidney

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3
Q
When referring to the cortico-medullary gradient what is the osmolarity of the medullary region of the kidneys
A.	300 mosmol/L
B.	900 mosmol/L
C.	1400 mosmol/L
D.	1200 mosmol/L
E.	600 mosmol/L
A

D. 1200 mosmol/L

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4
Q
Which one of the following drugs should not be taken while breastfeeding?
A. Warfarin
B. Loratadine
C. Tramadol
D. Amoxicillin
E. Enoxaparin
A

C. Tramadol

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5
Q
Which ONE of the following is not a possible cause of microcytic (iron deficiency) anaemia
A.	Poor iron intake from the diet
B.	Blood donation
C.	Taking NSAIDs
D.	Intrinsic factor receptor deficiency
E.	Gastro-intestinal disorders
A

D. Intrinsic factor receptor deficiency

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6
Q

Which One of the following is incorrect?
A. The normal bilirubin range is 3-21 micromol/L
B. Normal white blood cell count is 3-10x 109/L
C. The normal urea level is 2.5-6.5 mmol/L
D. The normal potassium level is 35-53mmol/L
E. Normal blood pressure range is 90/60 to 120/80 mmHg

A

D. The normal potassium level is 35-53mmol/L

should be 3.5-5.3

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7
Q

Which One of the following options represents the response of renal arterioles to a decrease in blood pressure to maintain GFR?
A. Afferent arterioles dilate, Efferent arterioles constrict
B. Afferent arterioles constrict, Efferent arterioles constrict
C. Afferent arterioles dilate, Efferent arterioles dilate
D. Afferent arterioles constrict, Efferent arterioles dilate
E. No response

A

A. Afferent arterioles dilate, Efferent arterioles constrict

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8
Q

What is the function of ADH in the kidney?
A. Increases water loss by inhibition of reabsorption via aquaporins
B. Increases loss of water in the filtrate
C. Acts as a pore so that water is reabsorbed into the blood
D. Signals for the placement of aquaporins in the apical and baso-lateral membranes allowing for movement of water from the blood to filtrate
E. Signals for the placement of aquaporins in the apical and baso-lateral membranes allowing for movement of water from the filtrate to blood

A

E. Signals for the placement of aquaporins in the apical and baso-lateral membranes allowing for movement of water from the filtrate to blood

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9
Q
Which is the main cell that is involved in destruction of beta cells in the pancreas in type 1 diabetes?
A.	T cells
B.	B cells
C.	Neutrophils
D.	Macrophages
E.	Eosinophils
A

A. T cells

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10
Q

What is meant by adverse drug reaction?
A. A noxious and unintended response to a drug that occurs at doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy but response may not be due to that specific drug
B. An allergy to that specific drug
C. A noxious and unintended response to a drug that occurs at doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy
D. Reactions are always dose related and predictable

A

C. A noxious and unintended response to a drug that occurs at doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy

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11
Q

What is the most likely function of the proximal convoluted tubule?
A. Passive reabsorption of water only
B. Active transport of sodium
C. Active reabsorption of urea and hydrogen ions
D. Active transport of sodium and glucose
E. Regulate blood pressure, helping to release renin

A

D. Active transport of sodium and glucose

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12
Q
Which of the following has a rate of urinary excretion that is always much lower than its rate of glomerular filtration in a healthy adult?
A.	Urea
B.	Potassium
C.	Sodium
D.	Glucose
E.	Calcium
A

D. Glucose

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13
Q
Which one of the following is an accessory inspiratory muscle?
A.	Internal intercostal
B.	External intercostal
C.	Internal oblique
D.	Rectus abdominus
E.	Diaphragm
A

B. External intercostal

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14
Q

Which of the following options is characteristically involved in the initial response in acute inflammation?
A. Constriction of arterioles
B. Capillary endothelial cell enlargement
C. Influx of macrophages
D. Influx of mast cells
E. Influx of neutrophils

A

E. Influx of neutrophils

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15
Q

How does activated Vitamin D directly maintain normal serum calcium
A. Decreases calcium absorption from the intestinal lumen
B. Increases calcium release from bone
C. Increases calcium reabsorption from the kidney tubule
D. Decreases calcium reabsorption from the kidney tubule
E. Increases calcium release from the stomach

A

C. Increases calcium reabsorption from the kidney tubule

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16
Q

What renal compensation takes place for respiratory alkalosis?
A. Less renal excretion of bicarbonate ions and less renal absorption of hydrogen ions
B. More renal excretion of bicarbonate ions and more renal absorption of hydrogen ions
C. More renal excretion of hydrogen ions and more renal absorption of bicarbonate ions
D. More renal excretion of carbon dioxide
E. Less excretion of carbon dioxide

A

B. More renal excretion of bicarbonate ions and more renal absorption of hydrogen ions

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17
Q

Which one these statements correctly explains the hygiene hypothesis?
A. Decrease in allergic disease is due to reduced exposure to pathogen
B. Increase in allergic disease is due to reduced exposure to pathogen causing a decreased default Th2 differentiation
C. A decreased default Th1 differentiation
D. An increase in allergic disease is due to reduced exposure to pathogen causing a increased default Th2 differentiation

A

D. An increase in allergic disease is due to reduced exposure to pathogen causing a increased default Th2 differentiation

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18
Q
Tetracycline in children is contraindicated as it can lead to
A.	Grey skin colour
B.	Reyes syndrome
C.	Discoloured teeth
D.	Rash, vomiting and fever
E.	Liver damage
A

C. Discoloured teeth

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is false?
A. Recombinant EPO is licensed for anaemia in chronic renal failure
B. Receptors are homodimeric and situated on red blood cell precursors
C. Receptors on cardiac tissue indicate cardioprotective properties
D. At normal oxygen levels HIF 1 alpha is not hydroxylated so EPO transcription does not occur
E. Inability to produce EPO is linked with reduced exercise capacity

A

D. At normal oxygen levels HIF 1 alpha is not hydroxylated so EPO transcription does not occur

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20
Q

What effect does TNF alpha not have in rheumatoid arthritis
A. Cause bone erosion via osteoclasts
B. Causes cartilage destruction
C. Has a positive feedback effect of inflammatory cytokines
D. Increases the chance of activating latent TB
E. Causes loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia)

A

D. Increases the chance of activating latent TB

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21
Q
Which of the following is not an effect of fluid overload from chronic kidney disease
A.	Hyponatraemia
B.	Hypernatraemia
C.	Pulmonary oedema
D.	Pitting oedema
E.	Hypertension
A

B. Hypernatraemia

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22
Q

Which one of the following describes oral allergy syndrome?
A. High sensitisation to storage proteins within peanuts; high risk of anaphylaxis
B. Cross-reactivity with lipid transfer proteins in peanuts; moderate risk of systemic reactions
C. Cross-reactivity with ubiquitious and unstable plant proteins; tingling and itchiness only
(Normally confined to the lips mouth and throat)

A

C. Cross-reactivity with ubiquitious and unstable plant proteins; tingling and itchiness only

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23
Q

What is the function of Th2 cytokines in type 1 hypersensitivity?

a) To help bind IgM to bind to neutrophils
b) Class switch to IgE
c) To allow B cells to produce histamine
d) To send signals for mast cells to degranulate

A

b) Class switch to IgE

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24
Q
Which drug treats autoimmune disease by blocking pathways involved in nucleotide synthesis?
A. Azathioprine
B. Prednisone
C. Colchicine
D. Dapsone
E. Aspirin 
TPMPT activity
A

A. Azathioprine

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25
Q
What diuretics can cause gout?
A.	Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor 
B.	Aldosterone antagonist
C.	Thiazide and related diuretics
D.	Sodium channel blocker 
E.	Loop diuretics
A

C. Thiazide and related diuretics

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26
Q
which is least likely to cause AKI?
A.	Hypervolaemia
B.	Hypokalaemia
C.	Sepsis/infections
D.	Drugs
E.	BMI
A

A. hypervolaemia (fluid overload)

B. Hypokalaemia (volume depletion = aki)
C. Sepsis/infections (sepsis associated acute kidney injury)
D. Drugs (diuretics and many more – aki)
E. BMI (risk factor?)

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27
Q
Which structures are present in the medullary region of the kidney?
A)	Loop of Henle and collecting ducts 
B)	Loop of Henle and PCT
C)	PCT and glomeruli 
D)	Glomeruli and DCT 
E)	DCT, PCT, glomeruli and Loop of Henle
A

A but: Collecting ducts, loops of henle, vasa recta and the interstitium

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28
Q

Regarding teratogenicity, which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) The embryonic period, during which organogenesis takes place (1st trimester) is when a foetus is most at risk of teratogenic effects
b) Hydralazine, Labetalol, and Nifedipine are the recommended first-line treatments for severe hypertension in pregnancy (pre-eclampsia)
c) Ramipril and Lisinopril are the recommended first-line treatments for hypertension in pregnancy (methyldopa is used 1st line)
d) Teratogenic drugs can affect growth and functional development or have toxic effects on tissues (fetotoxicity) in the 2nd and 3rd trimester
e) Sodium Valproate is contraindicated in pregnancy as it causes birth defects such as spina bifida

A

c, methyldopa = 1st line

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of metabolic acidosis?
A) a high pH, high HCO3- and the loss of H+ ions and addition of HCO3- ions
B) a high pH, low PaCO2 and the reduction of H+ ions
C) a low pH, high HCO3- and the loss of H+ ions and reduction HCO3- ions
D) a low pH, high PaCO2 and the addition of H+ ions (resp)
E) a low pH, low HCO3- and the addition of H+ ions and reduction HCO3- ions

A

E) a low pH, low HCO3- and the addition of H+ ions and reduction HCO3- ions

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30
Q

Which ONE of the following statements about anaemia is INCORRECT?
A. Anaemia of chronic kidney disease can be mild microcytic anaemia
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency can increase MCV
C. Haemolytic anaemia can increase MCV
D. Iron deficiency anaemia show increased MCV
E. Coombs positive patient show fragmented red blood cells on blood film

A

D. Iron deficiency anaemia show increased MCV

(microcytic)

(coombs = you have antibodies that act against your red blood cells)
(macrocytic anemia can be due to b12 or folate deficiency)
Haemolytic – rbc destroyed faster than made
Macrocytic anemia - body has large rbc and not enough rbc
Microcytic – small, red blood cells characterized by low mcv (ida – most common cause)

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31
Q

What the does the presence of IgM indicate:
• Activation of b cells
• A recent exposure has taken
• An allergic rection is present
• A reaction between mother and fetus across the placenta
• Activation of memory cells

A

• A recent exposure has taken

IgM antibodies = detection technique for diseases

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32
Q

How does renal failure cause oedema?

A

Renal odema is associated with renal sodium retention.

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33
Q

CKD impairs excretory renal function. What occurs if excretory function of kidney fails.
A- Decrease in nitrogenous waste
B- Increase in absorption of urate (increased retention serum uric acid that occurs as gfr decreases, slow down in the removal of uric acid from the body)
C-Retention of phosphate
D- Increase in creatinine release through urine

A

C-Retention of phosphate - Normal working kidneys can remove extra phosphorus in your blood, in CKD this cannot occur. Extra phosphorus puls calcium into bones

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34
Q

What is desmopressin and whats its role?

A

Analogue of vasopressin (ADH) released from the anterior pituitary
Limits hm water eliminated at the kidney (an antidiuretic!)

 When bound to V2 receptors in the kidney it:
Increased tubular water permeability
Enhances water reabsorption
Extracellular fluid = more dilute
Urine = more concentrated
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35
Q

desmopressin is a selective V2 receptor agonist… but it doesnt cause unwanted vasoconstriction- why?

A

Selective V2 receptor agonist – retains the antidiuretic activity of vasopressin but lacks the pressor activity so doesn’t cause the unwanted vasoconstriction

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36
Q

what does desmopressin do when bound to V2 (ADH) receptors in the kidney? affect?

