Mobile Devices and Networks Flashcards
A user contacts you stating that she received an error stating that the MBR is corrupt. You need to ensure that this issue is resolved. Where is the MBR stored?
A) BIOS
B) CMOS
C) Hard disk
D) Paging file
Hardware
C) Hard disk
The Master Boot Record (MBR) is contained in a partition’s master boot sector, which is the first sector of a computer’s hard disk or a system floppy disk. MBRs contain two primary components: executable code and a partition table. Executable code in the MBR is responsible for locating the appropriate operating system from the partition table and loading it into RAM to make the operating system active. Partition tables identify each partition that resides on a specific disk.
The MBR is usually only 512 bytes, so it only takes up a very small percentage of the hard drive, even on small drives. A computer’s MBR is not stored in the basic input/output system (BIOS), the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS), or the paging file.
Cathy’s mother is getting ready to buy her a new laptop for college. She knows that the laptop may not always be handled with care. She wants to ensure that the device can withstand dropping. What kind of hard drive is her best option?
A) SATA
B) PATA
C) SSD
D) Flash drive
Mobile Devices
C) SSD
Explanation
A solid-state drive (SSD) is the best option because it has no moving parts, meaning it does not use a read/write assembly. It is not as fragile as magnetic hard drives. When in operation, SSDs are silent. SSDs are faster, more reliable, and require less power than magnetic drives. Contrarily, SSDs are more limited on storage space than traditional hard drives.
PATA and SATA are traditional magnetic hard drives. Traditional hard drives are affordable, but crash more easily. They are so fragile because they have read/write heads that move across magnetic platters. Because magnetic hard drives are easy to scratch and break, the industry has embraced the SSDs.
Flash drives are portable versions of SSDs but hold much less data than an internal SSD. While SSDs that hold up to terabytes (TB) of data are available, most flash drives can hold 16 to 64 GB of data and are not used as the primary boot drive for any devices.
Laptops use either 1.8-inch or 2.5-inch hard drives. The 2.5-inch drives are more popular and less costly. The 1.8-inch drives weigh less and are more power efficient. In most cases, the 2.5-inch drives offer better performance because they have larger caches and higher rotation speeds. The 1.8-inch drives are most often use in ultra-portable laptops, iPads, and other mobile devices, while the 2.5-inch drives are used in traditional laptops. To replace a hard drive in a laptop or mobile device, consult the vendor documentation regarding the location of the drive. In most cases, you either need to remove the bottom or the back of the case or keyboard. You also may need to install optical drives in a mobile device. In most cases, this will involve removing the old one and replacing it with the new one. To remove the old optical drive, you usually have to remove it via the bottom of the case.
Some mobile devices may have a smart card reader. In most cases, these are simply attached to an external port on the mobile device. However, if the smart card reader is integrated into the device, you will need to consult the laptop or mobile device’s manufacturer documentation to determine how best to remove the smart card reader.
You need to synchronize your iPhone with your computer. What is the default app to use to perform this function?
A) iTunes
B) OneDrive
C) ActiveSync
D) Google Drive
E) Dropbox
Mobile Devices
A) iTunes
You are in the process of replacing the toner cartridge for a laser printer. However, you notice that toner particles have been spilt inside the printer. What should you use to effectively remove these particles?
A) ESD-safe vacuum cleaner
B) Household vacuum cleaner
C) Compressed air
D) Damp cloth
Hardware
A) ESD-safe vacuum cleaner
Your organization has decided to use SSL over port 465 on the SMTP server, smtp.dreamsuites.com. You need to change the settings on your iPhone. What should you do?
A) Edit the Outgoing Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL, and change the port to port 465.
B) Edit the Incoming Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL, and change the port to port 465.
C) Edit the Incoming Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL.
D) Edit the Outgoing Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL.
Mobile Devices
A) Edit the Outgoing Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL, and change the port to port 465.
You should edit the Outgoing Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL and change the port to 465.
You should not edit ONLY the Outgoing Mail Server settings so that the server uses SSL. By default, the Outgoing Mail Server uses port 587. You need to change the port to 465.
You should not edit the Incoming Mail Server settings because the SMTP server is the outgoing mail server, not the incoming mail server.
You bought a laptop at an estate sale and plugged it in overnight to charge. However, the laptop will not boot when you press the power key. You try to boot the laptop with it plugged in to the wall outlet, but it still will not boot. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A) Smart card reader
B) DC jack
C) Bluetooth module
D) Battery
Mobile Devices
B) DC jack
You are helping students install Windows and Linux servers in various configurations on their laptops. What would be the most important CPU or motherboard feature to configure?
A) Virtual technology
B) Hyperthreading
C) Speed
D) Integrated GPU
Hardware
A) Virtual technology
Virtual technology allows you to install another operating system on top of the existing operating system without overwriting the original OS.
You have a motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket. Which CPU would NOT be supported with this motherboard?
A) Core 2 Duo
B) Core i7
C) Xeon
D) Celeron
Hardware
A) Core 2 Duo
Which CPU cooling method should you implement when other convective methods will not work?
A) Heat sinks
B) Heat pipes
C) Water cooling
D) Peltier cooling
Hardware
D) Peltier cooling
Peltier cooling should be implemented when convective methods will not work. A Peltier device gets colder when voltage is applied.
Identify the SATA connectors on the motherboard by clicking the appropriate area.
Hareware
Your company wants to upgrade its twisted pair (TP) cable network to handle up to 10 GB data rates from switches to network nodes over lengths of up to 90 meters. Which TP category type must the company deploy to meet its requirements?
A) Cat6a
B) Cat4
C) Cat6
D) Cat5e
E) Cat3
Hardware
A) Cat6a
The company must deploy Cat6a to meet its requirements. Cat6a, which stands for Category 6 Augmented twisted-pair cable, makes use of better conductors and shielding to support the nominal 100-meter (90-meter cable run) distances for data rates up to 10 Gbps.
You must purchase new RAM to install in a computer. The company policy states that RAM must be able to detect both single-bit and multi-bit errors. Which component should the RAM you order have?
A) L1 cache
B) ECC
C) L2 cache
D) Parity bit
Hardware
B) ECC
Error correction code (ECC) detects both single-bit and multi-bit errors in RAM. ECC memory should be required for mission-critical applications. The motherboard in the computer must support ECC memory. Without memory controller support built into the motherboard, the ECC memory module is effectively the same as non-ECC memory.
A parity bit can only detect single-bit errors. Parity memory is better than nonparity memory, but ECC memory is the best.
L1 cache is cache memory built into the processor. L2 cache is cache memory located on a separate chip. L1 cache is much faster than L2 cache. Neither type of cache detects errors.
What are the two most important factors to consider when selecting a replacement power supply for a desktop computer? (Choose two.)
A) Output capacity in watts
B) Form factor
C)Voltage levels
D)Fan type
Hardware
A) Output capacity in watts
B) Form factor
When replacing a power supply, you should first look for a replacement that fits the form factor of the computer. Power supplies are designed to operate with specific form factors, such as ATX and ATX12V v1.x that connect to the motherboard with a 20-pin version connector. The ATX12V v2.x and micro ATX all use the standard 24-pin connector. Once you have found the proper form factor, the next characteristic that you should look for is the rated output capacity in watts. You must make sure that the replacement can supply sufficient power for the components inside the computer. You should estimate the wattage consumed by the computer’s components and then install a power supply that is rated higher than your estimate. This allows components to be added to the computer and gives a buffer for estimating errors.
You do not need to consider voltage levels or fan type, because the voltage and fan type sizes are standard within the form factors. If a replacement ATX power supply unit has a connector that is too large for the motherboard’s socket, you need a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter. In addition, you may need to upgrade from a 200-watt power supply to a 400-watt ATX power supply. This would result in the addition of 3.3 volts of power to the computer. The needs of the computer should be determined before purchasing the power supply, as the needs can often determine the size the power supply should be. Mini-ATX and micro-ATX power supplies are smaller than standard ATX power supplies. They are designed for smaller computer cases.
If you must replace a proprietary power supply unit, you will be limited to purchasing the same power supply made specifically for the computer.
When selecting a power supply, you must decide your input needs: input 115V vs. 220V. You must determine the wattage rating needed based on the number of devices/types of devices to be powered. A wattage rating is an expression of the maximum power that a device can safely continuously handle. The three types of output for a power supply are 3.3V, 5.5V, and 12V. Motherboards include a 20-pin to 24-pin motherboard adapter to which the power supply connects.
Power supplies also come in a modular and redundant form. A modular power supply is an electronic power system that can have all its power cables and connectors be detached and removed, whereas other powers supply systems are permanently hard-wired. A redundant power supply is a power supply unit that has two or more power supply units inside it. These are often found in servers or other high-end computers.
A user contacts you regarding his front panel connectors on his PC. He wants to plug a device into one of those ports. Which of the following are you LEAST likely to see as a front-panel connector on a motherboard?
A) Reset button
B) USB port
C) SCSI port
D) Drive activity lights
Hardware
C) SCSI port
The front-panel connectors on a motherboard include USB port connectors, audio port connectors, power button connectors, power light connectors, drive activity light connectors, and reset button connectors.
You need to configure an iPhone to connect to your company’s 802.11g network. You navigate to the Settings. What should you do NEXT?
A) Enable Airplane Mode.
B) Enable Wi-Fi.
C) Enable Personal Hotspot.
D) Enable Bluetooth.
Mobile Devices
B) Enable Wi-Fi.
You should enable Wi-Fi. Wi-Fi networks include 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax.
A customer needs the wireless card replaced in his laptop. What must you be sure to disconnect or remove when replacing this card?
A) Keyboard
B) Antenna contacts
C) Memory
D) Optical drive
Mobile Devices
B) Antenna contacts
When replacing a wireless card from a laptop, you must be sure to disconnect the antenna contacts. You should reconnect them to the new wireless card once it is installed.
Depending on the laptop vendor, you may or may not have to remove the memory, optical drive, and keyboard. However, you will always have to disconnect the wireless antenna.
Antenna placement is also crucial when you are installing a new Wi-Fi router. Antenna placement will ensure that the wireless signal can reach all devices within the network and prevent dead zones within the premises. Additionally, when setting up antennas, you should take note of the type of connector that you are using to ensure proper and consistent wireless speeds and transmissions.
You are explaining to several new IT technicians the printing process for different types of printers. What does a dot matrix printer use to ensure that ink is transferred onto a piece of paper?
A) Print head pins
B) Electrostatic charges
C) Ink nozzles
D) Heat fuser
Hardware
A) Print head pins
What is the purpose of configuring printer availability on the Advanced tab of a printer’s Properties dialog box?
A) It configures the paper and print quality that is available.
B) It configures the users to whom the printer is available.
C) It configures the orientation that is available.
D) It configures the days and times that a printer is available.
Hardware
D) It configures the days and times that a printer is available.
When Kevin was hired, he inherited a box of different types of RAM. Which RAM would you ask him to set aside if you needed to increase the number of data wires available from 64 to 128?
A) Single-channel
B) Double-sided
C) Single-sided
D) Dual-channel
Hardware
D) Dual-channel
The dual-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires available from 64 to 128. The triple-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 192. The quad-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 256. Single-channel architecture has 64 wires and has each RAM module run separately from the other installed RAM modules. Single-sided RAM has chips on one side of the RAM. Double-sided RAM has chips on both sides of the RAM.
Last year, your department replaced all of the desktop computers with laptops. Recently, your company adopted a new minimum standards policy that requires a memory upgrade for the majority of the new laptops. Which type(s) of memory could be installed in the new laptops? (Choose all that apply.)
A) SIMMS
B) So-DIMM
C) DIMMS
D) Micro-DIMM
E) RIMMS
F) CRIMMS
Mobile Devices
B) So-DIMM
D) Micro-DIMM
You need to remove several devices from a computer. For which type of device should you use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device’s operation before removing it from the computer?
A) Hard drive
B) CD-ROM drive
C) USB flash drive
D) DVD drive
Hardware
C) USB flash drive
Heidi’s laptop keyboard has gone bad and needs replacing. Which of the following tools will you most likely use to replace the keyboard?
A) Screwdriver
B) Three-claw part holder
C) Nut driver
D) Tweezers
Mobile Devices
A) Screwdriver
George is only familiar with VGA connectors for monitors. What should you tell him are the main differences between VGA and DVI connectors? (Choose all that apply.)
A) VGA connectors and cables carry analog signals, while DVI can carry both analog and digital signals.
B) DVI connectors are always white.