A

Increased tubular water permeability
Enhances water reabsorption
Extracellular fluid = more dilute
Urine = more concentrated

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37
Q

Does ADH promote dehydration?

A

when DEHYDRATED…
ADH reduces water loss via lowered urine volume. Extracellular dehydration (hypovolaemia) stimulates specific vascular receptors that signal brain centres to initiate drinking and ADH release.

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38
Q

what stimulates specific vascular receptors that signal brain centres to initiate drinking and ADH release?

A

hypovolaemia (extracellular dehydration)

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39
Q

licensed indications of vasopressin? (BNF uses)

A

Diabetes insipidus (treatment or diagnosis)
Primary nocturnal enuresis
Post-op polyuria or polydipsia
Polyuria or polydipsia after hypophysectomy
Idiopathic nocturnal polyuria
Nocturia associated with MS
Renal function testing
Mild to moderate haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease
Fibrinolytic response testing
Lumbar puncture associated headache

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40
Q

how can head injury cause Diabetes insipidus?

A

problems with ADH/ vasopressin (AVP)

AVP is produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland until needed

thus cause = PITUITARY TUMOUR form head injury or surgery damage

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41
Q

what can affect V2 (vasopressin/ ADH) receptor function?

A

gene mutation

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42
Q

what does desmopressin act on to increase expressino of what?

A

Acts on V2 receptors
Increases expression of aquaporins
More water reasoned into interstitium of kidneys

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43
Q

what happens if lack of vasopressin/ ADH

A

ADH released when dehydrates, says ‘bring back water!’- reabsorb

cannot signal kidneys so its all flushed out in urine
Desmopressin conserves some water so its not all flushed out. Only to small amount, large amount would lead to water intoxication.

= =kidneys may excrete too much water. This causes frequent urination and can lead to dehydration, as well as low BP
diabetes insipidus!!

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44
Q

what do vasopressin and analogues promote?
and whats their affect

A

: Regularly release ADH: promote insertion of water channel proteins (AQP2) into apical membranes of cells in renal collecting ducts. Cells now have increased permeability to water, more water reabsorbed. Less water lost in urine.

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45
Q

Differentiation between DI and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

DI: body doesn’t produce Vasopressin
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: body produces Vasopressin but kidneys aren’t responding to it.

(like T1/2DM)

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46
Q

what is the difference between the two molecules and how does this affect their pharmacology
desmopressin + vasopressin

A

VP:

  • (Only available as solution for injection)
  • More selective for V2 receptors on collecting duct = more potent. Therefore less vasoconstrictive effect
  • Short half life- administered every 4 hours.
  • Rapid elimination
  • Can’t use IV not licensed for use in DI patients anyway.
  • 3 vasopressin receptors: v1,V2,V2. All have diff functions.
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47
Q

what the desmopressin is for, how it works and why he needs to use it for DI?

A

DI = polydipsia and polyuria (extreme thirst and frequent urination).

  • Not enough ADH in body (role of dec urine production) so must be given as medication.
  • Desmopressin: more powerful than endogenous ADH, stop kidneys producing urine.
  • Regulates water in body and alters hm brought back from kidney
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48
Q

what would happen if patient stops takinig desmopressin for DI.
(hint- serum and urine osmolality changes)?

A

Apical memb. ADH ↑ aquaporins on memb so ↑ water can get through and be absorbed
Basolateral: always has aquaporins

V1: smooth muscle contraction in cardiovascular system
V3: promote ACh release via this receptor

Calculated osmolality = 2 x serum sodium + serum glucose + serum urea (all in mmol/L).

Uosm = 1.25 × urea (mmol/l)

Dilute, pale urine
Become more thirsty
Serum osmolality: ↑ as serum Na ↑ More mols in blood = ↑ serum osmolliy. ↑ water in blood = lower serum osmolality
Urine osmolality ↑

Other symptoms: Fatigue, anorexia, weight loss

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49
Q

ADH effects and drugs: NSAIDs, Li, ethanol?

A

NSAIDs: Naproxen, carbamazepine: used for seizures.
Increase action of ADH- urine more concentrated

Li: for bipolar disorder. Inhibits ADH. More dilute urine produced

Ethanol inhibits secretion of ADH

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50
Q

osmolality and osmolarity units?

A

Osmolarity: mmol/L easier to measure. As sample given in ml and L
Osmolality: mmol/kg more accurate

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51
Q

why should patient with DI not drink excessively/ drink lots of mineral energy drinks?

A

Should be guided by thirst else: hyponatraemia - reduction in conc of Na in blood. More water retention

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52
Q

Homeostasis is achieved through the process of what?

A

glomerular filtration of
plasma to produce an ultrafiltrate. The tubules then process this
ultrafiltrate so that the final urine flow rate and solute excretion meet
the homeostatic needs of the body.

In the steady state, our total body water content and salt content
remain constant. An increase or decrease in water and salt intake is
paralleled by an equivalent change in renal water and salt excretion.

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53
Q

Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of ?

A

solute concentration of a solution. In practice, there is negligible difference between the absolute values of the different measurements.

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54
Q

Calculated osmolarity equation

A

= 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea

(all in mmol/L);

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55
Q

Mrs Brown’s calculated osmolality
= (2 x 118) + (4.9 x 2) + 4.6 + 4.8
= 255mOsm/l

comment on the value

A

Normal is around 285 !
Or serum Na x 2 + serum potassium x 2 + urea + glucose
All in mmol/L

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56
Q

plasma osmolality is a guide to

intracellular osmolality. why?

A

cell membranes in general are freely permeable to water, the
osmolality of the extracellular fluid (ECF) is approximately equal to that of the intracellular fluid (ICF).

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57
Q

In normal people, increased osmolality in the blood will stimulate secretion of what?

A

ADH -> inc water reabsorption, more conc urine, less conc blood plasma

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58
Q

elevation of ADH may be associated with what?

A

stroke mortality

– associated w DI

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59
Q

possible causes of:
normal/high serum osmolality
high urine osmolality (conc)

A
  • Dehydration
  • Renal disease and uraemia
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Addison’s disease
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Diabetes mellitus/hyperglycaemia
  • Hypernatraemia
  • Alcohol ingestion
  • Mannitol therapy
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60
Q

possible causes of:
normal/high serum osmolality
low urine osmolality (dilute)

A

DI !

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61
Q

possible causes of:
LOW serum osmolality
HIGH urine osmolality (conc)

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

SIADH

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62
Q

possible causes of:
LOW serum osmolality
LOW urine osmolality - w no inc in fluid intake
(dilute)

A

-Overhydration
•Hyponatraemia
•Adrenocortical insufficiency
•Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet)

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63
Q

whats urine osmolality in dehydration?

A

very high as very conc!

800-1400mOsm/kg

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64
Q

whats SIADH?

A

syndrome of inapp ADH secrtn

Inappropriately concentrated urine in the setting of a low plasma
osmolality – inappropriate ADH production and release (TOO MUCH!)

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65
Q

SIADH causes

A

Brain and spinal cord conditions, such as a direct injury, infection,
or fluid buildup
 Cancer
 Lung conditions, such as COPD, pneumonia, or tuberculosis
 Drugs: usually those used to treat diabetes, cancer, or depression
 Family history of SIADH
 Too much physical pain or stress on your body

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66
Q

1How would investigating the urine help confirm if SIADH happening?

A

Urine would be in little volumes and more concentrated as ADH inhibits urine production.
Check for urinary sodium excretion >30mmol/L

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67
Q

SIADH Symptoms

A

 Tiredness and weakness
 Muscle pain, cramps, or headaches
 Dark urine or changes in how much urine is produced
 Decreased appetite for food, or increased thirst
 Diarrhea or constipation
 Nausea or vomiting
 Seizures
 Trouble thinking clearly, or hallucinations

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68
Q

What to do. about SIADH?

A
  1. Investigate the cause (more bloods, chest x-ray, CT scan,
    check drug history)
  2. Can be corrected with an AHD V2 receptor ANTAGONIST
    “vaptans” = Tolvaptan
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69
Q

common feauture of SIADH?

A

very low urine osmolality! e.g. 180

should be 500-850

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70
Q

What medical conditions and medications can lead to overproduction ADH hormone?

A

(SIADH)
T2DM drugs,
antidepressants,
brain injury, brain infection, brain abscesses, subarachnoid hemorrhage
Epilepsy head trauma infections autoimmune…
Cancers
Lung disease

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71
Q

whichi drugs best to treat SIADH:
increase excretion of free water whilst minimising excretion of sodium into urine= correct serum sodium concentration and serum osmolality. ?

A

Diuretics
help rid your body of salt (sodium) and water. Most of these medicines help your kidneys release more sodium into your urine. The sodium helps remove water from your blood, decreasing the amount of fluid flowing through your veins and arteries.
Fluid restriction recommended

V2 receptor antagonist !! VAPTAN selective for V2 receptors

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72
Q

monitoring with VAPTAN for SIADH?

A

Serum sodium: measure every 6 hours after starting treatment for first 2 days.
Renal function test

check again

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73
Q

acid base and angiotensin system SGT

What standards should you meet if you are offering to check peoples blood pressure?

A
Relaxed setting
adequate training and reviews
equipment regularly calibrated and maintained
cuffs should be appropriate tablets
ask for consent
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74
Q

what BP checks to do on elderly?

A

sitting and standing BP to check for postural hy[ptension: risk of falls

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75
Q

What should you check on patients before taking their bp and why?

A

Pulse to check for irregularities in heartbeat/ flutter due to AF

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76
Q

What stage of hypertension is a reading of 162/101?

A

stage 2

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77
Q

What may be offered to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension without risk of white coat syndrome?

A

ABPM

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78
Q

what to offer t patietn diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension?

A
antihypertensives (diuretics spec thiazide d - bendroflumethiazide etc)
lifestyle advice:
- dietary salt
- alcohol consumption
- physical activity
- mental health
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79
Q

Patients with suspected hypertension must also be investigated for target organ damage. What might an ECG be used to see the development of?

A

AF

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80
Q

additional tests for stagge 2 hypertension?

A

target organ damage
hypertensive retinopathy
LV hypertrophy on ECG
blood tests: serum elec, creat, eGFR, fasting gluc and lipids, Na, K in urea
urinalysis for proteins. may cause kidney damage
blood gluc leveks: HbA1c

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81
Q

What tool may be used to assessed CVS risk?

A

QRISK3

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82
Q

What non-pharmacological and dietary advice to stage 2 hypertensive patieht

A

Control + improve diet -reduce risk of heart problems:
• e.g. use wholegrain bread, and brown rice.
• min 5 portions fruit + veg a day.
• low-fat foods - avoid lot of fat and sugar.
• Reduce excessive caffeine consumption, low dietary sodium intake (reduce or substitute any sodium salt).
• Cut alcohol intake.
• Avoid some exercises: sprinting/ weightlifting as they raise your blood pressure rapidly and put strain on heart and blood vessels

Decreasing salt intake decreases BP
• Less Na, K, Cl ions in ascending LoH
• No reabsorption into medullary interstitium
• Prevent cortico-medullary gradient forming
• More urine produced, decreased Na reabsorption so more excreted,
• Blood volume and pressure decreased.

Caffeine: stimulant increases HR and maybe anxiety. Check how much he drinks

Signpost local support networks

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83
Q

whats BP regulated by?

A

BP regulated by macula densa of DCT and afferent arteriole = juxtaglomerular apparatus.

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84
Q

Why might a Hb1ac test be carried out in patients with hypertension?

A

Average blood glucose of last 2-3 months, check if patient is diabetic, shows how much sugar has glycosylated in this peroid

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85
Q

How would you physiologically explain the rationale behind the dietry advice regarding dec salt intake?

A

increased salt means body retains water
increases plasma volume
puts pressure on blood vessels
can worsen bp

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86
Q

What drug and class would be recommended to a white man under the age of 55 diagnosed with hypertension? 1st line

what if this is not well tolerated?

A

ACEi such as ramipril
look at most cost effective one and ones with best patient compliance (OD)

or ARB if ACE not tolerated. DO NOT COMBINE

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87
Q

why ACEi first line in hypertension (most of the time)

A

Reduce blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels. Usually first line and inhibit RAAS.
….
Potent stimulation of Na reabsorption from PCT so blood volume hence BP increased. Opposite true for the drugs. Renin release inhibited so less ACE enzyme levels in body, decreased BP.

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88
Q

What side effects would you warn patients starting Acei about?

A
  • common: dry cough, if excessive refer back to GP, swap to ARB
  • angioedema so look for swelling of lip and throat
    take first dose at night to reduce first dose hypotension until bp stabilised and then go to morning dose
  • hyperkalaemia (excess K levels in blood arrythmias) monitor after 2 weeks- blood test for kidney function and can see K levels, fatigue, dizziness as lower BP (hypotension), headaches, loss taste.
    Diarrhoea- nausea and vomiting- become dehydrated
    Reduce arteriolar- vasoconstriction
    Don’t stand up very quickly etc as may feel dizzy and have falls.
    Get up out of bed- sit on bed for a bit
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89
Q

Why may a dry cough develop in patients who are on Acei?

A

ACE breaks down bradykinins in lungs
If inhibited these accumulate
hence cough develops

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90
Q

Outline how Acei such as captopril work?

A

Inhibit the ACE enzyme
Ang I cannot be converted to ang II
Blocks release of aldosterone causing vasodilation and relax of blood vessels and water loss
therefore reduces blood vol and blood pressure
better blood flow through kidneys

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91
Q

Acei retain potassium which can lead to the risk of developing?

A

hyperkalaemia

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92
Q

What monitoring is required with Acei?

A

Renal function and electrolytes (Na/Cl) before and 2 weeks after starting
every 3-6 months thereafter

as May cause frop in renal perfusion pressure thus drop in (GFR), renal failure possible. Also increase creatinine levels

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93
Q

Why is monitoring needed for Acei and what could be the consequences if this isnt done?

A

Lowering BP affects renal perfusion
potential to cause renal impairment and failure
Acei can worsen hyperkalaemia and renal failure hence want to monitor
mild consequneces can be nausea
severe can lead to arrythmia and cardiac arrest

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94
Q

Diarrhoea and vomiting in patients taking Acei may mean dehydration and worsening of renal impairment. What would you recommend the patient to do?

A

Stop taking the acei for a few days

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95
Q

Which other classes of drug inhibit activity of the renin-angiotensin system other than ACEi?

A

ARBs (Ang II rec blockers)
renin inhibitors
aldosterone rec antagonists

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96
Q

How do ARBS inhibit the RAS system?

A

Angiotensin receptor blockers prevent the binding of ang II at the site

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97
Q

Why do patients on Acei no longer get a dry cough when switched to ARBS?

A

bradykinins continue to be broken down therefore are not accumulating

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98
Q

What do renin inhibitors do?

A

Prevent the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

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99
Q

Why are some populations not recommended acei as first line?

A

Afro carribean populations recommedend CCBs instead as they dont respond well to ACEi and are at a higher risk of angioedema

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100
Q

What metabolic abnormality is demonstrated by these results:

pH - 7.09
PaCO2 - 3.6 kpa
PaO2 - 15 kpa
HCO3 - 8mmol/L

A

metabolic acidosis

pH - 7.09 low
PaCO2 - 3.6 kpa too low
PaO2 - 15 kpa acceptable
HCO3 - 8mmol/L too low

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101
Q

What is the normal range for bicarbonate in the blood?

A

22-26 mmol/l

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102
Q

clinical consequences is metabolic acidosis left untreated?

A

Death and organ failure. esp of have impaired kidney function anyway

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103
Q

Why might patients experincing metabolic acidosis also experience breathlessness?

A

trying to blow out in an attempt to raise pH to normal

OR
Breathlessness may be due to heart attack- blood can’t travel to tissues quick. Low CO2 in response to that

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104
Q

What are clinical consequences if metabolic acidosis is left uncorrected?

A

Causes insulin resistance leading to diabetes
decreased cardiac output leading to hypotension
Altered oxygen delivery
decreased atp production
denaturing of enzymes leading to organ failure

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105
Q

When sodium bicarbonate is given to restore the serum bicarbonate levels, why is the increase in small increments?

A

to prevent levels going to high

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106
Q

Sodium bicarbonate replacement q

If the volume of distribution of HCO3- is approximately 0.5 mmol/kg body weight and Mrs Begum weighs 70kg how much sodium bicarbonate does the team need to give Mrs Begum to restore the serum bicarbonate to 24 mmol/L? (currently: 8mmol/L)

A

Bicarbonate deficit
= Vd x weight (kg) x (bicarb range you want – actual)
= 0.5 x 70kg x (24-8)
= 560mmol NB: Is an approximation!

BNF Products:

1) 1.26% Sodium bicarb 500ml
2) 8.4% Sodium bicarb 200ml

1.26g in 100ml (11.9/1 x 1.26 = 15mmol in 100ml)
12.6g in 1000ml = 150mmol in 1L
600mmol in 4L
Nearly 4l required of 1.26%, high risk in patient with MI
as a lot of Na and big volume
Less volume with 8.4% but very hyperosmolar!!!!

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107
Q

know the dangers and precautions if infusing 8.4% bicarbonate and as with all treatment, the monitoring parameters and consequences of over correction.

A

8.4% only need 500mL roughly.
But very potent. Into small veins. Alkaline, necrotic, inflammation
Should be put into central vein not peripheral.

monitor (ongoing)

  • ABG analysis: minimise possibility of overdose and alkalosis
  • Serum electrolytes: replacement of Ca, Cl, L important if alkalosis occurs. Too rapid correction of Na = severe neurological effects.
  • Fluid balance: excess Na retained, extracellular fluid excess may be retained, peripheral oedema
  • Acid base balance: bicarbonate induced metabolic alkalosis can occur. Na is associated with chloride and bicarbonate in the regulation of acid–base balance.

Na Ca K pH

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108
Q

difference between HCO3 in

  • resp alkalosis
  • metab alkalosis?
A
  • LOW

- HIGH

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109
Q

SGT: Reduced Renal Clearance

whats morphine and how does it work?

A

: strong painkiller, works by blocking signals from travelling along nerves to the brain. Common side effects: constipation, feeling sick and sleepiness. Can become addicted to morphine if treatment not properly reviewed.

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110
Q

What are the usual adverse effects of morphine?

A

Morphine is an opioid, effects are related to agonist activity at mu receptors: expect drowsiness, dizziness, spiritual depression, dry mouth, nausea, vomiting, confusion, flushing, constipation. For all opioids, adrenocortical insufficiency possible: reduce dose.
Expect constipation: occurs via stimulation of mu-opioid receptors on myenteric plexus, inhibits gastric emptying and reduces peristalsis. Should prescribe stimulant laxative with this.
Reduced GI motility = com=nstipation

Other side effects include:
Serious allergic reaction which causes difficulty in breathing or dizziness; swelling of the eyelids, face or lips; rash or itching (especially affecting your whole body). If you are affected by these important side effects contact a doctor immediately.

Respiratory depression
CNS suppression

Very common: may affect more than 1 in 10 people
• feeling sick (nausea)
• vomiting
• shallow breathing
• constipation
• sleepiness
• not knowing where you are (disorientation)
• sweating
• a perception of seeing or hearing things (hallucinations)
• uncomfortable mood
• feeling of very intensive happiness and wellbeing (euphoria)
• tolerance and dependence (with long-term treatment)

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111
Q

What are the usual adverse effects of morphine?

A

opioid, effects related to agonist activity at mu receptors:
drowsiness, dizziness, spiritual depression, dry mouth, nausea, vomiting, confusion, flushing, constipation.
For all opioids, adrenocortical insufficiency possible: reduce dose.

Other side effects include:
Serious allergic reaction which causes difficulty in breathing or dizziness; swelling of the eyelids, face or lips; rash or itching (especially affecting your whole body). If you are affected by these important side effects contact a doctor immediately.

Respiratory depression
CNS suppression

Very common: may affect more than 1 in 10 people
• feeling sick (nausea)
• vomiting
• shallow breathing
• constipation
• sleepiness
• not knowing where you are (disorientation)
• sweating
• a perception of seeing or hearing things (hallucinations)
• uncomfortable mood
• feeling of very intensive happiness and wellbeing (euphoria)
• tolerance and dependence (with long-term treatment)

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112
Q

common side effecr of morphine and what may be prescribed alongside?

A

constipation: occurs via stimulation of mu-opioid receptors on myenteric plexus, inhibits gastric emptying and reduces peristalsis. Should prescribe stimulant laxative with this.
Reduced GI motility = constipation

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113
Q

morphine metabolism and clearance from body?

A
Excreted renally (10%)
Metabolised to codeine and glucose indies (3 and 6) in liver

Also metab to Normorphine
Metabolite: M6G contributes most to analgesic effect
M3G and M6G cleared by kidneys

Poor oral bioavailability 15-64% very variable

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114
Q

If half-life of morphine is unchanged in renal failure why is patient exhibiting severe signs of opiate toxicity?
( clearance of the different morphine metabolites and pharmacological properties)

A

• Dose too high? Calculate using dose adjustment table
• Extreme caution with all opiates in patients with impaired renal function
• Potential accumulation of M6G (active metabolite, more potent than morphine) and M3G.
• Half life of M6G increased from 3-5 hours in normal renal function to about 50 hours in ERF (established renal failure)
Caused by respiratory depression: ..

Due to accumulation of metabolites
M6G: high affinity for opioid receptors
High Half life = accumulate and toxicity

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115
Q

drug for OD of morphine in reduced renal clearance?

A

Naloxone (opioid receptor antagonist, for acute opioid overdose–high-dose regimen [when rapid titration with naloxone is necessary to reverse potentially life-threatening effects]) readily available: initially 100mcg-200mcg then 100mcg up to 2 doses at 1 minute intervals.

Rapidly reverses opioid overdose. Attaches to opioid receptors and reverses and blocks effects of other opioids. Will cause an increase in mean aortic pressure, cardiac output.

rapidly absorbed after oral administration, but this route may not be ideal due to high metabolism (pre-systemic).

Given IV/ IM
Start at 400mcg, can go up to 2mg
M6G 10-15 hours half life
Naloxone: 1-1.5 hours half life (SPC!!)

Therefore have to administer naloxone multiple times to prevent effect wearing off and opioid toxicity coming back.

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116
Q

how is morphine excreted?

A

renally: thus has those side effects

consider patient eGFR and titrate

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117
Q

Safest opioids in patients with renal failure

A

Fentanyl,

  • not renally excreted
  • transdermal patch
  • BUT time takes to titrate dose etc… not best option

hydrocodone,

  • renal exc
  • half life prolonged in renal failure

Tramadol:
Excreted renally, not strong enough (not pure opioid analgesic) wont have best effects

Methadone:
Used to help treat addictions
Fewer SEs and active forms than morphine
Must be admin by specialist for pain due to pharmacokinetics

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118
Q

consequences of inapp dose of aciclovir in immunocomp patient?

A

Acute kidney injury
Or increased risk of adverse effects
Has to maintain adequate hydration: to reduce renal complications. Aciclovir excreted in urine unchanged = crystals in urine, want to avoid

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119
Q

SGT: Calcium and Phosphate

normal phosphate levels in dialysis?

A
  1. 8 – 1.5 mmol/L normal

1. 1 - 1.7mmol/L dialysis: higher as less effective than kidneys, difficult to correct to normal artificially.

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120
Q

whats phosphate needed for? (4)

A

Phosphate is a charged ion containing the mineral phosphorous. This mineral is needed by the body to build and repair bones and teeth, help nerves function, and make muscles contract.
Needed for:
• Muscle function
• Heart (cardiac) function
• Bone metabolism
• Cellular functions: energy metabolism and cell signalling

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121
Q

why is parathyroid gland likely to be overactive if phosphate is high?