C) VGA and DVI video signals travel at different speeds.
D) VGA connectors are always blue.
E) VGA connectors provide a maximum output resolution of 1024 × 768.
Hardware
A) VGA connectors and cables carry analog signals, while DVI can carry both analog and digital signals.
C) VGA and DVI video signals travel at different speeds.
The main differences between VGA and DVI connectors are the speed in which video signal travels and the types of signal they carry. A standard VGA cable only carries analog signal, and its resolution is 2053 × 1536. Its signal conversions influence electrical noises, so the output is not comparable. Since DVI cables carry both analog and digital signals, they offer a cleaner, faster, and more precise display, with resolutions of 1920 × 1200. For cables that are 50 feet or longer, the resolution is limited to only 1280 × 1024.
You are providing consulting services for a client who plans to purchase a large number of printers that can print multipart forms. Which printer type should you advise him to consider?
A) Dot matrix
B) Thermal
C) Inkjet
D) Laser
Hardware
A) Dot matrix
Dot matrix printers can print multipart forms, often referred to as carbon copies, because the act of printing is accomplished by physically striking paper with a print head. Another impact printer, the daisy-wheel printer, can also be used for multipart forms. Inkjet, thermal, and laser printers cannot print on all layers of a multi-part form. A multi-part form has two or more sheets of paper per page, and only an impact printer can create an impression on the pages under the top page.
A new computer has been purchased that includes an integrated GPU. What is the primary purpose of this component?
A) Providing additional memory
B) Providing video capture capability
C) Processing video and graphics
D) Processing gaming applications
Hardware
C) Processing video and graphics
The primary purpose of an integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is processing video and graphics.
You are teaching a class for new IT technicians. As part of the unit on central processing units (CPUs), you discuss the architecture used to build CPU sockets. Which architecture should you cover?
A) ATA
B) EIDE
C) PGA
D) CHS
Hardware
C) PGA
Today, CPU sockets are built on the Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) architecture. Such CPU sockets can easily be identified by their square shape and white color. A CPU PGA socket is displayed in the image:
Christine has a motherboard with a Socket 1156 and has called you to see if a Socket 1150 CPU could be used in its place. What would you recommend that she do?
A) Upgrade the socket on the existing motherboard so it compatible with an LGA 1156.
B) Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket.
C) Replace the heat sink.
D) Replace the thermal paste and pins.
Hardware
B) Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket.
Intel motherboards with a Socket 1156, also known as Socket H, hold LGA Socket 1156 CPUs and have 1,156 pins. An 1156 socket is not compatible with LGA Socket 1150 (Socket H3), which has 1,150 pins and was compatible with 4th- and 5th-generation Core desktops and Xeon E3, v3, and v4 for servers. Therefore, you should recommend that she purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket. Alternatively, you could recommend that she purchase a new CPU. If both choices are an option, determining which has the best value for the price would help you to determine what to do.
You are clearing the IT technician workspace for your company of any old or obsolete hardware. You have found several different types of RAM, including modules that use 168 pins. Which type of computer memory module uses 168 pins?
A) RDRAM
B) SIMM
C) SIPP
D) DIMM
E) DIPP
Hardware
D) DIMM
Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs) have 168 pins. Some DIMM designs have 72 or 144 pins. These are known as Small Outline DIMMs. Normally used in portable computers, they are often referred to as SODIMMs. DIMM modules are 8 bytes wide and transfer 8 bytes (64 bits) of data at a time. With DIMMs made of older SDRAM (synchronous DRAM) memory chips, the data is transferred once per clock cycle. However, with DDR SDRAM and DDR2 SDRAM, the data is transferred two times per clock cycle: once on the leading edge of the clock signal and again on the falling edge. This allows large amounts of data to be transferred per clock cycle. For example, in a Pentium 4 system with a front-side bus operating at 400 MHz, up to 6,400 MB of data is transferred to and from the DDR2-DIMMs per second. DDR SDRAM comes in 184-pin DIMMs.
You are replacing the toner cartridge for an old laser printer. You are concerned that several internal components are reaching their maximum age based on the printer’s page count, and you need to replace the parts. However, you also know that certain components are included with the toner cartridge. You do not want to replace any components that are included in the toner cartridge. Which components are normally included in the cartridge? (Choose all that apply.)
A) A transfer corona
B) Electrostatically charged toner
C) A photosensitive drum
D) A fuser
Hardware
B) Electrostatically charged toner
C) A photosensitive drum
Laser printer toner cartridges ordinarily contain a photosensitive drum and electrostatically charged toner, which is fused to paper during the printing process. To reduce maintenance costs, printer manufacturers typically incorporate laser printer components into replaceable toner cartridges.
A laser printer’s photosensitive drum has a cylindrical surface that laser light strikes. The light writes a path on the drum and leaves an electrical charge wherever it strikes the drum, eventually placing the image of an entire page on the drum. After a page of the document is completely replicated by the electric charge on the drum, the drum is rolled in toner, which is powdery ink consisting of plastic particles bonded to iron particles. The iron particles in the toner are sensitive to the electric charge, and therefore, adhere to the charged image of the document on the drum.
The printer’s fuser contains two rollers, which use heat and pressure at this point in the process to fuse the image onto the paper. After the document is printed, the electrical charge is removed from the drum and the excess toner is collected for reuse. A fuser can also be referred to as a fuser assembly.
The transfer corona applies an electric charge to printer paper with a polarity opposite to that of the toner particles to generate electrostatic attraction between the paper and the ink. Attractive electrostatic force then causes the toner to move from the drum to the paper. At this point, the toner is resting on the paper but still needs to be attached to the paper to create a permanent image.
Laser printer toner cartridges should only be purchased from the laser printer manufacturer to ensure highest quality printing and protect against printer malfunction. Recycled cartridges should be avoided. In addition, you should never attempt to refill a laser printer toner cartridge.
You are responsible for managing your research department’s network. This network uses RG6 coaxial cabling. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this network?
A) Its signal quality is not as good as that of RG59 coaxial cable.
B) It should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz.
C) It does not have a foil shield.
D) It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
Hardware
D) It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
RG6 coaxial cable is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
None of the other statements is true regarding RG6 coaxial cable. RG6 cable should be used in situations that require the 50 MHz frequencies or higher. RG6 signal quality is better than the signal quality of RG59 cable. RG6 cable has a foil shield. RG59 cable should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz. RG59 is thinner than RG6 cable. RG59 does not have a foil shield. For both of these cable types, the maximum cable length is 185 meters, and the maximum transmission speed is 10 Megabits per second (Mbps).
Your repair center has received several laptops. Each has a different component that is not working properly. Which of the following components will most likely be replaced by a similar device on an external USB adapter, instead of an internal replacement?
A) Video card
B) Bluetooth module
C) Cellular card
D) DC jack
Mobile Devices
A) Video card
The video card is most likely to be replaced by a similar device that is not an internal component but rather attached with an external USB adapter. Video card replacement on a laptop is often not possible because the card is usually built into the motherboard. The best bet is to install an external graphics card though the USB port.
As compared to video card replacement in a laptop, Bluetooth module replacement is a relatively easy and inexpensive process, though there are several steps to get to where you can pull out the old one and install the new one.
As compared to video card replacement in a laptop, cellular card replacement is a relatively easy process. Some cellular cards can simply be plugged into a USB port. When purchasing a replacement, look for a wireless wide area networking (WWAN) card that has at minimum 4G and LTE capability. Follow the manufacturer’s disassembly steps to remove the old unit and replace it with the new one.
A DC jack cannot be plugged into an external USB adapter. The DC jack can be replaced on a laptop, but it is not easy. More often than not, the process involves de-soldering the broken jack from the motherboard, removing the broken jack, placing the new jack, and soldering it in place. Unless you have experience soldering, you would be better off to take it to a repair shop.
Your company has recently purchased computer hardware inventory so that its IT technicians can make custom computers for certain users. The processors that were purchased include the Hyper-Threading (HT) technology. Which benefit does this technology provide?
A) Uses two or more physical processors to function
B) Uses virtual processors to perform multitasking
C) Allows the resources to sit idle
D) Reduces workload capacity
Hardware
B) Uses virtual processors to perform multitasking
The Hyper-Threading (HT) technology in a processor provides the benefit of using a virtual processor to perform multitasking. A processor with HT enabled uses a single processor to create another virtual processor to simultaneously perform multiple tasks. A computer with HT enabled will virtually have two processors running. One processor is physically present in the computer, and another processor is a virtual processor. The HT capability of a processor allows the processor to perform multiple tasks without causing any delay by keeping multiple processes waiting in queue.
The HT technology in a processor does not reduce the workload capacity. HT technology increases the workload capacity of a processor by allowing the processor to multitask between processes.
The HT technology in a processor does not allow resources to sit idle. A processor with HT enabled can simultaneously handle multiple processes and execute them simultaneously. Therefore, the computer resources are used more efficiently, and the performance of the computer is improved.
The HT technology in a processor does not require two or more physical processors to function. The technology allows a single processor to act as two processors. One processor is the actual physical processor, and the other is a virtual processor that has been created for multitasking.
Abigail works in Europe. She has a laptop with a standard VGA port that she uses for presentations at client sites. When she gets to the United States, she realizes that the companies she’s presenting for all have HDMI displays and interfaces. What would you recommend she purchase for her travel bag as the most cost-effective solution?
A) Purchase a VGA-to-HDMI adapter.
B) Purchase a new laptop with both VGA and HDMI connectors.
C) Purchase a portable projector for VGA.
D) Purchase an HDMI-to-DVI cable.
Hardware
A) Purchase a VGA-to-HDMI adapter.
The best solution for Abigail is to purchase a VGA-to-HDMI adapter for her existing HDMI cable. While purchasing a new laptop with both VGA and HDMI connectors would be the ultimate solution, it is not the most cost effective.
You have to interconnect a notebook computer and a cell phone. The notebook computer supports Bluetooth, USB, FireWire, and IEEE 1284 connections. However, you do not have any cables to connect the two devices and do not want to purchase any. What should you do?
A) Enable FireWire technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.
B) Enable IEEE 1284 technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.
C) Enable Bluetooth technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.
D) Enable USB technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.
Mobile Devices
C) Enable Bluetooth technology on both the computer and the cell phone, and then connect the two.
The Bluetooth protocol operates at 2.4GHz in the same unlicensed ISM frequency band where RF protocols like ZigBee and WiFi also exist. There is a standardized set of rules and specifications that differentiates it from other protocols. If you have a few hours to kill and want to learn every nook and cranny of Bluetooth, check out the published specifications, otherwise here’s a quick overview of what makes Bluetooth special.
Masters, Slaves, and Piconets
Bluetooth networks (commonly referred to as piconets) use a master/slave model to control when and where devices can send data. In this model, a single master device can be connected to up to seven different slave devices. Any slave device in the piconet can only be connected to a single master.
Master/slave topology
Examples of Bluetooth master/slave piconet topologies.
The master coordinates communication throughout the piconet. It can send data to any of its slaves and request data from them as well. Slaves are only allowed to transmit to and receive from their master. They can’t talk to other slaves in the piconet.
You need to install a network that uses cable that can operate at up to 10 gigabits per second (Gbps). Which cabling should you use?
A) Cat6
B) Cat3
C) Cat5e
D) Cat5
Hardware
A) Cat6
Cat6 cable can operate at up to 10 Gbps in 55-meter segments. It is often referred to as Gigabit Ethernet. Cat6 UTP standards support up to 1,000 Mbps at 100-meter segments. Cat6a supports up to 10 Gbps and 250 MHz at 100-meter segments. Cat7, known as F type cabling, supports the same speed and length but up to 600 MHz.
Cat3 cable can operate at up to 10 Mbps.Cat5 cable can operate at up to 100 Mbps. Cat5e cable can operate at up to 1 Gbps. Cat5e networks can also be referred to as Gigabit Ethernet, but Gigabit Ethernet is more often used to refer to Cat6 networks.
Identify the memory slot(s) on the motherboard.
Hardware
Your company recently had to call in a service representative to repair a laser printer. During the service call, the representative explains that the laser printer’s charge or primary corona was having problems. What is the main purpose of this laser printer component?