A

Kidneys not excreting phosphate, so goes up, PTH increases too
PTH want to get rid of more but can’t as kidneys not working properly.
PTH trying to mobilise Ca and phosphate too as a result.

PTH increases osteoclast activity to increase serum Ca

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122
Q

role of Ca phosphate binders? commonly sevelamer and lanthanum

A

suppress parathyroid hormone concentrations
PTH regulates levels of calcium and phosphate in blood, work by homeostasis and both are regulated by pathways involving vitamin D. Calcium given to increase calcium levels, therefore decrease phosphate levels back to normal.

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123
Q

non-pharmacological measures to reduce serum phosphate concentration

A

Renal dietician:…
Milk, red meat, dairy, grains, legumes, chocolate, beer
Difficult to avoid

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124
Q

difference in vitamin D in multivitamin and the alfacalcidol

vitamin revision in general

A

Alfacalcidol: given in active form (kidney cant currently convert so multivitamin)

Vit D, K, A(too much is toxic) fat soluble
Water soluble vitamins (C) just get excreted, not stored

Vit K needed for clotting factors

Need afacalcidolin hydroxylated form to be active.
Supplement with water soluble vitamins not fat soluble

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125
Q

possible adverse effects of taking both calcium acetate and alfacalcidol

what to monitor?

A

Hypercalcaemia!! monitor plasma calcium concentration, check weekly/fortnightly intervals.

Constipation, anorexia, levels increase, more nausea vomiting… delirium, coma

2.6: levels getting high
Higher than 3: needs immediate treatment
At risk: renal patients
Malignant matasticies (bone)

Also monitor phosphate!

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126
Q

hypercalcaemia causes

A

result of overactive parathyroid glands.

cancer, certain other medical disorders, some medications, and taking too much of calcium and vitamin D supplements.

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127
Q

What is cinacalcet and how does it reduce overactivity of parathyro?

A

Bone resorption inhibitor drug- lowers PTH, -> decrease in serum Ca concs, improve hyperparathyroidism problem

Increase sensitivity of Ca receptors. Reduce PTH released. Secondary Hyperpara (as caused by renal)

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128
Q

What are the potential serious side effects of taking cinacalcet

A

Hypocalcaemia: paresthesia, muscle spasms, cramps, tetany, circumoral numbness, and seizures.

Can also prolong QT interval, more risk of ventricular arrhythmias (so do some drugs- methadone)

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129
Q

monitoring with cinacalet? hypocalcaemia

A

serum-Ca conc before initiation of treatment and within 1 week after starting treatment or adjusting dose, then monthly thereafter.

PTH conc 1–4 weeks after starting treatment or adjusting dose, then every 1–3 months.
Want it to decrease. May decide after those months that its not working well, stop drug as don’t want to cause AD effects, expensive treatment

Phosphate : in reasonable range

130
Q

SGT 9: UTI

classic symptoms of UTI +and what else in elderly?

A

elderly: confusion and lethargy rather than the classic symptoms

131
Q

likeliest causes of pain passing urine (also called dysuria)

A

Infection or inflammation of bladder and/or urethra (cystitis)

UTI: lower (bladder) and upper (kidneys, more serious can get systemic)

STI may also cause- if passing urine over inflamed area = stinging

Vaginitis: inflammation of mucus membranes also caused by yeast infections.

132
Q

qs to ask UTI patient?

A
  • Experienced any other symptoms such as urinary frequency/urgency, lower abdominal pain, polyuria. Haematuria, fever/chills
  • Can ask her if she’s pregnant, has any kidney problems e.g. kidney stones
133
Q

What first line antibiotic treatment is recommended for UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin: if estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) ≥45 ml/minute 100 mg modified-release twice a day for 5 days (or if unavailable, 50 mg four times a day) for 3 days

Trimethoprim: if low risk of resistance 200 mg twice a day for 3 days (NICE)

134
Q

why does cystitis need antibiotics?

A

caused by bacteria (germs) from gut getting into your bladder (also called lower UTI). Sometimes symptoms improve by themselves, but many people will need antibiotic treatment

135
Q

risks and benefits potential, of antibiotics for UTI?

A

Potential risks
CommonSE: nausea, diarrhea, and stomach pain. Sometimes these symptoms can lead to dehydration and other problems
Risk of not taking the antibiotics course: Infection may recur, and will be more difficult to treat when it does.

Potential benefits
Reduced chances of infection. Prevents Disease Progression (getting severe and complicated).

136
Q

Who does need to see a GP with urinary infection symptoms

A

Pregnant with symptoms of a UTI. If caring for an older, frail person who may have a UTI. If you have symptoms of a UTI after surgery. your symptoms get worse or do not improve within 2 days. (NHS)

137
Q

How does potassium citrate work (cystitis)

A

Makes the urine more alkaline by increasing the pH. This would ease symptoms such as pain or burning sensation during urination, and pain in lower belly.

138
Q

can potassium citrate be used in patients on nitrofurantoin?

A

no as potassium citrate will cause it to work less well and should not be used whilst on these antibiotics

139
Q

what patients should not have potassium salts?

A

Patients with reduced renal function should not have potassium salts, or those taking potassium sparing medication
NICE does not recommend the use of alkalinsing agents to treat UTI symptoms. Potassium citrate is not antibacterial.

140
Q

why there is an increased chance of antibiotic resistance in nursing homes

A

Patients in nursing homes often have health conditions that can weaken their immune system, and they’re often on prolonged antibiotic use, which contributes to antibiotic-resistance.

141
Q

NICE: Preventative measures of UTI?

A
  • not using perfumed bubble bath, soap or talcum powder around your genitals (use plain unperfumed varieties)
  • having a shower, rather than a bath (this avoids exposing your genitals to the chemicals in your cleaning products for too long)
  • going to the toilet as soon as you need to pee and always emptying your bladder fully
  • staying well hydrated (drinking plenty of fluids may help to stop bacteria multiplying in your bladder)
  • always wiping your bottom from front to back when you go to the toilet
  • emptying your bladder as soon as possible after having sex
  • not using a diaphragm for contraception (you may wish to use another method of contraception instead)
  • wearing underwear made from cotton, rather than synthetic material, such as nylon, and not wearing tight jeans and trousers
142
Q

SGT: Drugs and Acute Kidney Injury

furosemide 40mg once daily, indication?

A

loop diuretic for oedema/symptoms of heart failure. Not first line forresistant hypertension

143
Q

why would HR go to 110 up in BP 85/40?

A

BP low so heart treis compensating. to help organ perfusion

144
Q

urinalysis results:

blood +++, protein +++, leucocytes ++ and nitrites ++.

A

Nitrites and leukocytes increased by UTI

145
Q

risk factors for developing acute kidney injury

A
Hypertension, diabetes,NSAID/ACEI/ARB use
Over 65.
Ibuprofen and Ramipril.
Nephrotoxic
Currently hypotensive
Dehydration, furosemide
Been vomiting= extra losses
Fever: symptom of systemic infection. Sepsis. Also further losses through sweating.
146
Q

whats pyonephrosis? and cause

A

pus in the renal pelvis—results from urinary tract obstruction in the presence of pyelonephritis….
cause: Kidney infections (pyelonephritis) typically happen when bacteria is not flushed out of the body with urine.

147
Q

interventions about meds to make on patient w UTI

- sgt

A

Stop ibuprofen, replace with paracetamol
Withhold furosemide (making dehydration worse) and Ramipril
Ask when she has pain: if ibuprofen and paracetamol PRN. May not need them both

Ramipril dilates efferent arteriole, drop in BP to kidneys as no pressure build up across kidneys.
NSAIDs: COX inhib- inhibit prostaglandin production from phospholipids etc.
Can check previous prescriptions but ask patient when she takes it.

Lactic acidosis controversial issue with metformin in patients with renal failure. Usually stopped for short time while patient unwell.

148
Q

empirical antibiotic therapy:What national guidelines exist to guide the choice of antibiotic and what is the recommendation?

A

Empirical: best guess
Cephalexin/co-amoxiclav/-fluoxetine/Trimethoprim
Short course: 7-14 days for therapy
If had penicillin allergy, wouldn’t give co-amoxicillin
Cephalexin: cephasporin- similar chemical structure to penicillin. Cross-sensitivity likely

Floxacins: antibiotics- change gut flora.
Causes overgrowth of C.Diff.
Have to be confident with choice if given. And these antibiotics change gut flora
IV route preferred originally as he is vomiting

Gentamicin
Narrow therapeutic range and has 2 major toxicities: Ototoxic (ears) and Nephtoxic (kidneys)

Alicasin

149
Q

likely cause of decreased glucose?

A

vomiting, been excreting

150
Q

Prerenal AKI symptoms?

A

Prerenal as drugs, fever, vomiting, and has hypotension. Perfusion failure in kidneys
Creatinine: estimation of muscle, so different or elderly

151
Q

most appropriate drug to control Mrs Brown’s blood glucose concentration
(low bg)

A

Short acting/soluble insulin and titrate

Repeat or IV infusions

152
Q

what decisions to make when presc antibiotic in renal failure, for UTI?

A

estimate of creatinine clearance or eGFR to make these decisions

also dosing and monitoring of gentamicin in reduced renal clearance

153
Q

what antibiotic to avoid in eGFR below 45?
and what to recommend?
monitoring?

A

Nitrofurantoin :Increased risk of neuropathy

Trimethoprim used. IV formulation not availble only oral. Can cause hyperkalaemia, K already high. Not used in serious infection

Only nephrotoxic gentamicin left.
Would take blood tests before each dose so you have trough level. 80mg BD.

Do blood tests before 8pm night dose to ensure trough level: gentamicin level of 5-10mg/L therapeutic dose.
WANT TROUGH TO COME BELOW 2, to prevent serum going over 10.

154
Q

whats drugs to treat hypertension, esp in T2DM?

A

ACE inhibitors
may wish to discuss ‘sick day rules’- think kidneys website

CPPE Think Kidneys https://www.thinkkidneys.nhs.uk/aki/wp-content/uploads/sites/2/2015/03/Pharmacists-Thinking-Kidneys.pdf
Think Kidneys statement on wide use of sick day rules https://www.thinkkidneys.nhs.uk/aki/wp-content/uploads/sites/2/2020/01/2020-AKI-Sick-Day-Guidance-Think-Kidneys.pdf

155
Q

SGT Chronic Kidney Disease and Hyperkalaemia

CKD is classified using what?

A

using the eGFR and ACR categories, and the different categories from NICE guidance

156
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

The gradual loss of kidney function. Affects waste and excess fluids filtered from blood into urine for excretion, build up could be toxic.
Irreversible
Could be from reduced kidney function/ structural changes

157
Q

hows CKD diagnosed?

A
Diagnosis:
•	Incidental raised serum creatinine
•	proteinuria of more than 3mg/mmol
•	persistent haematuria
•	urine sediment abnormalities
may be asymptomatic in early stages
NICE: egfr can be normal but may be structural changes e.g. high protein in urine.
Egfr can still be normal
Changes must be present for 3 months
ACR more than 3mg/mmol
(albumin:creatinine) in morning.
158
Q

CKD symptoms/ possible risk factors?

A
  • General: lethargy, itch, breathlessness, cramps (often worse at night), sleep disturbance, bone pain, or loss of appetite, vomiting, weight loss, and taste disturbance (often present with end-stage disease).
  • Urine output, such as polyuria; oliguria; nocturia; or anuria (due to possible AKI, obstructive uropathy causing urinary retention; or end-stage renal disease).
  • Any potentially nephrotoxic drugs: OTC/herbal
  • Any associated co-morbidities or complications of CKD.
  • Any family history, such as autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease.
  • Any associated clinical features of anxiety or depression.
159
Q

Why do people with type II diabetes get chronic kidney disease?

A

Kidneys filter blood and over time, high blood sugar from diabetes -> damage to the blood vessels + nephrons in kidneys and hinder their activity, causing kidney damage.