A) To charge the paper
B) To coordinate the components to print a page
C) To write the image on the drum
D) To neutralize the charge on the paper
E) To apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive drum
F) To melt the toner into the paper
Hardware
E) To apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive drum
The purpose of the charge corona (called conditioning rollers in some laser printers) is to apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive particles on the surface of the imaging drum. It operates in tandem with the discharge lamp to essentially create a blank slate on which the laser can write. After the drum passes through the charge corona, an electrostatic image can be created on the imaging drum with the laser. Any areas on the imaging drum that the laser beam touches loses its electrostatic charge. These areas attract the charged toner as the drum rotates through the toner container, creating an electrostatic image on the drum.
As the drum continues to rotate, the toner particles on the drum come into very close proximity to the paper and are pulled onto it, because the paper is charged by the transfer corona wire. The paper then passes through a device (detac corona wire) that discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper, which keeps the paper from sticking to the drum. Finally, the paper passes through a fuser that heats the paper and bonds the plastic toner particles to it as the toner melts, creating the printed image.
As the paper exits the detac corona wire and fuser, the drum continues to rotate where it passes the discharge lamp, discharging the electrostatic charge on the drum. It then rotates to the primary corona, where the process begins again.
Your company has decided to make several computers that will be used for specialized functions. You have been tasked with assembling these computers. Management wants you to ensure that the computers will not experience any overheating issues. Which components are used to help with this? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Thermal compound
B) A fan
C) A heat sink
D) A ZIF socket
Hardware
A) Thermal compound
B) A fan
C) A heat sink
When installing processors, thermal compound, a heat sink, and a fan are used to help with overheating issues. If the processor is overheating, the computer will shut down after being on for a while. It can be powered back up after the processor has cooled. If shutdowns continue, you may need to consider replacing the heat sink or fan. Thermal compound used with a heat sink is a passive cooling system. Fans are active cooling systems because they require electricity to cool. Fans must operate at a certain RPM level or be replaced. Processor fans should never be removed permanently. While heat sinks are more common for CPUs, you can also purchase heat sinks for memory modules. You should avoid touching the copper piping on heat sinks because oil from the skin can decrease copper’s ability to conduct heat.
Your organizational policy requires that users sync their mobile devices with the cloud at least once a week. Which of the following types of data can be synchronized to the cloud?
A) calendar
B) documents
C) pictures
D) all of these
Mobile Devices
D) all of these
You were recently hired as an IT technician. The IT supervisor informs you that many of the desktop computers have Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboards. Which of the following statements is TRUE for these computers?
A) The processor, memory, and expansion slots on an ATX motherboard are all in line with each other.
B) An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots.
C) An ATX motherboard has a 12-pin power connector.
D) An ATX motherboard can support Extended Data Output (EDO) Random Access Memory (RAM).
Hardware
B) An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots.
An Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. ATX motherboards are generally an improvement over AT and baby AT motherboards and provide more space for expansion slots, such as Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), and Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card slots.
An ATX motherboard supports a 20-pin power connector, which consists of a single connector that can only be connected in one way to the motherboard. A 12-pin power connector is supported on AT and baby AT motherboards, and is a combination of two 6-pin power connectors where the P8 and P9 pins are together. Therefore, you must ensure that the black wires are adjacent to each other while connecting a 12-pin power connector to the motherboard. The ATX power supply standard was developed to provide a better way to plug the power supply into the motherboard.
The processor, memory, and expansion slots are NOT in line with each other on an ATX motherboard. The memory slot on an ATX motherboard, also referred to as a RAM slot, is placed at a 90-degree angle to all expansion slots. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are oriented parallel to each other on AT and baby AT motherboards.
An ATX motherboard cannot support EDO RAM, which is considered obsolete. Micro-ATX, ITX, and Mini-ITX use the 20- or 24-pin power connectors. A 24-pin power connector is similar to the 20-pin power connector, except that it has four more pins. Whenever connecting different components to a motherboard, it is important to match connectors appropriately to ensure that everything is functioning properly. Depending on the device, different pin header connectors will be required.
A connector that you will need to be familiar with on a motherboard are Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) connectors. The SAS connector was developed for transferring data between storage. The goal of the SAS port was to have similar functions of a SATA port, but with the ability to support several hard drives simultaneously.
Which serial communication standards provide hot-swap capability? (Choose two.)
A) IEEE 1394
B) RS-232C
C) USB
D) PS/2
Hardware
A) IEEE 1394
C) USB
Universal Serial Bus (USB) and Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 are serial bus standards that allow hot swapping of devices. The term hot swapping, which is also known as hot plugging, refers to the ability to add or remove a device from the bus while the computer is turned on and operational. Older bus standards do not support this feature. Indeed, removing or adding a device while the computer is running can damage the device or the computer. For example, the ATX motherboard has two adjacent PS/2 ports for the keyboard and mouse connectors. If these connectors are reversed, the computer will usually beep and show an error message during the POST routine. If you unplug and reinsert the connectors while the computer is still turned on, you can cause a power surge through a connector and damage the motherboard. A typical response to an error message associated with such a connector reversal would be to press F1, but because the keyboard is connected to the mouse port, pressing this function key will have no effect.
Jack has several areas in the office where he needs to install cabling. He has coaxial cable on hand, and he would like to use splitters to connect the different computers and areas. If he runs multiple splitters, which effects should he anticipate? (Choose all that apply.)
A) More collisions
B) Service quality issues
C) Signal loss
D) Connection speed issues
E) Fewer collisions
Hardware
B) Service quality issues
C) Signal loss
D) Connection speed issues
If he runs multiple splitters, he should anticipate signal loss, connection speed issues, and service quality issues. You should advise him to have a certified cable installer install the splitters. No matter who installs the splitters, they should test signal strength and boost incoming signals from the outside or provide the correct type of amplified splitter.
Adding a splitter should not affect the number of collisions on the network. There should not be more or fewer collisions as a result of this change.
Splitters are devices that take two or more signals of the same frequency range and reassembles the signals from multiple signal sources. Splitters are meant to extend cables on networks.
Latency is a term that means “delay.” Latency is rated on how long it takes for a packet to get from one location to the other. You often hear more about latency with RAM, but in this case, running multiple splitters would affect each splitter’s ability to spread the signal.
Splitters can be an inexpensive way to extend your network. There are passive and active splitters, as well as amplified splitters. Some devices like TVs have different ports, so a splitter would have to be purchased according to the type of TV port. If you are trying to install splitters yourself, make sure you have enough knowledge to test the speed of your unsplit connection using a free online tester before you start, and then test it again after you split the signal.
Another option besides installing splitters would be to run longer coaxial cables to prevent signal loss.
If you try to use a splitter on Ethernet networks, it would dramatically reduce the signal, and therefore, is not recommended. This splitter effect applies to coaxial cable types as well.
You have noticed dust, debris, and toner particles inside a laser printer. You need to vacuum the inside of the laser printer. What should you do first?
A) Remove excess toner with a damp cloth.
B) Remove the toner cartridge.
C) Remove the roller blade.
D) Remove the photosensitive drum.
Hardware
B) Remove the toner cartridge.
You should remove the toner cartridge first. If you do not, you may have a larger mess than when you started. Using a damp cloth would be a mistake since the water can mix with the toner, again causing a larger mess than the one you started with.
You are setting up a network for a new company. Management is primarily concerned with EMI or signal capture. Which network medium is the least susceptible to these issues?
A) Fiber optic
B) Unshielded twisted-pair
C) Coaxial
D) Shielded twisted-pair
Hardware
A) Fiber optic
Fiber optic cable carries its signals in the form of modulated pulses of light. Because fiber optic cables use light pulses rather than electric signals, it is virtually impossible to intercept the signal on a fiber optic cable without interrupting it, and therefore, being detected. In addition, fiber optic cable is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference (EMI). It can span distances of up to two kilometers, or 2,000 meters (6,562 feet) and transmit data at a rate in excess of 100 Mbps. However, fiber optic cable is the most expensive type of networking cable.
The following table presents a comparison of network media:
You are showing a new IT technician how to install portable computer components. You want to demonstrate which devices can be removed and reinstalled without using screws or disassembling the computer. Which device satisfies this requirement?
A) Hard drive
B) Processor
C) Memory
D) Battery
Mobile Devices
D) Battery
The battery can be removed and re-installed without using screws or disassembling the portable computer in any way. You can “pop out” the old battery and “pop in” the new one by using a slider button on the bottom (or underside) of the computer.
The memory, hard drive, and processor are usually located inside the notebook, and accessing them will require some disassembly or the removal of screws. Memory for portable computers is usually located under the keyboard. Therefore, the keyboard must be removed to replace the memory. The processor is accessed in a similar manner. The hard drive is usually attached with screws to the bottom of the computer’s case.
Objective:
A user is considering purchasing a printer capable of 1,200 dpi. What does this indicate?
A) Print speed
B) Power capability
C) Print resolution
D) Communication speed
Hardware
C) Print resolution
You are repairing a computer that contains two processor cores in a single processor package. Which processor technology provides this?
A) i5 technology
B) Hyper-Threading technology
C) Dual-core technology
D) CPU throttle technology
E) MMX technology
Hardware
C) Dual-core technology
Dual-core technology contains two processor cores in a single processor package and provides almost of all the advantages of a multi-processor computer. Dual-core technology was introduced by both AMD and Intel in 2005. Dual-core processors are 32-bit processors that can run in 64-bit mode. A single-core processor contains a single processor core. A CPU chip that has an x86 architecture refers to a 32-bit CPU, whereas an x64 architecture refers to a 64-bit CPU. The biggest difference in these two types of CPUs is the amount of RAM they can access. The 32-bit CPU has a limited amount of maximum physical memory capped at 4 GBs where the 64-bit CPU can handle 8-32 GBs of memory.
Another element of CPU architecture that you will need to be familiar with for the A+ exam is Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) architecture. ARM is a family of Reduced Instruction Set Computer (RISC) architectures for computer processors. ARM processors are designed to be low cost, use minimal power, and generate less heat, making them highly desirable for mobile devices, such as smartphones and laptops, and for other embedded systems.
The dual-core technology is different from Hyper-Threading (HT) technology because HT technology does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package. The HT technology allows a single processor to handle two independent sets of instructions at the same time. HT technology converts a single physical processor into two virtual processors. CPU throttling is a feature that protects a CPU from heat damage. When a CPU is not cooled properly and the temperature of the CPU becomes very high, the CPU throttle technology slows down the clock rate on the CPU to prevent further overheating and damage. The CPU throttling technology also causes the system to operate at a lower speed. For example, if the actual speed of the CPU is 1 GHz, after throttling down the clock rate, the CPU might show only 500 MHz. CPU throttling does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package.
MMX technology was introduced in the fifth-generation Pentium processors to improve video compression/decompression, image manipulation, encryption, and I/O processing. MMX technology does not contain two processor cores in a single processor package.
Quad-core technology resembles dual-core technology, except quad-core technology has four integrated processing units instead of two. Multi-core technology is similar to quad-core and dual-core, but offers a varying number of cores. All of these technologies are designed for multithreaded applications. The newer quad core CPUs, i7 and i9, greatly surpass the on-screen delivery methods of the previous dual-core technology and are preferred for gaming computers. The reason a quad core and above is faster than a dual core is due to its ability to use a single CPU out of the four cores available. The registers inside the CPU are quickly and constantly exchanging data with the address bus and L2 cache. Business users and high-end power users performing multiple tasks like video editing will want to purchase a multi-core processor with a fast clock speed that supports multi- or hyper-threading. The bottom line is you should always encourage users to put more money in their CPU, which is harder to replace down the road.
You have been hired as an IT technician. You have been given a laptop computer that has the following video ports:
You need to identify the ports shown. Match each video port on the left with the appropriate exhibit name on the right.
Hardware
The exhibits should be matched up as follows:
Exhibit A – VGA port
Exhibit B – HDMI port
Exhibit C – S-Video port
Exhibit D – DVI port
Match the connectors on the left to the cable types on the right.
SC
BNC
RJ-45
Hardware
BNC – coaxial cable
SC – fiber optic cable
RJ-45 – twisted-pair cable
Coaxial cable can also use an F connector. Fiber-optic cable can also use an ST or LC connector. Twisted-pair cable can also use an RJ-11 connector. For twisted-pair cable, an RJ-11 connector is used in telephone deployments, and an RJ-45 connector is used in network deployments.
You have several different RAM modules that you can use in a new computer. You need to ensure that the fastest memory is used. Which speed denotes the fastest memory?
A) 8 ns
B) 10 ns
C) 60 ns
D) 7 ns
Hardware
D) 7 ns
Memory access speed is sometimes expressed in terms of access time. Access time measures, in nanoseconds (ns), the amount of time from when the memory module receives a data request to the time when that data becomes available. The smaller the number, the less time it takes to access data in the memory.