Diabetic nephropathy !!!
High bgc = blood vessels cant filter as well
Also hypertensive.

Microvascular complications.
May also develop macrovascular complications.

160
Q

hows CKD in T2DM detected?

A

Detection
• Creatinine levels
• Proteinuria
• eGFR: Clinical laboratories should report eGFR either as a whole number if it is 90 ml/min/1.73 m2 or less, or as ‘greater than 90 ml/min/1.73 m2’.
• Albumin in urine. ACR accurate representation.

161
Q

how would you know if kidney problem/ CKd is due to diabetes?

A

History consistent with developing.
8-10 years after diabetic diagnosis, and microvascular complications.
Look at medical history.
retinopathy, high BP, ACR over 100mg/mmol. Means must have had it for years as slow increase in ACR over long period of time.
Blood in urine: haematuria.
If patient is systematically ill
eGFR worsened rapidly: characteristic of AKI, but gradual = CKD.

162
Q

what may be caused if

a) eGFR worsened rapidly:
b) worsened gradually?

A

eGFR worsened rapidly: characteristic of AKI,

but gradual = CKD.

163
Q

Which people with chronic kidney disease need to see a kidney specialist?

A

ACR above 70mg/mmpol
OR 30mmol/ML with UTI/ something.

ACR= abumin:creatinine ratio

164
Q

whys ramipril prescribed in CKD in diabetes for?

A

to prevent progression of CKD in diabetes rather than control blood pressure.

ACEi and ARBs reduce proteinuria and prevent progression of CKD and should be used even if BP controlled. Treating proteinuria: associated with CKD. Hypertension. NICE. Titrate to highest dose they can tolerate. 3mg/mmol or more?
If ACR above 70mg/mmol!!

165
Q

mointoring/ counselling before starting ramipril in CKD in diabetes ?

A

renal function and electrolytes BEFORE ACEi started. Or dose increased
during treatment and more often if side effects experienced

  • BP regularly, serum electrolytes
  • First dose: may experience hypertension- sit down when taking.
  • ACEi could also precipitate AKI. May need to omit a dose or 2 if developed AKI
166
Q

how to stop CKD in T2DM getting worse?

A

• Smoking, alcohol, exercise.
• Would help with diabetes and hypertension too. May also need dietician especially if .
• Don’t take NSAIDs- could reduce eGFR, precipitate CKD.
• Could also check his weight and BMi for normal range.
• Waist-hip ratio. May have more fat there even if BMI normal
• Cardiac risk assessment
Can ask about his diet and lifestyle choices
Measure proteins, creatinine, etc to check CKD is not advanced and requiring prompt treatment.

167
Q

his blood pressure is 65/30 and his pulse rate is 30 beats per minute.

whats happened to patient?

A

Complete heart block, probably due to hyperkalaemia due to the ramipril.

168
Q

What is ventricular rate on ecg (descrobe main obsevrations)

A

P wave: atrial depolarisation: Atria contract
QRS: vent depolarisation. Contract
T wave: vents relax

169
Q

calculating the ventricular rhythm/ rate?

A

Count the number of large squares between the R peaks. There are 300 of the large squares per minute, so rate = 300/ no. of large squares.

300/11 (big boxes between 2 QRS complexes)
=27bpm

170
Q

lack of QRS complexes means what?

A

Cant see P waves for some…
Sinus node conducts elec first, goes to AV. Elec impulses should reach AV node then to vebtricles to contract. AV node not doing job properly as lack of QRS complexes (when ventricles contract).

3rd degree AV block, no communication between QRS and P.

171
Q

calcium gluconate effect on heart

A

For acute severe hyperkalaemia (low Calcium).
• Increases Ca level s in blood through binding to excess potassium/Mg

  • Calcium antagonizes the cardiotoxicity of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane against undesirable depolarization.
  • Onset of effect is rapid (≤ 15 minutes) but relatively short-lived.
172
Q

Bnf management of hyperkalemia under fluid and electrolytes

A

Slow IV injection over 3-10mins.
Immediate effect but only lasts few mins?
SPC!!
If admin too rapidly: nausea, vomiting, hot flushes.

173
Q

How much glucose and insulin (and what type of insulin) would be appropriate in CKD?

A

Give something like Novorapid as giving glucose.
Short acting insulin because long acting may accumulate due to kidney disease.
About 6-10 units. VOL? over 30minutes

174
Q

What will the glucose insulin infusion do that the calcium gluconate does not

A

Na/K ATPase pump
Glucose to prevent hypoglycaemia
Onset few mins, only lasts 4 hours

175
Q

affect of administering salbutamol in CKD and on insulin/ glucose? and very high K+

A

Activate NA/K pump, increase cellular uptake 😊 onset 20-30mins lasts about 4 hours.

176
Q

drugs that would increase removal of potassium from

body rather than just promoting uptake out of the extracellular compartment

A

Loop diuretic. Inhib co binding. LoH
Addition fluids IV with loop diuretics. Water excretion through urine. At risk of hypovolaemia, may lead to AKI.
If exchanging Potassium for Ca, may lead to hypercalcemia.
GI adverse effects
? action over 24 hours.
Removing K+ from body. Pros and cons.

177
Q

what other treatment should be considered if CKd patients serum K+ not improved? (too high atm)

A

Arrhythmias emergency dialysis.

178
Q

SGT: Ureteric colic and Urinary Incontinence

whys metoclopramide prescribed? drug class?

A

dopamine receptor antagonist for vomiting

179
Q

If the kidney stone is in his ureter why did he feel the pain across his abdomen and down into his groin?

A

Kidneys and uterus share innervation. Referred pain

180
Q

How did the stone in ureter trigger such severe pain

A

Hyperperistalsis: increased jerky movement of smooth muscle= spasm or from stretch in mucosa. Inflammation or oedema.
Increased pressure, prostaglandin release = vasodilation

181
Q

drugs thought to help stones pass through the ureter and reduce the need for surgery?

A

Alpha blockers: for patients with distal ureteric stones less than 10mm diameter.

Also used for BP work by tightening muscles in walls of smaller arteries and veins so blood vessels remain open and relaxed. Improves blood flow, lowers BP.
In ureteric stones: reduce ureteral spasm, increase pressure proximal to the stone, and relax the ureter in the region of and distal to the stone.

Tamsulosin: pain triggered by hyperperistalsis. Relaxes smooth muscle that uterus made of. Increases fluid transport too= push stone down uterus

Above 10mm: consider surgery.
Below 5mm: drink water, wait for. Stone to pass

Tamsulosin also used for blood presssure at end. Side effects: postural hypotension, dizziness, headache, dry mouth, cardiac palpitations, erectile dysfunction

182
Q

rationale for using hyoscine butylbromide? What are the potential adverse effects? in uteric colic

A

Anticholinergic: relaxes smooth muscle, inhibit uterus smooth muscle cholinergic. Possibly help?
Constipation, risk of urine retention in elderly. May not be ideal

183
Q

interpreting the results of the two trials (sgt uteric colic case 1)

A

Randomised control trials: high up in hierarchy
Doctor administering drug wasn’t blinded- possible confounding/bias. Lots of problems with this trial.
No effective evidence.
Systematic review would be best as looks at all them have one decision/value. Lack of evidence and all decisions should be informed by evidence.

184
Q

typical symptoms of urge incontinence, overactive bladder and stress incontinence

A

Urge incontinence/ Overactive bladder: sudden urge to urinate that’s difficult to control can be caused by cystitis, tumours, stones, obstructions.

Overactive bladder: with/without urgency. Usually at night
With incontinence: OOD wet and without: OOD? Dry

Stress incontinence: involuntary leakage on effort or exertion, or on sneezing or coughing. NICE increase in abdominal pressure, urine leaks out

185
Q

how to determine type of urinary incontinence?

A

Detrusor muscle instability is it?

Dipstick test an look at b glucose, nitrite, lymphocytes etc in case it is a UTI or other infection.

186
Q

qs to ask about urinary incontinence?

A
  • When does incontinence occur? Is it when sneezing, coughing/ on effort or exertion (likely stress urinary incontinence)
  • Is it sudden urgency and have frequency and nocturia (likely urgency incontinence UUI associated with overactive bladder syndrome)
  • Does incontinence occur without physical activity/ sense of urgency? May be other.
  • Voiding difficulty: straining, incomplete emptying sensation- may be chronic urinary retention (overflow incontinence)
  • Constant leakage of urine (may be intermittent if position dependent) — suggestive of a fistula (e.g. vesicovaginal).
187
Q

physiological and anatomical reasons for the development of stress incontinence?

A

Stress incontinence:
Weakened pelvic floor from trauma to muscle- may be from birth: levator ani muscle, cant form tight sling
Damage nerve supply to muscles and sphincters
Detrusor relaxes with SNS, internal sphincters tighten through alpha adrenergic action to STORE URINE

To VOID URINE: Detrusor contract PNS, internal sphincters relax.

Before: bladder volume increases and M3 receptors allow stretch and stimulation so this can happen and urine can be released.

Forceps/surgery delivery damage nerve supply.

188
Q

physiological and anatomical reasons for the development of urge incontinence?

A

• spontaneous detrusor muscle overactivty during bladder filling
o Bladder pressure > urethral pressure = incontinence

• Could be neurogenic: form stroke/ multiple sclerosis
o Can combat with anti-cholinergic drugs block ACh neurotransmitter, usually treat asthma. Stop smooth muscle contractions
• May be increased chance by caffeine and alcohol

189
Q

when to refer incontinence?

A

Urgent referral required for woman 45+ and unexplained visible haematuria (blood in urine) without UTI/ visible despite successful treatment of UTI. Or in women 60+ with same or dysuria/ raised white cell count.

Suspected malignant mass from this area.
Persistent urethral/bladder pain
If associated with faecal incontinence: worry about 3rd or 4th degree tear= risk of infection
Neurological diseases may cause
Neurogenic all fistulae?
Previous incotinence surgery: severe underlying damage perhaps

190
Q

investigations done in the community in women with incontinence?

A

Perform a general examination,
• Examine the abdomen for a palpable bladder or a mass.
• Perform a pelvic examination:
• While performing the pelvic examination, also look for potential causes of urinary incontinence, e.g:
• Evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.
• Urethral diverticulum — a sac-like protrusion between the periurethral tissues and the anterior vaginal wall.
• Pelvic mass.
• Atrophic vaginitis.

191
Q

first line non-pharmacological interventions can help with urinary incontinence?

A

• Modify fluid intake
• If BMI 30 or higher, lose weight
• If have overactive bladder, trial reduced caffeine intake
Reduce caffeine intake, pelvic floor exercises
Ask to do bladder diary to help identify precipitating factors and monitoring effects of treatment. May not help urgency

Monitor food intake. Be careful as still need to drink, don’t want AKI.
Don’t drink too much. Approach with caution

Min 8 pelvic floor muscle contractions min 3 times a day to try.

Exclude/manage OBS.
Parkinson’s MS, obesity, T2DM can increase urgency.
ADRs may induce …. Diuretics- increase urinary frequency

192
Q

recommended first line drug treatments for overactive bladder?

A

antimuscarinic drugs, SNRIs and beta 3 agonists

Anticholinergics/muscarinics: 
•	IR oxybutynin hydrochloride,
should not be used in frail, older women at risk of sudden deterioration in their physical or mental health
•	tolterodine tartrate,
•	darifenacin

• The lowest dose should be used and titrated upwards if necessary.
• Transdermal oxybutynin hydrochloride may be used in those unable to tolerate oral treatment.
• Mirabegron may be used if treatment with an anticholinergic is contraindicated, ineffective, or not tolerated
Treatment for minimum of 6 months
See GP after 4 weeks- review treatment or sooner if any problems.
If none, review again after 12 weeks then every 6 months (as over 75)

193
Q

examples of antimuscarinic drugs, SNRIs and beta 3 agonists

urinary- OAB

A

antimuscarinics (subtype of anticholinergics)

  • Oxybutynin.
  • Tolterodine.
  • Propiverine. …
  • Darifenacin. …

SNRIs: (serotonin, Nad reup inhibi)

  • duloxetine
  • Savella (milnacipran)
  • Effexor (venlafaxine)

beta 3 agonists:

  • Oxybutynin.
  • Darifenacin.
  • Muscarinic Antagonist.
194
Q

first line for urinary incontinence and SEs?