You are using a color inkjet printer. You print an image containing multiple colors. However, colors in the printed document are not the same as those displayed on the monitor. You want to ensure that printed documents contain the same colors as displayed on your monitor. What should you do?
A) Install a new color cartridge in the printer.
B) Calibrate the printer.
C) Remove the color cartridge of the printer, shake it, and replace in the printer.
D) Change the screen resolution of your computer to 800 × 600 pixels.
Hardware
B) Calibrate the printer.
You should calibrate the printer to ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. When colors of an image are different on your monitor than the printed output of the image, the first step is to calibrate your monitor. The next step is to calibrate your printer, which can be done by using the printer software. For an inkjet printer, you should also perform the following routine maintenance: clean the print heads, replace the cartridges, and clear paper jams.
Your company is implementing a new application that will be deployed on mobile devices. Authentication within the application includes the client authenticating with the server and the server authenticating with the client. What type of authentication is this?
A) single sign-on
B) multifactor authentication
C) mutual authentication
D) biometric authentication
Mobile Devices
C) mutual authentication
Authentication where the client authenticates the server and server authenticates the client is known as mutual authentication. Most authentication relies on the client authentication but does not include server authentication.
Multifactor authentication requires the user to provide two pieces of information from what they know (username/password), what a user has (a security token or badge), who the user is (biometrics), or where the user is (location). It takes at least one factor from two of those categories to be multifactor authentication. Two factors from within the same category, such as username and password, are considered single factor authentication.
Single sign-on allows a user to use a single login and authentication to access multiple systems and applications.
Biometric authentication requires some type of biological identification, such as fingerprints, retinal scans, iris scan, or voiceprints.
Both Android and iOS devices support mutual authentication for multiple services, typically using SSL. One of the challenges of using this authentication for mobile devices is their relative lack of processing power when compared with desktop and laptop systems.
You are connecting a video display wall that will use two 4K monitors. Which would be the best type of cable to transfer the video signal from the Windows 10 desktop source to the monitors?
A) Thunderbolt
B) Serial
C) Lightning
D) USB
Hardware
A) Thunderbolt
Thunderbolt-3 cables can provide the bandwidth to support 4K monitors, up to 40 Gbps. Thunderbolt-3 includes a USB-C connection. Including this connection allows the cable to be used with other USB-C compatible devices. Thunderbolt also allows “daisy-chaining” devices, making it an ideal choice for video display walls that use multiple monitors. Although Thunderbolt cables were developed by Apple, many Windows computers have Thunderbolt-compatible ports.
The Lightning cable replaced Apple’s 30-pin charging cable in 2012. It is used to recharge iPhones beginning with the iPhone 5, and is still used with the latest generation of iPhone devices. The cable has the charging connector on one end, and a standard USB-A connector on the opposite end. The USB connector provides the associated device the flexibility to connect with anything that has a USB port. Lighting cables transfer at USB 3.0 speeds of 5 Gbps and feature an 8-pin connector that can be inserted in either direction (meaning there is no top or bottom to this connector). Lightning cables are proprietary to Apple devices.
Universal Serial Bus (USB) cables were introduced in the late 1990s as replacements for parallel and serial connections. USB has gone through several evolutions, the most recent version being USB 3.1/USB-C. Each new version has provided improvements in data transfer speeds.
The USB types and their associated transfer rates are as follows:
USB 1.0 – 1.5 megabits per second (Mbps)
USB 1.1 – 12 Mbps
USB 2.0 – 480 Mbps
USB 3.0 – 5 gigabits per second (Gbps)
USB 3.1 – 10 Gbps
Susan has just been hired as your new tech support. You are explaining different RAM types to her. Which random access memory (RAM) technology would you tell him fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate?
A) DDR2 SDRAM
B) SGRAM
C) DDR3 SDRAM
D) SDRAM
Hardware
A) DDR2 SDRAM
DDR2 SDRAM uses differential pairs of signal wires to allow faster signaling without noise and interference problems to achieve higher throughput. DDR2 SDRAM uses 1.8 V to operate and fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle instead of 2 bits as with DDR SDRAM. DDR2 chips typically use Fine Pitch Ball Grid Array (FBGA) packaging rather than the Thin Small Outline Package (TSOP) chip packaging used by most DDR and conventional SDRAM chips.
The Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is a type of DRAM that is designed to run in synchronization with the memory bus. A high-speed clocked interface is used by SDRAM to deliver information in very high-speed bursts. SDRAM is used primarily in older AGP 2x/4x low-end video cards and chipsets. SDRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate.
The Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is similar to SDRAM in its capability to be synchronized with high-speed buses up to 200 MHz. Unlike SDRAM, SGRAM includes circuitry to perform block writes to increase the speed of graphics fill or 3D Z-buffer operations. SGRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate.
The Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is a RAM standard created by JEDEC. DDR SDRAM is the most common video RAM technology found on recent video cards. DDR SDRAM is designed to transfer data at speeds twice that of conventional SDRAM by transferring 2 bits of data per clock cycle, once at the falling edge and once at the rising edge of the cycle. DDR uses 2.5 V to operate.
DDR3 SDRAM is faster than DDR2. It has the ability to transfer data at eight times the speed of its memory cells, which in essence allows for faster bus speeds and peak throughput. It comes in 512-MB to 8-GB sticks and enables a maximum memory module of 16 GB using 1.5 volts. DIMMs are 240-pin size, which is the same as DDR2, but they are electronically incompatible with DDR2 because of the key notch location.
DDR4 SDRAM increases latency and speed for quicker transfers, but it only provides a 2% performance increase over DDR3. The most recent edition to release is DDR5. DDR5 addressed many of the issues found with DDR4 by reducing power consumption while still managing to increase bandwidth with up to a possible 4.8 gigabits per second.
When installing all types of DDR SDRAM, you need to ensure that the memory is installed in matching pairs in marked matching slots.
After performing several upgrades on a computer, the user reports that he is having trouble with an overheating problem. You want to make recommendations to help prevent the computer from overheating during use. What should you recommend?
A) Apply a higher voltage to the cooling fans.
B) Use an installed video card rather than a built-in video chip on the system board.
C) Use a blank-screen screen saver.
D) Keep the computer cover closed and secured.
Hardware
D) Keep the computer cover closed and secured.
Keeping the computer cover closed and secured helps prevent a computer from overheating because the closed case maintains the desired airflow cooling circulation pattern through the computer. The computer case, or enclosure, is the box that contains the components of a computer. The case provides a chassis to which components are attached, an electrical ground through the power supply’s power cable, and a cover that isolates the inside components from the outside world.
Heat is produced by all devices and components that use electricity, and nondissipated heat often leads to either temporary or permanent component failure. To dissipate the heat, computers are equipped with one or more cooling fans. The fans provide a convection current of air through vents in the case. Typically, cool air enters the front of the case, flows across the system board and expansion cards and through the power supply, and then is discharged out the rear of the case. The power supply fan provides the motive force for this process, and sometimes an additional intake fan is provided at the inlet vent.
In a well-designed system, the air stream establishes a circulation pattern that provides optimal cooling. A computer should also have slot covers in place for unused expansion slots. Heat production can be decreased by enabling reduced power modes when the computer is idle for extended periods, and heat dissipation can be increased by adding additional fans within the case.
The use of a screen saver will affect only the monitor and not the computer itself. The voltage applied to cooling fans is not a user-adjustable variable. Every added device will increase the amount of heat generated within the case, so installing and using a video card will not help prevent overheating.
You have a network that uses single-mode fiber optic cable. What is the transmission distance supported by this network?
A) Approximately 20 miles
B) Approximately 3,000 feet
C) Approximately 50 feet
D) Approximately 74 miles
Hardware
A) Approximately 20 miles
You work in a customer call center. Martin is on the phone asking about the difference between solid-state drives (SSDs), hybrids, and magnetic hard drives for his laptop. He is only going to be web surfing, emailing, and creating documents. Which hard drive would provide the best performance and reliability?
A) Hybrid
B) Magnetic hard drive
C) eSata external drive
D) Solid-state drive (SSD)
Mobile Devices
D) Solid-state drive (SSD)
A solid-state drive (SSD) is the best option for this scenario. These drives are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives because they do not use a read/write assembly, they do not have any moving parts, and they are resistant to shock. When in operation, SSDs are silent. Solid-state drives are faster, more reliable, and require less power than magnetic drives. However, SSDs have limited storage space compared with traditional hard drives.
There are hybrid and eMMC versions of SSDs that work mainly in portables. They are used for testing purposes when troubleshooting hard drive failures due to their SATA port compatibility. Hybrid drives are a combination of a hard drive with some moving parts and a true SSD, which is basically flash memory. The data is stored differently but serves the same purpose by giving users a performance like an SSD would provide. A hybrid would not be the solution here because an SSD would provide better performance and reliability.
Magnetic hard drives are very affordable but crash more easily than solid-state drives due to the way they are manufactured. For years, they were extremely popular and reliable, unless they were damaged. Then, the only way they could be repaired was to format (completely erase the data) and repartition them. The reason they are so fragile is because they have read/write heads that move across magnetic platters. They are easy to scratch and break.
eSata drives are SSDs that have to be connected externally. They are great for backing up and storing data off site, but they are not used for internal storage. They also do not perform as efficiently as internal SSDs.
Data migration is a critical step in the process of replacing any hard drive. Data migration is the process of selecting, preparing, extracting, and transferring data from one storage device to another. The two goals of data migration are to ensure that no data is lost or left behind, and that no unauthorized parties can access the data during the transfer. Third-party software programs are available to ensure safe and secure migration.
Laptops use either 1.8-inch or 2.5-inch hard drives. The 2.5-inch drives are more popular and less costly. The 1.8-inch drives weigh less and are more power efficient. In most cases, the 2.5-inch drives offer better performance because they have larger caches and higher rotation speeds. The 1.8-inch drives are most often use in ultra-portable laptops, iPads, and other mobile devices, while the 2.5-inch drives are used in traditional laptops. To replace a hard drive in a laptop or mobile device, consult the vendor documentation regarding the location of the drive. In most cases, you either need to remove the bottom or the back of the case or keyboard. You also may need to install optical drives in a mobile device. In most cases, this will involve removing the old one and replacing it with the new one. To remove the old optical drive, you usually have to remove it via the bottom of the case. Some mobile devices may have a smart card reader. In most cases, these are simply attached to an external port on the mobile device. However, if the smart card reader is integrated into the device, you will need to consult the laptop or mobile device’s manufacturer documentation to determine how best to remove the smart card reader.
An instructor is describing a component that is always located on the CPU and accelerates the processing of instructions. Which component is being discussed?
A) The address bus
B) The heat sink
C) The L2 cache
D) The L1 cache
Hardware
D) The L1 cache
The central processing unit (CPU) uses cache memory to accelerate the processing of instructions and data. CPUs have contained cache memory as part of the chip architecture since the introduction of the 486; this cache memory is known as Level 1 (L1) cache, or internal cache. The amount of L1 cache is fixed because it is located on the processor itself. The L1 cache operates at the same speed as the processor. Some processors have two L1 caches; one cache stores instructions, and the other cache stores data.
A secondary cache, or Level 2 (L2) cache, is also included on most computers. The L2 cache is frequently located on the motherboard, although it can be adjacent to or included on the CPU as part of the chip package. When the L2 cache is on the motherboard, its size can often be increased. The L2 cache can be enabled or disabled from within the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) setup program. Both the L1 cache and the L2 cache use static random access memory (SRAM), which can operate at faster clock speeds than other types of RAM. The term cache refers to the use of memory as a temporary storage site for instructions or data that the CPU can access immediately. The term buffer is also used to describe temporary data storage. Without a cache to store information, the CPU might have to wait through one or more clock cycles for the information to be provided by the computer’s dynamic random-access memory (DRAM).
A heat sink is mounted on a CPU to help cool the chip. Without a heat sink, the CPU is subject to overheating and failure. However, the heat sink does not take part in the processing of data. Thermal grease, or thermal compound, should be applied to the heat sink before mounting it on the CPU. The thermal grease acts as a conductor between the CPU and heat sink to ensure that temperature passes from the CPU to the heat sink. If a CPU malfunctions due to overheating, you should ensure that the thermal compound and heat sink have been applied to the CPU. A CPU is possibly overheating if the computer shuts down a few minutes after starting.