A

Anticholinergics
constipation may be side effects/ indicate medicine is about to take effect
Keep taking meds as may take 4 weeks to see results. May take longer for symptoms to improve.

urinary retention

195
Q

SGT: IV fluids

Consequences of
Over replacement (too much fluid)
A
  • Fluid overload: pulmonary oedema, peripheral oedema
  • Impaired wound healing
  • Decreased tissue oxygenation
  • Electrolyte disturbances
  • Multi organ failure
196
Q
Consequences of
Under replacement (not enough fluid)
A
  • Reduced circulating blood volume
  • AKI-decreased renal perfusion
  • Hypoxaemia: low arterial blood oxygen level
  • Electrolyte disturbances
  • Multi organ failure
197
Q

whens IV fluid therapy given to patients?

A

to correct/prevent problems with fluid and/or electrolyte status

198
Q

Intravenous (IV) Fluids- The 5 R’s

describe each

A
  1. Resuscitation:
    fluid status assessed, hypovolaemic: req resuscitation urgently to restore circulation
  2. Routine maintenance
    Patient cant meet fluid requirements orally/enterally e.g. Nil by mouth pre surgery and requires routine maintenance to meet normal daily fluid and electrolyte requirements
  3. Replacement
    Fluids needed to correct water and/or electrolyte deficits/ ongoing abnormal losses such as high-output ileostomies, diarrhoea or vomiting which left untreated = hypovolemia/AKI/reduced organ perfusion
  4. Redistribution
    severe fluid and elec disturbances, may be septic/critically ill/ following major surgery/ with major cardiac, liver or renal comorbities. Expert help required to manage IV fluid therapy in patient with complex redistribution needs
  5. Reassessment
    fluid + biochemical status should be reassessed at regular intervals by health professionals as part of their monitoring of IV fluid therapy.
199
Q
IV fluids: normal values of..
Water
Sodium Na
Potassium K
Chloride Cl-
Glucose
A

Water 25-30mls/kg
For elderly/frail, those with renal/ cardiac impairment or malnutrition 20-25ml/kg/day

Sodium Na 1mmol/kg/day
Potassium K 1mmol/kg/day
Chloride Cl- 1mmol/kg/day

Glucose 50-100g/day

200
Q

SGT IV Fluids

consequences of administering this fluid
regimen (too much water, Na, Cl , too little K+)

A
  • Risk of oedema (peripheral and pulmonary)
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hyperchloraemia ro
  • Acidaemia
201
Q

ongoing losses (IV fluid therapy)

A
vomiting+ nasogastric tube loss
pure water loss (fever, dehydration, hyperventilation)
biliary drainage loss
diarrhoea
pancreatic drain/fistula
inapp urinary loss
onngoing blood loss
ileal loss
jejunal loss
202
Q

IV fluid- why should K+ NOT be added to bags?

A

layering effect when added without asequate mixing.
diff densities

KCl prone to this

serious effect on heart if pure K given !

203
Q

information should be looked at when assessing a patient’s fluid and electrolyte requirements?

A

ongoing losses…

History of previous limited intake, thirst, quantity and composition of abnormal losses, comorbidities
Clinical examination:
-dehydration (Na, K, urea high or if had a billed/ been vomiting/ lying on floor and not eating/drinking), skin turgur (pinching skin)
Colostomy /ilieostomy
Respiration

204
Q

What clinical examination is important- IV fluids sgt

A

e.g. pulse, BP, JVP oedema, why would NEWS score, fluid balance charts, weight

205
Q

IV fluids- bags only come in what volumes, remember when making solutions

A

have 500ml or 1L bags= 1500ml or 2L.

206
Q

what may cause patient to have seizure from K falling TOO LOW?

A

Increased sodium chloride IV infusion= higher serum sodium levels and low Potassium.
Hyponatraemic —> seizures . Dilution all hypokalaemia, Natraemia.
Stop fluids completely and get expert to place the fluid- ITU specialist if NEWS score certain value.

207
Q

What other physiological problems can be caused by incorrect management of IV fluids?

A

Excess fluid = swelling, high blood pressure, heart problems, hypervolemia (excess water) in patients with CKD and renal failure as kidneys not removing excess fluid as they should.

  • Hypovolemia
  • Hypo/Hypernatremia
  • Peripheral/pulmonary oedema
  • Hypo/hyperkalaemia
208
Q

What are the five R’s in IV fluids prescribing

A

Resuscitation, Routine maintenance, Replacement, Redistribution, Reassessment

209
Q

What is the amount of water needed for routine maintenance

A

25-30 mls/Kgs

210
Q

What is the amount of Na, Cl, K needed for routine maintenance

A

1 mmol/Kg/day

211
Q

SGT Immunology/Vaccination and Home Therapy

What type of test is used to determine whether somebody has had chicken pox?

A

varicella serology

212
Q

What does a negative IgG and IgM antibody result indicate?

A

no previous exposure to varicella zoster virus nor immunity

213
Q

What does a negative IgG but positive IgM antibody result indicate?

A

no vaccination, current early stages of varicella zoster infection

214
Q

What does a positive IgG and IgM antibody result indicate?

A

previous exposure e.g. vaccination has failed, recent infection

..Have vaccine and disease

215
Q

What does a positive IgG but negative IgM antibody result indicate?

A

immunity to varicella zoster virus (vaccination), not infected

216
Q

what is XX used to indicate?

a) IgG
b) IgM

A

a) Previous infection/exposure. if + = antibodies made form vaccine perhaps
b) infection recently if positive

217
Q

What vaccinations are currently available against varicella zoster virus in the United Kingdom.

A
1.	Chickenpox: 
•	Varivax 
•	Varilrix
Shingles: 
•	Zostavax- live attenuated varicella zoster virus vaccine
Shingrix
218
Q

What diseases are caused by the varicella zoster virus

A

Chickenpox and herpes zoster (shingles)

Latent virus lives in nerve cell bodies. After infection can reactivate in immunosuppressive or with age.
Worried in pregnant women, children, immunosuppressed patients: weaker immune system, can be fatal- first infection

218
Q

What diseases are caused by the varicella zoster virus

A

Chickenpox and herpes zoster (shingles)

Latent virus lives in nerve cell bodies. After infection can reactivate in immunosuppressive or with age.
Worried in pregnant women, children, immunosuppressed patients: weaker immune system, can be fatal- first infection

219
Q

What are the risk factors for varicella infection- shingles?

A
  • elderly
  • regular exposure to pre-school children
  • immunosuppression/comprised: neonate, pregnant, medication (methotrexate)
  • never been exposed to VZ virus via e.g. chickenpox so no antibodies
  • Comorbidities: R.Arthritis, Asthma, female
220
Q

name a med that causes immunosuppression

A

methotrexate

221
Q

What is VZIG?

A

varicella zoster immunoglobulin

222
Q

How is VZIG prepared?

A

from the plasma of donors who have a high titre of the antibody

223
Q

What are the indications of VZIG?

A

prophylaxis of those who:

  • are immunocompromised: pregnant, elderly, neonates, medication (prednisolone, methotrexate)
  • have been recently exposed to varicella zoster virus
  • have no antibodies to the virus
224
Q

Can VZIG be used in people already infected with chickenpox or herpes zoster virus?

A

no,

used for prophylaxis only

225
Q

How did the guidelines for treatment for VZIG treatment change post-2018?

A

shortage in VZIG means those qualifying for prophylaxis are now treated with acyclovir (antiviral) 3rd option oral/IV

226
Q

What are the symptoms of chickenpox?

A
  • red itchy rash
  • fills with clear fluid, then ruptures
  • face, scalp, back
227
Q

What are the symptoms of shingles?

A
  • itching, tingling, pain before rash appears
  • painful rash
  • affects ONE side of face/body
228
Q

Explain the relationship between shingles and chickenpox.

A
  • chickenpox is first exposure to varicella zoster virus

- shingles is reactivation of virus in later stage

229
Q

What can lead to varicella zoster virus reactivation?

A

the immune system being compromised

230
Q

What age group does chickenpox affect most commonly?

A

children

231
Q

What age group does shingles affect most commonly?

A

adults (teens, young, elderly)

232
Q

whats anylosing spondylitis and affect on breathing?

A

inflammatory disease that, over time, can cause some of the bones in the spine (vertebrae) to fuse. This fusing makes the spine less flexible and can result in a hunched posture. If ribs are affected, it can be difficult to breathe deeply.

233
Q

describe the actions of TNF alpha and the rationale for blocking this cytokine

A

inflammatory, acute phase cyctokine produced by macrophages/monocytes in acute inflammation.
causes:
• endothelial activations
• positive feedback on inflammatory cytokine cascades
• systemic effects, apoptosis, fever, viral replication
• cartilage destructins
• bone erosion
main thing: inflammatory response with IL6 and IL1 (other inflamm cytokines)role in acute and chronic inflammation. !!!

234
Q

whats TNF alpha critical in and what may happen if we block it?

A

critical in maintaining control over latent infection

Would be blocked to prevent:
Back pain, stiffness, fatigue, may be triggered by environmental factor in genetically predisposed individuals

235
Q

home anti-TNF alpha therapy - storage and disposal?

A

In a fridge (2°C-8°C) in its original container and protected from light until it’s used. HUMIRA should never be put in the freezer or frozen.

Can cause reactivation of latent TB- !!! Aggressive and widespread. TB screening before commencing TNF alpha.
14mg for this patient
12 weeks after treatment no response, check
Aggressive and expensive medicine.
sharps bin with needle.

236
Q

administering anti-TNF alpha

A

Injected every 1-4 weeks. Subcutaneous (in fat)
May get rash at site of infection but treat more cautiously.
Up to 14 days in up to 25 degrees avoid light
Expensive
Suppresses fever

TB testing is expensive, van do skin test/ chest X-ray, interferon gamma release assays.

237
Q

Explain what pegylation is and why it is used with interferons

A

increases the amount of time the interferon remains in the body by increasing the size of the interferon molecule.
PEG interferon: long acting.
Interferons: cytokines with. Polyethene glycol

238
Q

immunological rationale for using PEG interferon in hepatitis C infection

A

enhance the immune response by stimulating the activity of immune cells and rendering virus-infected cells more susceptible to the responses of the immune system.

Single stranded virus in liver. Flaviridie.
Upregulates antigen presentation.
Macrophages unregulated- engulf and destroy virus

239
Q

advice on the safe use and disposal of needles at home?

A

Put needles or similar medical supplies into the sharps bin immediately after using them and do not try to take them out again. Only fill the bin to where it says “Do not fill above this line”. Keep your sharps bin in a safe place so it’s not a risk to other people and is out of the sight and reach of children.

Blood bourne transmission, put cap back on and dispose in sharps bin. Report all needlestick injuries

240
Q

side effects would you expect from interferon treatment

A

Side effects of alpha interferon in chronic hepatitis C: fever, headache fatigue, arthralgias, and myalgias are common, especially with the initial injections

May be due to infection/ other drug side effects which would improve after first week. If no obvious infection try symptomatic treatment.
… change dose.

Haematological SE: anaemia, low white blood cells. Neutropenia, thrombo—Penia
Counsel on any drug disorders.

241
Q

SGT Iron Deficiency Anaemia (microcytic)

definitions of anaemia

A

Iron deficiency anaemia: diminished red blood cell production due to low iron stores in the body.

Lower in pregnant women as increase in plasma volume,
Generally lower in women than men as menstrual loss.
Higher barrier/level of alert in men as no loss in menstruating.