The address bus provides a conduit through which the CPU communicates with the DRAM. The address bus provides a parallel connection to the memory locations, and a wide bus allows faster communication than a narrow bus. However, the bus does not accelerate calculations made by the CPU.
You work for your company’s IT help desk. A customer named Sam asks you how to get his iPhone to wirelessly play louder. He also indicates that sometimes, he wants to play his iPhone through his laptop’s speakers. Which two options should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A) A USB-to-Bluetooth dongle
B) A USB-to-Wi-Fi dongle
C) A USB C cable
D) Bluetooth speakers
E) A wired speaker with a USB cable
Mobile Devices
A) A USB-to-Bluetooth dongle
D) Bluetooth speakers
You should recommend that he purchase a USB-to-Bluetooth dongle or Bluetooth speakers. The USB-to-Bluetooth dongle would insert into a USB port in the laptop and give it a Bluetooth connection through which the iPhone can connect. The Bluetooth speakers could pair directly to his iPhone to provide enhanced sound. Bluetooth speakers can currently be paired to only one device, and they must stay within range of the paired iPhone or iPad to operate.
Wired speakers will work, but do not provide a wireless connection. USB-to-Wi-Fi dongles allow devices to connect to wireless networks. A USB C cable would not provide a wireless connection.
If you have a Bluetooth-enabled wireless adapter in your computer, you can pair it with an iPhone without a USB dongle. To connect (pair) a Bluetooth device with a mobile device (such as an Android or iPhone) or a Bluetooth-enabled computer, follow these steps:
Enable (turn on) Bluetooth services in the mobile device settings or the computer’s system settings.
Power on the Bluetooth device and hold down the connection button until it blinks.
Follow the dialog on the mobile device or computer to pair (link) with the Bluetooth device. If necessary, enter a pairing PIN to verify you are linking a known device.
To unpair, have the mobile device or computer “forget” the connection in the Bluetooth settings.
After successful pairing, the Bluetooth connection should be remembered in the device settings and can be toggled on or off. To pair a mobile phone with a car via Bluetooth, follow the instructions on the car’s info panel and enter a PIN on the mobile phone to verify the connection.
You are teaching a class on computer hardware to new IT technicians. You are discussing the component on an Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX) motherboard that supports communication between the central processing unit (CPU) and random access memory (RAM). Which component provides this functionality?
A) Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface
B) Northbridge chip
C) Firmware
D) Southbridge chip
Hardware
B) Northbridge chip
The Northbridge chip (also referred to as the north bridge) supports communication between the RAM and the CPU. It also supports the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) bus, the Level2 cache, and the Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) port. It provides communication to higher speed devices than the south bridge chip.
The Southbridge chip (also referred to as the south bridge) supports slower devices, such as expansion slots, Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) drives, Parallel ATA drives, and USB ports. It handles all input/output (I/O) functions.
The ATA interface is used to connect storage devices to the motherboard, such as CD-ROM drives and hard disks.
Firmware is a software program that stores a set of programming instructions in read-only memory to control the desired device functionality.
You are trying to help your customer connect a Universal Serial Bus (USB) 3.0 printer to her laptop and desktop computer. The laptop computer has only USB 1.1 ports and PCIe slots available. What would be the most logical and affordable option to recommend to her?
A) Purchase a newer laptop with USB 2.0 ports.
B) Replace all USB 1.1 ports with USB 3.0 hubs.
C) Purchase another printer that supports USB 2.0.
D) Purchase another printer that supports USB 1.1.
E) Install a USB 3.0 card in the PCIe slot
Hardware
E) Install a USB 3.0 card in the PCIe slot
You can purchase an inexpensive USB 3.0 PCIe card and install it into the PCI Express slot. Newer-model laptops will usually have two to four port USB 3.0 Express Card Adapter cards that can easily plug into the PCIe slot located on the side of the laptop. To connect a USB printer to a computer or laptop, you will need to install the USB A (female) type connector into the computer port and the USB B (male) type connector or side into the printer or peripheral itself.
A USB C (male) type connector has a reversible/symmetrical design and can be plugged into any USB C device using either end. USB C is compatible with 1.1 to 3.1 and can be used with the micro B USB cables as well.
Both Type A and Type B USB ports have a micro and mini version. Micro A USB is smaller than mini A USB, and micro B USB is smaller than mini B USB.
The USB 1.1 standard allows a maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps. The USB 2.0 standard supports data transfers of up to 480 Mbps. All USB cables have two wires that carry data and two wires that supply low-voltage power. USB 3.0, the newest USB standard, supports data transfers of up to 5 Gbps. The maximum cable length for USB 1.1 and USB 2.0 is 5 meters. While the USB 3.0 standard does not define a cable maximum, you should limit your cable length because the signal degrades over the cable media due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
You should not purchase a newer laptop with USB 2.0 ports, purchase another printer, or replace all USB 1.1 ports with USB 3.0 hubs. The most affordable option is to purchase an adapter card. Also, depending on the manufacturer, you may not be able to replace the ports on the laptop without replacing other hardware, such as the motherboard.
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394a, which is also known as FireWire400, supports 400 Mbps transfer rates in the IEEE 1394 standard and up to 800 Mbps in the IEEE 1394b standard. IEEE 1394b is often referred to as FireWire800. A FireWire device can either use a hub or be daisy-chained to the connector. FireWire supports a maximum of 63 devices. Each cable in a FireWire400 daisy chain has a maximum length of 4.5 meters.
An instructor is explaining a technology that allows a central processing unit (CPU) to execute two separate instructions concurrently. Which technology provides this functionality?
A) Hyper-threading
B) Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)
C) Hyper-V
D) Network Access Protection (NAP)
Hardware
A) Hyper-threading
Hyper-Threading (HT) technology allows a CPU to execute multiple instructions at the same time. This option is enabled by default. You can disable or enable Hyper-threading from the system basic input/output system (BIOS) setup program.
Network Access Protection (NAP) ensures that computers on a network comply with system health requirements for access and communication, such as being updated with the latest antivirus definitions. NAP is based on policies configured on a Windows Server computer.
Hyper-V is a hardware virtualization feature of Windows operating systems. It provides server virtualization, allowing you to configure virtual machines (VMs). It also allows you to run non-Windows and legacy Windows software and applications.
Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a computer bus primarily designed for the transfer of data between a computer and mass storage devices.
You have a desktop computer that supports both IEEE 1394 and USB 2.0. You are purchasing some devices that will connect to these ports. Which characteristic distinguishes the two ports?
A) USB supports more devices on a single bus.
B) Only USB supports hot swapping.
C) IEEE 1394 supports more devices on a single bus.
D) Only IEEE 1394 supports hot swapping.
Hardware
A) USB supports more devices on a single bus.
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) 2.0 standard supports up to 127 devices on a single bus, whereas the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 standard supports up to 63 devices on a single bus. The USB 2.0 standard allows data transfer rates of up to 480 megabits per second (Mbps) and the IEEE 1394 standard allows data transfer rates of 400 Mbps. A newer version of this standard, known as IEEE 1394b, allows data transfer rates of 800 Mbps. For comparison, a standard RS-232C serial interface, such as would be used by a dial-up modem, supports a maximum data transfer rates of only 115 kilobits per second (Kbps).
The IEEE 1394 and USB standards provide support for hot swapping, which allows users to add and remove devices, and use newly attached devices immediately without needing to restart their computers. Plug and Play (PnP) operating systems can interact with both buses. When a device is attached to a USB or IEEE 1394 bus, a PnP operating system should recognize the hot-swappable device and make it available immediately. If the device is new, the operating system will automatically attempt to install a driver without user intervention; if no driver is found, the user will be prompted for a driver file location.
Apple refers to IEEE 1394 as FireWire.
If you were explaining to your company’s IT personnel the difference between their old hard drive technology and newer solid state drives, which statement would be FALSE?
A) They are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives.
B) They do not require an external power source.
C) They use a read/write assembly.
D) They are silent when in operation.
Hardware
C) They use a read/write assembly.
Solid state drives or SSD do NOT use a read/write assembly. A solid state drive does not have any moving parts. They are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives because they do not have any moving parts and are resistant to shock. When in operation, solid state drives are silent. Solid state drives are faster, more reliable, and require less power than magnetic drives.
Solid state drives do NOT require an external power source. They pull electrical current for operation from the USB drive. Serial ATA (SATA) solid state drives do require electricity by plugging into the power supply.
Flash drives are solid state drives. IDE hard drives, CD-ROM drives, DVD drives, and tape drives are all considered magnetic media. For some time now, tape drives have been the primary means of offsite storage of data backups. More companies are moving toward optical media and drives for backup storage. There are hybrid and embedded MultiMediaCard (eMMC) versions of solid state drives (SSDs) that work mainly in portable devices, but are also used to troubleshoot hard drive failures due to their SATA port compatibility. Hybrid drives are a combination of a hard drive with some moving parts and a true SSD, which is basically flash memory. The data is stored differently, but serves the same purpose by giving users a performance like an SSD. SSD cards are preferred over eMMC cards.
Which type of communication is an HDMI port and cable designed to transmit?
A) Data only
B) Audio only
C) Both video and audio
D) Video only
Hardware
C) Both video and audio
Identify the Northbridge chip on the motherboard by clicking the appropriate area.
Hardware
In the exhibit given, the Northbridge chip is located between the PCI and PCI-E expansion slots and the CPU socket.
You are creating a crossover cable. You know that each end of the crossover cable must be configured differently. Which pins contain the Blue wire?
A) Pin 6/Pin 2
B) Pin 4/Pin 4
C) Pin 3/Pin 1
D) Pin 5/Pin 5
Hardware
B) Pin 4/Pin 4
In a crossover cable, the Blue wire should be in Pin 4 at both ends of the cable. Basically, a crossover cable is wired for the 568A specification at one end and the 568B specification at the other end.
The wiring scheme for a crossover cable is shown here:
Pin 1 (End 1) – Orange/White Pin 1 (End 2) – Green/White
Pin 2 (End 1) – Orange Pin 2 (End 2) – Green
Pin 3 (End 1) – Green/White Pin 3 (End 2) – Orange/White
Pin 4 (End 1) – Blue Pin 4 (End 2) – Blue
Pin 5 (End 1) – Blue/White Pin 5 (End 2) – Blue/White
Pin 6 (End 1) – Green Pin 6 (End 2) – Orange
Pin 7 (End 1) – Brown/White Pin 7 (End 2) – Brown/White
Pin 8 (End 1) – Brown Pin 8 (End 2) – Brown
Communication over a crossover cable only occurs over Pin 1, 2, 3, and 6. A crossover cable is an OSI Physical layer (Layer 1) device.
A T1 crossover cable is a special crossover cable that is used to connect a PBX to another PBX. To create a T1 crossover cable, the ends should be configured in the following manner:
Pin 1 (End 1) – Orange/White Pin 1 (End 2) – Blue
Pin 2 (End 1) – Orange Pin 2 (End 2) – Blue/White
Pin 3 (End 1) – Green/White Pin 3 (End 2) – Green/White
Pin 4 (End 1) – Blue Pin 4 (End 2) – Orange/White
Pin 5 (End 1) – Blue/White Pin 5 (End 2) – Orange
Pin 6 (End 1) – Green Pin 6 (End 2) – Green
Pin 7 (End 1) – Brown/White Pin 7 (End 2) – Brown/White
Pin 8 (End 1) – Brown Pin 8 (End 2) – Brown
A customer brings you a computer that he wants to upgrade to SATA drives. Currently, all the drives in the system are EIDE drives. What should you do first?
A) Install the new SATA drive, and use jumpers on the system board to configure the new disk as a master.
B) Make sure that the motherboard will support SATA drives.
C) Disable the floppy drive, remove it, and install a second SATA drive in that bay.
D) Install an SSD drive and configure it manually.
Hardware
B) Make sure that the motherboard will support SATA drives.
Most motherboards come with two to six internal SATA ports, and occasionally, an external SATA (eSATA) port. However, older motherboards may not have a SATA port, so your first step would be to check whether SATA ports are available on the motherboard. If a SATA port is available, the next step would be to make sure the data on the EIDE drives is backed up and that empty bays are available. Finally, you would remove the old drive, install the new drives, and restore the backups on the new SATA drives. SATA drives are much faster than EIDE drives and have no moving parts, so that makes it a logical choice for installing locally. You should not first install the new SATA drive and use jumpers on the system board to configure the new disk as a master. You should first check that the motherboard has SATA ports available. You can install an eSATA card in your computer to expand the functionality to support eSATA.