242
Q

iron deficiency anaemia values

A

o Men over 15 years — Hb below 130 g/L.
o Women over 15 years — Hb below 120 g/L.
o Children 12–14 years — Hb below 120 g/L.
Pregnant women — Hb below 110 g/L throughout

243
Q

features in the full blood count result would make you think that iron deficiency is the cause of a low haemoglobin concentration

A

serum ferritin level of less than 30 micrograms/L

  • but mau be hard to tell in infection/inflammation present as inc levels
  • less reliable in pregnancy
  • arrange a full blood count (FBC).
  • If results of the FBC show a low haemoglobin and low mean cell volume (MCV) check the ferritin level — check the ferritin level in all people with an MCV less than 95 femtolitres.

Micro cystic: small cells.
Hypochromia: low colour
30-35=normal Hb levels. 27 - low

244
Q

additional tests

to confirm iron deficiency

A

Ferritin: if suspect anaemia due to low iron. Micro cystic .
• Below 15= unlikely to have other diagnostic. 15-100 Orr certainly 30-100. Hard to tell if iron deficient or not, may be other like RA… if over 100, can exclude.

Vitamin B12 and folate levels

245
Q

Iron test results can be affected by: (3)

A
Medications
o	Antibiotics
o	Birth control pills and estrogens
o	Blood pressure drugs
o	Cholesterol drugs

Haemochromatosis: inherited iron overload condition

Inflammation or malignancy = all tests difficult to interpret

246
Q

Why does iron deficiency cause anaemia

A

Iron is needed to form haemoglobin which form part of red blood cells that carry oxygen and remove CO2 form body. Iron is stored in Hb. Lack of iron means not enough blood to cells and tissues

247
Q

what problems can cause low iron levels

A

Iron is absorbed in jejunum duodenum in GI tract. Can be anything here that prevents absorption= deficiency.
Absorption reduced through:
• Coeliac disease
• Some infections
• Surgery: trauma from removing piece of gut. Gastroctemy

248
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia can be caused by:

A

• Heavy periods in women
• Lack of iron in diet rare
• Or loss greater than obtained. Likely here (menstruation)
OR

  • Taking NSAIDs: cause gastric irritancies
  • Stomach ulcers
  • Bowel or oesophageal inflammation
  • Piles
  • Bowel/stomach cancers- less common carcinomas
  • Threshold: investigate ifanother cause i.e. cancer, better to pick up sooner.
  • Pregnancies: levels interpreted differently.
249
Q

how does iron enter body?

A
  • Meat
  • Eggs
  • Dark green leafy veg
  • Fortified cereal and bread
  • Dried fruit
  • Pulses
250
Q

how does iron leave body?

A
  • Blood
  • Sweat
  • Shedding intestinal cells
251
Q

iron storage in body

A

Iron stored in 2 states. Epi2+, …..
Iron deficiency.
Can’t increase amount of iron reabsorbed.
Vegetarians no necessarily iron deficient
Don’t need a lot of iron, unless deficient than do to bring it up

252
Q

ferritin below what value - iron deficient…

and what range is hard to interpret?

A

below 15mcg/L as being iron deficient

range between 15 and 100mcg/L was difficult to interpret.

253
Q

what can can raise ferritin even in the presence of iron deficiency.?

A

inflammatory conditions

254
Q

how is iron lost from body (speed/ time)?

A

no route for iron excretion, rather a steady loss.

255
Q

additional tests/ considerations for loe Fe?

A

Cycles: frequent, heavy?
Taking other meds?
If no other obvious cause, get further investigated to exclude cancer etc.
If it is menstrual, give iron supplement

256
Q

side effects with iron tablets (elemental not iron salt)

A
Adverse effects of iron supplements include:
•	Constipation.
•	Diarrhoea.
•	Epigastric pain.
•	Faecal impaction.
•	Gastrointestinal irritation.
•	Nausea.
257
Q

what are SEs with iron tablets linked to?

A

dose related and are directly related to the amount of iron absorbed (although the relationship between constipation or diarrhoea is less clear than for nausea and epigastric pain).

258
Q

when to take ferrous sulphate tabs?

A

works best on an empty stomach. Take it 30 minutes before eating, or 2 hours after eating.
with orange juice or a vitamin C supplement. To lower pH, increase absorption

Take with food or reduce side effects
Antacids: raise pH of stomach, don’t take iron supplements with as absorption decreased
Milk, tea, coffee can reduce too

259
Q

How much elemental iron should an iron deficient person receive per day? How many tablets of commonly available oral preparations does this equate to?

A

65 mg elemental iron (ferrous sulfate 200 mg) once daily (on an empty stomach) is needed to treat iron deficiency anaemia.

One tablet a day NICE

2-3 times a day BNF

260
Q

which iron salts contain most elemtal iron in dose?

A

fumurate, sulphate

261
Q

how long it will take to replenish stores of iron?

A

2-3 months or a little longer

262
Q

symptoms of Fe overdose?

A

Acute nausea, vomiting, GI irritation. After oral ingestion, lasts up to 6 hours. Toxicity
6-24 hours: patient can go into remission, clinically stable but if taken large dose and nothings done, metabolic acidosis, convulsions, coma, liver damage, renal failure, pulmonary oedem, over 7 weeks, GI

263
Q

treatment of Fe overdose? MoA?

A

We can’t excrete the iron, treatment at A&E: desferrioxamine.
Binds to free iron, makes complex which is then eliminated.

…iron chelator used for iron
IV desferrioxamine mesilate given to chelate absorbed iron in excess of the expected iron binding capacity. In severe toxicity intravenous desferrioxamine mesilate should be given immediately without waiting for the result of the serum-iron measurement.

264
Q

whats desferrioxamine used for?

A

treating OD of iron (children)
OD aluminium in dialysis patients

• Transfusion regular for some bleeding disorders- become iron overloaded, cant excrete. Life of RBS = 120 days

265
Q

appearance of symptoms over time for iron overdose

A
  1. Within the first 6 hours, direct toxicity to the gut may occur, without systemic toxicity.
  2. 6 - 24 hrs symptoms may resolve, but there may be progressive absoprtion of iron, which may lead to hypotension, multi-system failure and coma.
  3. This can result in hepatic damage between 12 and 96 hours, with bowel obstruction between 2-8 weeks.
    liver failure, jaundice, hypoglycaemia…
266
Q

sgt: macrocytic anaemia

causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

Causes can be megaloblastic/ non-megaloblastic:

  • Vitamin B12 deficiency:
    oNutritional: strict vegan or
    oMalabsorption: gastric/ pernicious anaemia/ congenital lack or abnormality of intrinsic factor/ total or partial gastrectomy/ can be intestinal.
    oAutoimmune: Addisonian pernicious anaemia
    oGI: gastric/ terminal ileum problems (Crohn’s or TB)
  • Folate deficiency
  • Combined folate and B12 deficiency
  • Abnormalities of B12/ folate metabolism
  • Inherited defects of DNA synthesis/ methionine synthase
267
Q

absorption of vitamin B12 and its role in the production of erythrocytes

A

iron folate B12 in bone -> red cell mass – > red cell destruction or Hb conc –> kidney

binds to the protein in the foods we eat
combines with protein IFso that it can be absorbed further down in the small intestine.

268
Q

problems associated with vitamin B12 deficiency

A

develop. .. anaemia,
- HF as heart has to work harder

other symtpoms of B12 def:
• Vision problems
• Memory loss
• Pins and needles
• Tingling in arms, legs- around sock area. ‘Hands and gloves’ as symmetrical, shortness of breath, rapid heart rate- palpitations
• Non specific things- headache, loss of appetite,
• Psychiatric conditions from mild to dementia
• Diverse symptoms

269
Q

investigation and treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency

A

before starting folic acid, check…
• allergic reaction to folic acid/any med
• low vitamin B12 levels (vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia)/ pernicious anaemia + deficiency symptoms could be masked. Symptoms may be more disabling long term
• Problem with this treatment: neulogical damage - nerves
• have cancer (unless you also have folate deficiency anaemia)
• on haemodialysis 
• have a stent in your heart

270
Q

role of folate?

A

needed for maturing RBC and making DNA!! DNA synthesis !!

271
Q

what may cause LOW serum folate?

A
  • Lack of dietary folate. Recommended daily intake is 200-250 micrograms
  • Nutritional: elderly, institutions, poverty, famine, diets, goats milk anaemia
  • Malabsorption: gluten-induced enteropathy
  • Excess utilisation: pregnancy, lactation, prematurity, haemolytic anaemias
  • Excess urinary folate loss: active liver disease, congestive heart failure
  • Drugs: anticonvulsants, sulfasalazine, antiepileptics, also drugs used to disrupt the folate pathway: methotrexate…
  • Liver disease, alcoholism, intensive care
  • Haematological malignancies. Haematological anaemia, C liver disease, -thyroidism
272
Q

what to question patient with low folate about?

A
  • diet
  • Family history (of autoimmune disease)
  • Alcohol consumption
  • Folate in pregnancy
  • Cereals
  • Absorbed in upper part of SI
  • Body stores lasts for 4 months
  • Trimethoprim, Nitrofurantoin?
  • Inflammatory diseases
273
Q

folic acid treatment for low folate?

A
  • 5mg daily for 4 months given
  • But if poor absorption, may take lifelong
  • Supplement in pregnancy where use if greater
  • Greens, brown rice, chickpeas, sprouts, asparagus, peas, broccoli. Sources of folic acid
274
Q

hows B12 absorbed in the body?

A

Absorption in body:
• In stomach, B12 which is complexed to normal dietary proteins is released.
• To prevent degradation, forms complex with haptocorrin for protection.
• Gastric parietal cells also then release intrinsic factor, a protein produced in the stomach
• Complex moves to duodenum (alkaline environment) if pancreas is normal functioning.
• Intrinsic factor and complex arrive then new complex forms (from swap)
• B12-IF complex remains stable until transported to terminal ileum. Last part of small bowel
Vitamin B12 absorption in terminal ileum:
• Cubilin receptor on luminal surface interacts with IF-Cbl complex and taken up into endosomes
• IF and Cbl separated
• IF degraded, Cbl attached to lysosomal transporter and sent to secretory vesicle. Forms complex with third protein: TC II. Transported uopt and distributed around body

B12 deficiency leads to underdeveloped red blood cells that are larger than normal (megaloblastic anaemia).

275
Q

what does vit B12 (methylcobalamin) catalyse? ?

A

homocyteine -> methionine

in DNA synethesis! need DNA to make erythrocytes. precursors

276
Q

less than how much cobalamin = B12 def?

A

Less than 200ng/L Cabalamin = B12 deficiency 97% of the time.

277
Q

Why do people develop vitamin B12 deficiency

A

• Pernicious anaemia: autoimmune condition of the stomach where cells that produce the IF are attacked so the body is unable to absorb B12.
• Less IF produced, antibodies can attack parietal cells common cause of severe. OR
• Antibodies specific for IF, less common, more age specific
intestinal conditions- chrons disease

278
Q

Investigation for diagnosis: of B12 deficinecy? what about underlying cause

A

• Full blood count to determine MCV, haematocrit, Hb levels and blood film to identify megaloblastic anaemia
• Measure serum cobalamin and folate levels
Additional tests for underlying cause:
• Liver function tests
• Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
• And or thyroid function tests

Coeliac disease
Gastric issues, surgeries gastrecomy
Parasites

279
Q

qs to ask to investigate cause underlying - of B12 def?

A
  • Tablets better if dietary input problem. Because if absorption problems, no point giving this way.
  • Can ask if vegan and taking PPIs?
280
Q

Why are hydroxocobalamin injections needed to treat deficiency in some people but not others

A

= form of vitamin B12.
The injection form is more readily absorbed in the body and administered less often than oral tablets.

Severe pernicious anaemia is usually treated with injections first.

281
Q

Damage to which parts of the bowel could cause vitamin B12 deficiency

A

digestive tract may be affected as lack of oxygen means less is reaching the gut so nausea and vomiting can be associated or diarrhoea.
Crohns disease may cause it as long term inflammation of digestive system lining, body doesn’t get enough B12.