While installing an SSD drive and configuring it manually sounds like the logical choice, it’s not the first step. You should always check the motherboard manual and the physical ports available to see if this would even work. Disabling the floppy drive and installing a second SATA drive in that bay is okay for experts but not beginners. It’s not highly recommended because you need to have a lot of experience in BIOS and make sure that your power supply has SATA plugs available. In addition, you would still need to make sure that the motherboard supports SATA.
You are responsible for performing all routine maintenance on your company’s laser printers. Which of the following maintenance tasks would result in the need to reset the page count?
A) Calibrating the printer
B) Cleaning the printer
C) Installing the maintenance kit
D) Replacing the toner
Hardware
A) Calibrating the printer
You should only reset the page count when you install the maintenance kit. The maintenance kit may include a new fuser as well as new rollers and pads. Maintenance kits need to be installed when a printer reaches a certain print threshold number. Resetting the count will ensure that you will be reminded after a certain number of pages have been printed.
None of the other routine maintenance tasks will require that you reset the page count. Printer toner is a hazardous product. When you replace the toner, make sure to follow the manufacturer’s suggestions for disposal. Disposal may often involve shipping the used toner cartridge back to the manufacturer.
Calibrating a printer ensures that text is aligned properly and colors are accurate. Cleaning the printer involves removing all dust and debris from the printer. Any routine maintenance should be performed only when the printer has had time to cool because some parts can become extremely hot. In addition, make sure the printer is totally disconnected from power.
Examine the graphic:
Which device uses the connector shown in this exhibit?
A) Printer
B) Hard drive
C) Mouse
D) Monitor
Hardware
D) Monitor
The connector shown in the exhibit is used by a monitor or video device. The pictured connector is called a Digital Visual Interface (DVI)-D dual-link connector and is used by many LCD flat-panel monitors.
None of the other listed devices uses this connector.
After contacting a mobile device provider with an issue, the provider asks you to provide them with the IMEI and IMSI. What is the difference between IMEI and IMSI?
A) IMEI is the serial number for the mobile device, and IMSI is the number assigned to the SIM card.
B) IMEI is an iPhone serial number, and IMSI is an Android serial number.
C) IMEI is the serial number for the SIM card, and IMSI is the number assigned to the phone.
D) The phone number is a component of IMEI, but not a component of IMSI.
Mobile Devices
A) IMEI is the serial number for the mobile device, and IMSI is the number assigned to the SIM card.
International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is the serial number for the mobile device, and International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI) is the number assigned to the SIM card. IMEI stands for and is a unique serial number assigned to the phone at the time of manufacture. The IMSI contains a mobile country code, a mobile network code, and a Mobile Subscriber Identification Number (commonly referred to as a phone number). If you change the SIM card, you can get a new phone number, but the IMEI will remain the same.
IMEI is a 19-digit code assigned to the mobile device. It has the following components:
Type Approval Code (TAC) – a centrally assigned six-digit number.
Final Assembly Code (FAC) – a six-digit number assigned by the manufacturer.
Serial Number (SNR) – a six-digit sequential number assigned by the manufacturer as it comes off the assembly line.
Spare (SP) – a one-digit number for future use.
IMSI is a 15-digit number (maximum) comprised of the following:
Mobile Country Code (MCC) – a three-digit standardized number that indicates the country.
Mobile Network Code (MNC) – a two-digit number that identifies the mobile network (carrier) within the MCC.
Mobile Subscriber Identification Number (MSIN) – This is a maximum ten-digit number that identifies the subscriber’s telephone number in the home mobile network. As an example, if we commonly refer to a cell phone number as 2051234567, we are actually referring to the MSIN.
Androids and iPhones do not use different terms to describe their device serial numbers.
You have been asked to upgrade the hard drives in several legacy computers. Management wants you to upgrade them to the hard drive specification that has the fastest theoretical bus speed. Of the options given, which hard drive specification should you implement?
A) SATA 3
B) SATA 2
C) IEEE 1394 FireWire
D) SATA 1
Hardware
A) SATA 3
Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) 3 is capable of approximately 6.0 gigabits per second. SATA 2 is capable of approximately 300 megabytes per second (MBps).
SATA 1 is capable of approximately 150 MBps. The eSATA specification is for external SATA hard drives and provides higher data transfer rates than FireWire or USB. SATA devices will not connect to IDE/ATA ports. Most SATA devices require the installation of third-party drivers. During operating system installation, you need to press the F6 key to install the third-party drivers. Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment (PATA) 133 is capable of approximately 133 MBps. PATA 100 is capable of approximately 100 MBps. PATA drives are able to connect to IDE/ATA ports. SATA drives cannot share the same physical interface cable, while PATA can.
Another drive specification, Fibre Channel-Arbitrated Loop (FC-AL), is a hard drive specification that attaches via a dedicated fibre channel network. The different FC-AL specifications are as follows:
FC-AL 1 GB – 100 MBps
FC-AL 2 GB – 200 MBps
FC-AL 4 GB – 400 MBps
FC-AL 8 GB – 800 MBps
Which cellular technology has data transmission rates of up to 20 Gbps?
A) 4G
B) 3G
C) LTE
D) 5G
Mobile Devices
D) 5G
5G is the latest technology used in cellular networks. 5G offers faster data transfer speeds, decreased latency, and more device connections, such as Internet of Things devices. IoT devices include smart home devices, sensors, and wearable technology, among others. In theory, 5G can transmit at speeds up to 20 Gbps.
3G uses technologies such as EVDO, HSPA and UMTS. 3G was an improvement over 2G, which was the first digital cellular medium. Transmission speeds were typically under 3 Mbps for 3G. Most wireless networks plan to discontinue 3G support in 2022.
4G is often used synonymously with LTE, but they are different technologies. 4G is the communication standard that specifies a minimum transmission speed of 100 Mbps, whereas LTE is the technology used to achieve 4G speeds.
As an IT technician, you are responsible for maintaining your company’s laser printers. Recently, you read that laser printers have a cleaning phase. Another IT technician explains that you do not need to clean a laser printer because of this phase. However, you do not agree. What actually occurs during this phase?
A) The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum.
B) The laser writes an image on the imaging drum.
C) The transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper.
D) The primary corona wire applies a uniform charge on the imaging drum.
Hardware
A) The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum.
The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor in the cleaning stage of the laser printing process. The following are the seven stages of the laser printing process:
Processing – The computer sends the printed document to the printer spooler. The printer spooler contacts the printer. The printer processes the image.
Charging – The charge corona (also referred to as the primary corona) applies a uniform charge (typically negative) to the imaging drum. This creates a “blank slate” to which the laser will write.
Exposing – The modulated laser beam writes an electrostatic image on the rotating drum. Any areas on the imaging drum that the laser beam touches lose most of their electrostatic charge. This differential in electrostatic charge between the areas of the drum that have been written to and the remainder of the drum allows the image to attract toner in the next phase.
Developing – Toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the imaging drum. The toner cartridge has a metallic roller called a developing cylinder that takes on a charge equal to the imaging drum. The toner sticks to the developing cylinder, and as it rotates toward the paper, a “toner fog” is created as the toner is both attracted to and repelled from the imaging drum. The toner is repelled from areas that were not touched by the laser because they have the same electrostatic charge as the toner, and it is attracted to the areas on the drum that were touched by the laser because of the difference in the electrostatic charges. This creates an image that is ready to be transferred to a piece of paper.
Transferring – The transfer corona charges the paper so that the toner on the imaging drum is attracted to the paper as the drum rotates and the paper and drum come into very close proximity. A corona discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper immediately after the toner transfers from the imaging drum to the paper, preventing the paper from sticking to the drum. Transfer rollers move the paper through the transferring process.
Fusing – The final step permanently bonds the toner to the paper. A fusing roller, heated by a quartz lamp, melts the toner to the paper, and the paper exits the printer.
Cleaning – A rubber cleaning blade removes any toner left on the imaging drum and deposits it into a waste bin, and a discharge lamp neutralizes the charge on the drum.
A user has requested that you order a transfer belt for this department’s printer. Which printer uses this component during the image transfer process?
A) Monochrome dot matrix printer
B) Color inkjet printer
C) Monochrome laser printer
D) Color laser printer
Hardware
D) Color laser printer
A color laser printer uses a transfer belt during the image transfer process. In monochrome printers, the image is transferred directly from the imaging drum to the paper. In color laser printers, the image is transferred to an intermediate component, the transfer belt. The toner cartridges are mounted on a carousel, which rotates and prints a single color image onto the transfer belt. This process is repeated for each of the four colors, building the complete image on the transfer belt. The complete image is then transferred from the belt to the paper in a single pass.
None of the other printers uses a transfer belt during the image transfer process.
You need to replace a computer’s power supply. When you purchase the new power supply, you notice an 8-pin power connection. For which device type is this connection intended?
A) ATA hard drives
B) CPU connector
C) PCI Express devices
D) SATA hard drives
Hardware
C) PCI Express devices
The 8-pin power connector is used for PCI Express (PCIe) devices. This is an 8-pin 12V power connection. It provides 12 volts. PCIe can also use 6-pin connectors.
CPU connectors do not require a separate power connection. They run off the power supplied to the motherboard.
ATA hard drives use a 4-pin connector that provides 5 or 12 volts. SATA hard drives use a 15-pin connector that provides 3.3, 5, or 12 volts.
Keep in mind that the system fan is incorporated into the power supply in most computers. If the system fan fails, the entire power supply would need to be replaced. If your computer displays a system fan not detected error message, the system fan has been removed from the system or disconnected. In most cases, this error message is related to separate system fans that are not integrated into the power supply. If the fan is failing, the system will overheat, resulting in unexplained computer shutdowns. Proper system airflow is very important when replacing a system fan. Make sure to orient the replacement fan in the same manner as the original fan.
Power supplies have a limited amount of power they can supply to a computer. If you add more devices than the power supply can handle, you will also need to upgrade the power supply. You should try to purchase a power supply that provides for your current and future needs.
You have just purchased a new color laser printer to be used on your 10 Mbps Ethernet network. When the printer arrives, you discover that it does not have an Ethernet connection. The printer has the following built-in connections: Bluetooth 2.1, Infrared, and 802.11g. You need to connect this printer to the network via the print server. Your solution should expend the least amount of additional money while providing the fastest connection as possible. Assuming that all of these connections are available in your office or on the print server, what should you do?
A) Connect the printer to the print server using 802.11g.
B) Purchase a NIC for the printer, and connect the printer to the print server over the network.
C) Connect the printer to the print server using Bluetooth 2.1.
D) Connect the printer to the print server using Infrared.
Hardware
A) Connect the printer to the print server using 802.11g.
You should connect the printer to the print server using 802.11g. This will provide a connection that operates at 54 megabits per second (Mbps). Other wireless network options include 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax.
802.11a operates in the 5 GHz radio spectrum and supports up to 54 Mbps (actual throughput is closer to 22 Mbps).
802.11b operates in the 2.4 GHz radio spectrum and supports up to 11 Mbps.
802.11g operates in the 2.4 GHz radio spectrum and supports up to 54 Mbps.
802.11n operates in the 2.4 or 5 GHz radio spectrum and supports up to 600 Mbps.
802.11ac (WiFi 5) operates in the 5.0 GHz range and supports up to 1.3 Gbps.
802.11ax (WiFi 6) operates in the 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, or 6 GHz radio spectrums, and supports up to 9.6 Gbps (actual throughput is closer to 600 Mbps).
You should not connect the printer to the print server using Bluetooth 2.1. This connection would only operate at 3 Mbps.
You should not connect the printer to the print server using Infrared. Infrared Data Association (IrDA) is a wireless protocol that operates up to 4 Mbps. It requires line-of-sight communications and will only operate if the two devices are within 1 meter of each other.
You should not purchase a NIC for the printer and connect the printer to the print server over the network. This would require an additional amount of money to be spent. Also, the Ethernet network only operates at 10 Mbps, which is much slower than the 802.11g network.
Whenever unboxing and setting up a new printer, you should take proper consideration to ensure the set-up process is both safe and secure. New printers should be placed in secure locations that are accessible but out of the flow of traffic to prevent any damage or misprints. Cables should be placed so they are not a tripping hazard and cannot be accidentally pulled out of ports. Lastly, upon startup, you should check to ensure that the printer has the latest drivers installed to prevent any errors and minimize security risks.
It is important to understand and minimize the security risks that printers can create within a network. Implementing user authentication ensures that only authorized users are able to connect and print to a device. Badging is another authorization method that requires users to scan or swipe a card to gain access to a secure printer room. Administrators can also utilize audit logs to track who was engaging with a printer, what jobs they were printing, and similar details. These logs can help maintain accountability and make it easier to uncover the cause of an error or incident. Secured printers and printer rooms enable users to print confidential documents, such as employee records, giving users assurance that their sensitive data and documents are not exposed during transmission or after printing.
A company representative has just landed a significant order at a trade show. He has all the necessary information on his laptop and needs to transmit it to the home office for processing. However, he calls you on his company-issued Android phone and notifies you that Internet access is down at the trade show. He is on an LTE connection. What should you recommend?
A) Set the phone to Airplane Mode.
B) Pair the phone and laptop via Bluetooth.
C) Connect the laptop to the company network over a VPN.
D) Enable tethering on the phone.
Mobile Devices
B) Pair the phone and laptop via Bluetooth.
You should recommend that he enable tethering on the Android phone. Tethering will allow the laptop to use the Android phone as a mobile hot spot to transmit the order to the home office via the phone’s data connection.
Tethering refers to using the Internet connection on a cell phone on another device, like a laptop or a tablet. This can be accomplished using Bluetooth, USB, or wireless. The phone becomes a “hot spot.” In essence, tethering allows a device to reach the Internet without otherwise having a connection.
Pairing the phone and laptop via Bluetooth will allow the two devices to communicate, but will not allow the laptop to transmit the order to the home office because the laptop has no Internet access.
Setting the phone to Airplane mode will disable the cellular and data connectivity on the phone.
A VPN connection can only be established through an active Internet connection, as provided by a satellite, fiber, cable, DSL, wireless, or cellular connection.
To enable tethering on an Android phone, go to Settings > Connections > Mobile Hotspot and Tethering. (In later Android versions you can swipe down from the top of the screen and choose Mobile Hotspot from the quick panel.) Select the Mobile Hotspot option and create a network name and password. This creates the hotspot and will allow you to tether (attach) another device to that network. This menu also allows you to configure USB tethering and Ethernet tethering, both of which require that adapters be plugged into the phone.
On the device to be tethered, go to the wireless settings, select the network you just created and enter the proper credentials. When connected, you are tethered to the Android device and using its data connection.
To connect your mobile device with a Bluetooth headset or other device, you should first enable Bluetooth on the mobile device on the other device. Both devices must have Bluetooth pairing enabled. This will allow the second device to find the mobile device for pairing, often by bringing up a list of available devices with which to pair. The second device might display a PIN code that you must enter into the mobile device. When you enter the appropriate PIN code, the two devices will pair. At this point, you can test connectivity.
Match the printer maintenance task on the left with the printer where it should be implemented. Each maintenance task will only match to a single printer type, and each printer type will only have a single maintenance task.
Printer Maintenance
Clean heads
Replace toner
Replace ribbon
Clean heating element
Printers
Laser
Inkjet
Thermal
Impact
Hardware
You should match the printer maintenance techniques as follows:
Laser – Replace toner
Inkjet – Clean heads
Thermal – Clean heating element
Impact – Replace ribbon
A laser printer has the following maintenance tasks: replace toner, apply maintenance kit, calibrate, and clean.
An inkjet printer has the following maintenance tasks: clean heads, replace cartridges, calibrate, and clear jams.
A thermal printer has the following maintenance tasks: replace paper, clean heating element, and remove debris.
An impact printer has the following maintenance tasks: replace ribbon, replace print head, and replace paper.
You want to upgrade the memory on a laptop. You first unplug the AC adapter and remove the battery. What should you do next?
A) Remove the memory.
B) Remove the CMOS battery.
C) Disconnect the power supply from the motherboard.
D) Put on an antistatic wrist strap.
Mobile Devices
D) Put on an antistatic wrist strap.
You should put on an antistatic wrist strap after unplugging the AC adapter and removing the battery from the laptop. You should take this precaution while servicing or upgrading a computer system to prevent damage of sensitive computer components. Computer memory is extremely sensitive to static electricity. Therefore, you should always ground yourself before handling and installing the memory, and you can wear an antistatic wrist strap to do so. If you do not have an antistatic wrist strap, you can ground yourself by installing memory on an uncarpeted surface and by touching an unpainted metal part of your laptop.
You should always unplug the AC adapter and remove the battery from the laptop before you begin servicing or upgrading the laptop. This will ensure that the laptop does not receive power during servicing or upgrade and will prevent the laptop components from being damaged.
You should not remove the memory at this point in the process. Computer memory is extremely sensitive to static electricity. Therefore, you should always ground yourself before handling and installing the memory.
You should not remove the CMOS battery. The CMOS battery provides power to the CMOS chip to ensure that the CMOS settings are not lost when the computer is switched off. In this scenario, you want to upgrade memory on a laptop. Therefore, removing the CMOS battery is not required.
You should not disconnect the power supply from the motherboard. Laptops use an AC adapter or a battery as a source of power. Separate power supplies are found in desktop computers. In this scenario, you have already unplugged the AC adapter and removed the battery from the laptop. This will ensure that the laptop does not receive power during the upgrade. When upgrading memory in a laptop, you are usually limited to two memory slots. If you discover that both slots are filled, the only way to upgrade the memory is to completely replace the existing memory.
You are responsible for performing routine maintenance on your company’s laser printers. Which of the following routine maintenance does NOT require that you disconnect the laser printer from its power source?
A) Installing the maintenance kit
B) Calibrating the printer
C) Replacing the toner
D) Cleaning the printer
Hardware
B) Calibrating the printer
You need to configure your Android phone so that you can receive your Yahoo email on the device. What information would you need to provide?
A) device’s IP address, password, IMAP server mail.yahoo.com, SMTP server smtp.mail.yahoo.com
B) email address, password, IMAP server mail.yahoo.com, SMTP server ftp.yahoo.com
C) email address, password, IMAP server mail.yahoo.com, SMTP server smtp.mail.yahoo.com
D) email address, password, IMAP server mail.yahoo.com
Mobile Devices
C) email address, password, IMAP server mail.yahoo.com, SMTP server smtp.mail.yahoo.com
If you need to configure your Android phone so that you can receive your Yahoo email on the device, you would you need to provide an email address and password, set the IMAP server to mail.yahoo.com, and set the SMTP server to smtp.mail.yahoo.com.
The SMTP server information is required, but not the device’s IP address or the SMTP server ftp.yahoo.com. The ftp.yahoo.com server is the address of an FTP server, not an SMTP server.
You need to set up a network that needs to span multiple buildings. For this reason, you want to use the cabling that supports the longest maximum cable length. Which network topology provides this?
A) 100BaseT
B) 10Base2
C) 10BaseF
D) 10Base5
Hardware
C) 10BaseF
Of the choices given, 10BaseF networks, which operate at 10 megabits per second (Mbps), support the longest cable length with a maximum distance of 2,000 meters (m) or 2 kilometers(km). 10BaseF is also known as 10BaseFL; another fiber-optic standard known as 10BaseFP exists, but it never received widespread acceptance. The 100BaseFX standard is identical to 10BaseFL except that the network speed is 100 Mbps rather than 10 Mbps.
Networks configured with a 10Base2 topology support a maximum cable length of 185 meters.
Networks built on a 10Base5 topology support a maximum cable length of 500 meters.
The 10BaseT and 100BaseT topologies support a maximum distance of 100 meters between two devices.
You have just installed and configured an inkjet printer on Beth’s desktop. Which step should you perform first to ensure that the inkjet printer is working properly?
A) Assign print permissions to everyone.
B) Explain the basic printer functionality to Beth.
C) Load the device drivers for the inkjet printer.
D) Assign print permissions to Beth.
E) Print a test page
Hardware
E) Print a test page
The first step toward ensuring that the inkjet printer is working properly is to print a test page. This page typically contains printer-related information, such as the printer’s driver, data format, model, and configuration. To print a test page, you can invoke the printer’s properties page and print the test page. A number of printer manufacturers provide printer management utilities that you can use to configure the printer and print a test page. You typically print a test page after you have configured the printer on a computer. After configuring the printer, you should print a test page. If the test page is printed, you have configured the printer appropriately on a computer. Many printers also have calibration software to ensure that your printer is printing with proper alignment and colors. Printer calibration should occur after changing ink cartridges.
Once the printer is completely configured and tested, you should explain the basic printer functionality to Beth. You do not need to assign print permissions to a user to ensure that the inkjet printer is working properly. The scenario does not suggest that the printer is to be shared by everyone. Therefore, this is not a valid option. You do not need to assign print permissions to Beth to ensure that the inkjet printer is working properly. By default, the printing permissions will be assigned to Beth after the printer has been configured if Beth is logged on when the printer is installed.
You do not need to load the device drivers for the inkjet printer as the first step toward ensuring that the inkjet printer is working properly. The scenario states that the printer is installed and configured on Beth’s desktop. Therefore, the device drivers for the printer are already installed. If Beth’s computer is running Windows 7 or above, and no local printer is readily available, you can print any document virtually by printing to a file, portable document format (PDF), XPS Document Writer, or image. Printing to PDF or by using XPS Document Writer has some limitations.
During class, an instructor shows a picture of a Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket. Which component can you connect using this socket?
A) Central processing unit (CPU)
B) Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)
C) Single in-line memory module (SIMM)
D) Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Hardware
A) Central processing unit (CPU)
A ZIF socket holds a central processing unit (CPU) in place on a system board and connects it to a computer’s expansion bus. The ZIF socket design includes a lever for easy insertion. To install a CPU, users need only open the lever, insert the CPU, and then close the lever to secure the CPU’s connection to a system board. The ZIF interface itself has evolved through several variations, each with different pin layouts. Intel’s 486 CPU chips and early Pentium microprocessors are compatible with ZIF sockets. With a Pentium II processor, Intel changed to a new connection configuration called Slot 1.
Single in-line memory module (SIMM) holds several RAM chips on a circuit board for connection to a computer’s system board.
Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM) is a type of RAM module that is used commonly on computer system boards today.
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM) is a type of read-only memory (ROM) chip whose contents can be erased and reprogrammed.
You are teaching a class on repair and maintenance of laser printers. Which components are parts of a laser printer? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Fuser
B) Main control board
C) Ribbon
D) Platen
Hardware
A) Fuser
B) Main control board
Main control boards (or system boards) and fusers (or fusing assemblies) are both laser printer components. A laser printer also contains an imaging drum, transfer belt, transfer roller, pickup rollers, separate pads, and duplexing assembly.
Most laser printers have a main control board that includes a processor, a basic input/output system (BIOS), random access memory (RAM), and read-only (ROM) modules. The ROM modules contain printer languages and fonts. Sometimes the main control board on a laser printer is referred to as its interface controller or as printer controller circuitry. This board is functionally similar to the system board on a personal computer. Fusers, or fusing assemblies, are laser printer components that use heat and pressure to force toner, which is a fine powder used as ink, onto printer paper.
Polyester resins are responsible for making the toner adhere to paper better. A static charge eliminator strip is used to drain the charge in the paper when printing. The toner cartridge contains a developer that is responsible for carrying the toner that is used by the printing process. The high voltage power supply gives the voltage for the charge and transfer corona assemblies. A fuser can also be referred to as a fuser assembly.
Laser printers do not use ribbons or platens, both of which provide support for impact printers such as dot matrix printers. They use toner, which is a most cost effective printing solution when high numbers of pages need to be printed.
Your company’s mobile sales force is complaining about how slow their laptops are. You are considering replacing the mechanical hard drives in their laptops with solid state drives (SSD). This will provide an increase in performance, but you are concerned about the SSD’s limited storage capacity. What type of SSD should you consider?
A) SATA 2.5 drives
B) NVME drives
C) Hybrid drives
D) M2 drives
Hardware
C) Hybrid drives
You should consider hybrid drives, which have both SSD and mechanical hard drives. Hybrid drives store the operating system, applications, and system files on the SSD side, and use the mechanical hard drive for long-term storage. This type of drive will provide the users with a performance boost while still maintaining the storage capacity of mechanical drives.
SSDs have two sizes or form factors to consider: M.2 and mSATA. The previous standard was the mSATA SSD. A mSATA, or mini-SATA, was a small, thin rectangular SSD card designed for low power consumption, but with a capacity limit of 32 to 64 GBs. The M.2 SSD replaced the mSATA by increasing storage capacity without minimizing performance. These SSDs are a thin, high-performance storage device that are internally mounted onto a motherboard. These storage devices are generally 22mm wide and 60-80 mm long.