May be absorption problems. Inflammation, had gastrecomy? Have to have IM injection. Bigger and painful but needed as cant take tablets.

282
Q

SGT: Anaemia of chronic renal disease

causes of anaemia in chronic kidney disease

A

If your kidneys are damaged, they produce less of a hormone called erythropoietin which is needed to make red blood cells. This results in fewer cells being made and causes anaemia.

283
Q

management (investigation and treatment) of anaemia in chronic kidney disease

A

EPO therapy

..

284
Q

role of erythropoietin in the production of erythrocytes

A

hormone that is produced predominantly by specialised cells called interstitial cells in the kidney. Once it is made, it acts on red blood cells to protect them against destruction. At the same time it stimulates stem cells of the bone marrow to increase the production of red blood cells.

285
Q

normal pulse?

A

60-100bpm

286
Q

how would you decide if anaemia is due to chronic kidney disease

A

Determine iron status
Below 60: start to investigate
Above 60-likely another cause
Hb to 110 or less

Then check MCV:
Marco/micro/normocytic anaemia determine which one.
Renal patients normally nave normal anemia and low iron and folate- worthy checking levels

->Reduced erythropoietin in bone marrow.
Other contributions: toxin build upo inn kidney- reduced half life of RBC- degrading

Suspect anaemia: have long table of blood tests and serum ferritin or iron levels (but not alone- not enough). Need full picture

287
Q

target range of haemoglobin in CKD?

A

Male:
138 to 172 (g/L)
Female
121 to 151 g/L.

288
Q

affect of severe anaemia in CKD patients?

A

Increase the chance of developing heart problems

• Arrythmias, extreme fatigue, increased cardiac output and cardiac death

289
Q

how to improve Hb levels- anaemia in CKD?

A

Erythropoietin therapy. Increase by 10-20g/L per month. Small incremental increase.
Cardia and thrombotic events likely if increase all in one go.
(Only for CKD patients)

290
Q

mechanism of action of erythropoetin.

A

directly interacts with EPO recpetor on RBC surface.
triggers activation of several signal transduction pathways = proliferation and terminal differentiation of erythroid precursor cells, providing protection from RBC precursor apoptosis.

Body (kidneys) make it naturallly. ?factor
Works by stim bone marrow to make RBC.
Erythroblastosis into reticulocytes (use nucleus)
Then lose reticulum, results in RBC.

291
Q

cautions and contra-indications to starting erythropoietin therapy?

A

Cautious of hypertension. As EPO can increase uncontrollable.
Ischaemic vascular. Disease too as can cause blood clots.
Malignant disease- not used EPO in cancer/ chemo therapy unless anaemia symptoms present
pure red cell aplasia : side effect of EPOs.

  • risk of Al tox
  • concurrent infection
  • thrombocytosis
292
Q

erythropoietin therapy

Monitoring?

A

blood pressure, reticulocyte counts, haemoglobin, and electrolytes—interrupt treatment if blood pressure uncontrolled.

293
Q

different types of erythropoetin available in the BNF

A
  • EPOIETIN ALFA: tub side effect of pure red cell aphasia.
  • DARBEPOETIN ALFA: brand name??
  • EPOETIN BETA
  • METHOXY POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL-EPOETIN BETA : brand name=??
294
Q

EPO/ EPO therapy end goal?

A

O2 delivery.= one term and acute physiological adaptations
O2 used for a lot

therapy:…
Extend length of molecule to prolong half life= increases degree of response= have physiological effects for slightly longer.

Administration:
• IV: good for haemodialysis patients as will be in hospital anyway Don’t have to come in for it.
• SC: slower absorption and longer half life. Easier to administer as patient can be trained.
Depends on patient preference and cost as not enough evidence.

295
Q

Ferritin is usually higher in chronic diseases but lower in microcytic anameia- why?

A

higher in chronic diseases as it is produced as an acute phase reactant.
However, it is usually lower in iron deficiency anaemia.
Ferritin: acute phase protein, raised in infection.
If they have infection, ferritin may be deceivingly high but patient may not be well.

296
Q

ideal ferritin levels?

A

Should receive to keep above 200 level.

But with non CKD: above 100mcg/L is fine for patients without CKD.

297
Q

how to prevent EPO induced hypertension (crisis) happening?

A

Monitor blood pressure before every dose!!! Would have seen an incremental increase and cause for alarm to review dose, bloods, Hb. Nurse administering should have been measuring/ he should have been counselled how and when to do this is administering himself.

Also get INF/ bloods every month and no more than 10-20 increase of Hb every month.
If higher increase, stop, reevaluate.

298
Q

benefits to using erythropoetin compared to a blood transfusion

A

Blood transfusion not recommended by NICE in these patients.
Risks: develop antibodies against the new blood, viruses and infections may be introduces

Pure red cell aphasia: reaction of EPO molecules – big risk of EPO.

Related chronic iron overload- heart, lungs, liver affected= damage and failure.
No mechanism for elimination of iron from body.
May need iron chelation therapy if have overload.

If epilepsy, get other teams teams involved,
Blood disorder tea would also consider if patient is resistant to EPOs: RBC and reticulocytes may stop expressing EPO receptors and .

299
Q

sgt: drugs causing anaemia

what drugs = deficite risk of haemolytic anaemia?

A
  • Fluoroquinolones (including ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, norfloxacin, and ofloxacin)
  • Methylthioninium chloride
  • Niridazole [not on UK market]
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Pamaquin [not on UK market]
  • Primaquine
  • Quinolones
  • Rasburicase
  • Sulfonamides (including co-trimoxazole)
300
Q

whats haemolytic anaemia?

A

(Reticulocytosis)
increase in the rate of red cell destruction.
RBC 120 days. Being destroyed faster than made here less than 20 days.

301
Q

What does the increased reticulocyte count indicate?

A

Reflects the bone marrows response to anaemia
Reticulocytosis
Trying to counteract [Being destroyed faster than made here] and produce more.

302
Q

Why is the mean cell volume increased in haemolytic anaemia/ reticulocytosis?

A

Reticolyctes are bigger than RBC.

Usually due to folate/B12 deficiency but those normal and MCV only slightly increased.

303
Q

why may bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase be increased?

haemolytic anaemia?

A

Hb breakdown increases bilirubin
3 types of jaundice.
Haemolytic anaemia cause for prehepatic jaundice

Lact- enzyme released. Usually keep inside cells. Sort of link to liver function tests lec.
LDH end was looked at in cardiac damage not anymore.

Not specific but both together good indicators of red cell damage.

304
Q

indicators of red cell damage? blood tests

A

bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase increased

305
Q

Where does red cell destruction take place in haemolytic anaemia?

A

extravascular/ intravascular haemolysis
(circulation)

intravasc if can see sites on blood film - fragments broken down

306
Q

what does haptoglobin have a role in?

A

intravascular haem. Anaemia. Binds to free Hb as toxic to cells. Made by alpha ? In liver
Level decreased as removed by Hb. Bound by it. – indicate intravascular together with fragments in blood film.

307
Q

mechanism for ciprofloxacin caused haemolytic anaemia

A

G6PD deficiency is a side effect of the drug, which can then cause haem. anameia

308
Q

whats GC6PD? (in haem anaemia)

A

GC6PD: without, don’t produce GSH which stabilises..
Reduces oxidative stress in cell

More risk of having RBC damaged

Inherited condition.
Affects males, carried by females.
X-linked recessive manner.
= more risk of oxidation by these drugs.

Female heterozygotes that carry this are more resistant to malaria. Therefore if you survive malaria, you’re more likely to pass it on.

Would not prescribe any of the drugs in the list to patient with G6PD def.

309
Q

immune mediated mechanisms that can lead to drug induced haemolytic anaemia

A
AIHA Causes- When you have AIHA, your immune system makes antibodies that mistakenly attack your own red blood cells
Drugs that can cause this type of hemolytic anemia include: Cephalosporins (a class of antibiotics), most common cause.

Ampicillin and high dose penicillins can cause.
Or protein complex attached can lead to

Methyldopa: unsure why happens. (It’s an old fashioned hypertensive- only often given in pregnant women as been used for so long and no adverse efffects)

310
Q

when does Lymphocytopenia/ lymphopenia occur? and causes what?

A

when your lymphocyte count in your bloodstream is lower than normal. Severe or chronic low counts can indicate a possible infection or other significant illness

Cause for breathlessness- low Hb.
Low Hb, reticulocytes: bone marrow not responding and making new cells.

311
Q

side effect of antimetabolite treatment?

A

Bone marrow suppression
also: very low platelets so A shortage of blood platelets (thrombocytopenia) can lead to excess bruising, bleeding, frequent or severe nosebleeds, and bleeding gums.

312
Q

How might the azathioprine cause infection, fever, bruising?

A

Immunosuppressant, works by suppressing your immune system. This means your immune system becomes weaker. More susceptible to viruses etc.

conversion
Azathioprine -> 6MP (6 mercaptopurine) inhibits purine synthesis

313
Q

lack of TPMT enzyme leads to what?

A

Bone marrow suppression increased.

314
Q

what does TPMT do?

A

metabolises thiopurines into nontoxic, inactive products
TMPT deficiency- get bigger effect from azathiprine as not converte to nontoxic and inactive.
An still get reduced dose- consider how much its not working.

Patients can be tested and depends if taking for IBS- gastro- probs wont test just tart on low dose. Rheumatology etc might test.

315
Q

important drug interactions that should be avoided in patients taking azathioprine

A

taking allopurinol !!
Can increase risk of haemological toxicity. It’s a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. = get more 6MP going through. Same effect as not having TPMT.
Used for high blood urine acid levels. Crystallises, inflamed joints (gout).

  • take ciclosporin or tacrolimus (immunosuppressant medicines)
  • take warfarin (used to prevent blood clots)
  • have recently had or are due to have any vaccinations (especially a “live” vaccine)
316
Q

affect of allopurinol (and DDI with azathiprine)

A

Allopurinol reduces active metabolite and vaccine ones are important
• Can increase risk of haemological toxicity. It’s a xanthine oxidase inhibitor. = get more 6MP going through. Same effect as not having TPMT.
• Used for high blood urine acid levels. Crystallises, inflamed joints (gout).

Patient on azathioprine- don’t use allopurinol!

317
Q

monitoring is recommended for people taking azathioprine

A

Full blood count weekly. More frequently with high quality doses or if severe renal impairment.
Monitoring for signs of myelosuppression

Toxicity through treatment….
Monitor renal function- liver function tests

318
Q

SGT ADRs and DDIs

felodipine 10 mg od and swollen ankles link?

A

CCBs- lower BP

work by preventing Ca entering cells of heart + arteries
Ca causes heart + arteries to contract
block Ca -> CCBs allow blood vessels to relax + open

Peripheral oedema is a side effect of Felodipine as increased capillary pressure may lead to fluids leaking into surrounding tissues.
Causes: renal/heart problems.
To do with capillaries so diuretics wont help

Side effect usually right after started drug

319
Q

interaction between grapefruit and calcium channels blockers.

A

=moderate increase in exposure to felodipine

Reduce activity of cyp3a4
Opiates: metabolised by CYP2D6
Can cause irreversible inhibition of CYP3A4 (involved in many drug metabolism!!)
Reducing presystemimc metab, hee: enzymes in inestinal wall

Dose increase: explains why it happened after 12 months not yet. (look at timings in case)

320
Q

potential problems of starting amiodarone in patient on warfarin and has AF?

A
Antiarrythmic class III
General side effects include:
•	Respiratory disorders
•	Nausea
•	Hyperthyroidism
•	Arrhythmias
•	Hepatic disorders

Severe DDI: Amiodarone and Warfarin (Vit K antagonist):
Monitor INR

321
Q

mechanism of this interaction: amiodarone + warfarin?

A

Amiodarone: potent inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes responsible for warfarin metabolism.
Decreased metabolism of warfarin = higher plasma concentrations and increased risk of bleeding complications etc.

Inhibition of CYP2C9, 3A4,…