M2 drives provide both the speed and storage increase desired, but they require a special slot on the motherboard. If the motherboard does not have the required slot, the M2 drive will not fit.
Non Volatile Memory Express (NVME) is a technology that replaced SCSI and ATA interfaces for Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe)-based SSDs. These PCIe-based SSDs allowed users to plug the SSD into the server’s backplane to integrate it directly on a server’s motherboard to greatly improve data transfer speed and reduce latency. NVME reduces latency increases the number of input/output operations per second and can reduce power consumption. While it offers performance increases over SSDs, it will not meet the capacity requirement.
SATA 2.5 is the most common type of SSD and would most likely fit in the existing laptop slot. You would get the performance increase you need, but you would lose storage capacity.
Beverly has contacted you and stating that her computer will not boot and keeps beeping. Which components must pass a computer’s power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load? (Choose three.)
A) The video card
B) The hard disk drive
C) The network interface card (NIC)
D) The central processing unit (CPU)
E) The memory
F) The keyboard
Hardware
A) The video card
D) The central processing unit (CPU)
E) The Memory
A computer will not load an operating system if it encounters fatal errors during the POST. A central processing unit (CPU), memory, or video card failure during the POST routine will generate a fatal error and halt the startup process. A hard disk drive and a keyboard are both optional devices for a computer. Many server computers do not have a keyboard for security reasons, and most basic input/output system (BIOS) routines allow the POST to bypass a keyboard error.
Although a hard disk failure will prevent the loading of an operating system from that disk, not all computers load the operating system from a hard disk. For example, many computers can load the operating system from a floppy disk, a CD-ROM drive, or a network drive.
Failure of a network interface card (NIC) will prevent the loading of an operating system from a network location, but an operating system can still be loaded from a local device.
The POST of a computer is designed to test the essential components of the system during power on. During the built-in diagnostics performed by the BIOS, the CPU, memory, and video card must function properly. After the POST executes, the boot loader phase occurs. The BIOS contains a setting for the memory (RAM), hard drive, optical drive, and CPU.
You are hired to train a group of new users to become technicians. One of your lessons is on how to construct Cat5 and Cat6 Ethernet cables. To make sure they know the difference between 568A and 568B cables, what are the two most important areas you would focus on during the training?
A) Purchase 568B wiring cables only.
B) A cable with one end wired as 568A and the other end wired as 568B is called a crossover cable, and a cable with both ends wired with the same standard is called a straight-through cable.
C) T568B is called a crossover cable, and T568A is called a straight-through cable.
D) Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable.
Hardware
B) A cable with one end wired as 568A and the other end wired as 568B is called a crossover cable, and a cable with both ends wired with the same standard is called a straight-through cable.
D) Use the correct colour scheme pattern for T568A and T568B cable
You should instruct them on the proper color scheme or order. For T568B, the correct order is: Orange/white orange, Green/white blue, Blue/white green, and Brown/white brown. For T568A, it switches the green, orange, and blue wires with the correct order as follows: Green/white green, Orange/white blue, Blue/white orange, and Brown/white brown.
You should also teach them that a crossover cable has two different ends: one wired as 568A and the other as 568B. A straight-through cable is used for directly connecting cables to a wall jack, which enables that node to communicate with several devices, and both ends would be either 568A or 568B.
Purchasing cable is not an option, as you are hired to teach them to make their own. While it is important that they know how to go about purchasing cable, it is most important that they be able to make it from raw materials. Most Ethernet cables are T568B, but at the time T568A components need to be connected to a T568B component, the crossover cable is recommended. The following exhibit shows the order of the cables for both specifications:
You have determined that several computers on your company’s network need to have the BIOS updated. Which of the following changes to your computer would MOST likely require that you flash a computer’s BIOS afterward?
A) Replacing the system board
B) Upgrading the CPU
C) Changing the boot sequence
D) Adding memory
Hardware
B) Upgrading the CPU
Most modern computers make use of a technology known as flash read-only memory (ROM) or flash basic input/output system (BIOS) that allows code in a computer’s core chips (firmware) to be updated by software that is available through the BIOS manufacturer or system board manufacturer. You may need to flash a computer’s BIOS after you integrate certain types of technological enhancements, such as a central processing unit (CPU) with a new instruction set, into your computer. Before you flash the BIOS, you should back up the BIOS settings on a floppy disk and document the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) configuration settings. This update can also be referred to as a firmware update.
Some devices may use the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, or UEFI, over BIOS. UEFI is often seen as a replacement for the BIOS firmware interface. UEFI has its own host of settings that can be configured, changed, and saved on a backup storage device whenever conducting a firmware update.
A computer’s CMOS settings need to reflect the addition of any new memory, hard disk drives, optical drives, or other components so that components that were previously present can communicate with them. In most modern computers, the CMOS is able to update its random access memory (RAM) setting automatically. However, if you observe a CMOS memory mismatch error at startup immediately after you have added memory, then you should invoke the CMOS setup program manually to record the new total. Flashing a computer’s BIOS is unnecessary in the event of a memory mismatch error.
You should not need to flash a computer’s BIOS after you replace the system board. After replacing a computer’s system board, you should restart the computer and enter the CMOS setup program. If you use an identical replacement system board, then you would normally use the same CMOS settings that you had used before. If the new board is not identical to the old system board, then you may need to enter values for setup variables that were not available in the BIOS settings on the original system board. If you are uncertain about what values to use, you can usually accept the default values for these new variables.
You should also enter the CMOS setup program if you want to change a computer’s boot sequence, which is the order in which a computer will attempt to use drives as boot devices. However, you should not need to flash a computer’s BIOS after you change the boot sequence.
The BIOS can also be used to perform other duties, including the following:
Change boot sequence – If more than one drive is installed in the computer, you can change the boot sequence so that the computer will boot from a different drive. In some cases, this may also require a jumper change on the boot device. You need to research your boot devices to see if this jumper change is necessary.
Enable or disable a device – If the device is disabled in the BIOS, the operating system will not be able to use the device until it is re-enabled in the BIOS. Within BIOS, users can also assign what USBs have permission to connect to a device to prevent unauthorized inputs.
Set the date and time – The battery will store date and time information. The system will default to this time and date at reboot. If the time and date are being reset with each reboot, the CMOS battery could be dead.
Configure clock speeds – Always make sure that the appropriate clock speed is used based on documentation from the vendor.
Enable or disable virtualization technology (VT) – VT is usually found in the Advanced Chipset Setting screen. Users will be unable to install virtual machines is VT is disabled in the BIOS.
Enable or disable BIOS security – This security includes supervisor and user passwords and drive encryption, including TPM encryption services, lo-jack, and secure boot. While these security settings are minimal, they serve as a deterrence. Secure boot is a security standard that was used to establish a trust relationship between BIOS/UEFI and the operating system to help ensure that the operating system remains safe from malware by checking for an embedded signature.
Disable or change an interface configuration – If an interface is disabled in the BIOS, the operating systems will not be able to use the interface until it is re-enabled in the BIOS. You can also often change configuration settings for an interface, such as changing the speed.
You also need to be aware of the monitoring that the BIOS is capable of performing, including the following:
Temperature monitoring
Fan speed
Intrusion detection/notification
Voltage
Clock
Bus speeds
If any of the configured components reach performance thresholds, then the user is notified. Most BIOS programs include built-in diagnostics. The BIOS built-in hardware diagnostics features are useful for collecting information and monitoring the activity of the hardware connected to the motherboard but varies by motherboard model.
You are choosing from among several different laptop components. Which of the following operates at the fastest speed?
A)ExpressCard using a PCIe bus
B)PC card using a 16-bit bus
C)ExpressCard using a USB 2.0 bus
D)PCMCIA card using a 16-bit bus
Hardware
A)ExpressCard using a PCIe bus
An ExpressCard using a PCIe bus will operate at 2.5 Gigabits per second (Gbps). ExpressCard devices come in two types: ExpressCard 34 and ExpressCard 54. These types refer to their sizes. ExpressCard34 cards are 34 mm wide, 75 mm long, and 5 mm thick. ExpressCard 54 cards are 54 mm wide, 75 mm long, and 5 mm thick. They connect using a USB or PCIe port.
A PC card or PCMCIA card using a 16-bit bus will operate at 160 Megabits per second (Mbps). A CardBus PC Card using PCI bus will operate at 1,056 Mbps.
Another device that many laptop users purchase is a USB flash drive. A flash drive allows several gigabytes (GB) of data to be stored on a small solid-state drive. This drive is attached to a computer using a USB port.
Your organization is replacing all of its mobile devices and issuing Windows 10 laptops. The organization wants everyone to use the touchpad as opposed to a mouse. You must provide some training on how to properly use the touchpad. In the training memo, which touchpad gesture would you demonstrate that replicates right-clicking a mouse?
A) Tap the touchpad with two fingers.
B) Tap the touchpad with a touch pen.
C) Swipe to the left or right with three fingers.
D) Tap the touchpad with one finger.
E) Swipe down on the touchpad with three fingers.
Mobile Devices
A) Tap the touchpad with two fingers.
You would instruct the user to tap the touchpad with two fingers. This action brings up the menu of additional commands that is displayed when the user right-clicks a mouse.
Tapping the touchpad with one finger selects an item. Swiping to the left or right with three fingers allows you to change the open window. Swiping down on the touchpad with three fingers will show the desktop.
Trackpads, touchpads, and drawing pads are input devices with a specialized flat surface capable of detecting signals from a finger or touch pen. Trackpads and touchpads are usually embedded in laptops as alternatives to mice when desk space is limited. Touchpads are often highly resistant to dirt, easy to use, and space efficient. However, these devices are limited in the devices they can be used with, can be sensitive to the types of inputs it can detect, and need to be calibrated to be precise.
Touch pens simulate a writing utensil so users can “write” on a digitizer (such as a phone screen), a touchpad/trackpad, or a drawing pad. It is important to configure the touch pen and calibrate the screen to it to accurately record the input. Drawing pads are tablet-sized digitizers used to convert handwriting or drawing (using a finger or touch pen) to digital input through a Bluetooth or USB connection.
Touchpads, touch pens, and devices that have a touch screen all come with a built-in digitizer. The role of a digitizer is to convert the user’s actions, such as taping or swiping, into an input digital signal to which the device will process and respond. These digitizers can convert digital music to analog and convert analog video signals into digital ones as well.
You can also adjust the touchpad sensitivity in Windows to Most Sensitive, High Sensitivity, Medium Sensitivity or Low Sensitivity by entering “Touchpad” in the Cortana search bar. On the right side of the screen is a video that walks you through the options.
You are on an Android phone and frequently roam outside of your local area. You need to update the list of cell towers to provide better coverage. Which update would you perform?
A)CDMA update
B)PRI update
C)Baseband update
D)PRL update
E)GSM update
D)PRL update
If you frequently roam outside of your local area and need to update the list of cell towers on your phone to provide better coverage, you would perform a preferred roaming list (PRL) update. PRL allows cell phones to connect to the right provider’s tower when roaming to stay in network.
You can manually update the PRL on most phones simply by restarting the phone, or by turning Airplane mode on and off again to reset your network connection. Some manufacturers and carriers let you dial a specific number to download the update. For example, to update the PRL on a CDMA iPhone, tap the call button, enter ##873283#, then tap the call button again to dial. You will get a message that it is starting the update, followed by another message saying it is complete. To update the PRL on some Android phones, dial *228 and follow the prompts.
A baseband update will update the radio firmware on the cell phone. The baseband OS is separate from the device OS. The baseband OS runs the phone’s wireless communication chip, also called the radio or radio firmware, which provides all cellular calling, texting, GPS, Bluetooth, and Wi-Fi capabilities. Baseband updates are rolled into OS updates or carrier setting updates for iPhones and Android devices, and delivered automatically by the carrier. You can manually update the baseband on Android devices by installing a new radio.zip file in the root directory, but doing so incorrectly will brick the device. Apple devices do not support manual baseband updates unless the device is jailbroken. To find the baseband version an iPhone is running, go to Settings > General > About > Modem firmware. To find it on an Android phone, go to Settings > About Phone > Software information > Baseband version.
PRI updates are automatic downloads from your carrier. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) is a telecommunications interface standard.
Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) and Code-Division Multiple Access (CDMA) are mobile technologies that were used in in 2G and 3G communications. With 2G and 3G communications, carriers could not pick between the GSM and CDMA technologies, which resulted in the Federal Communications Commission ruling that a “dual-mode” route was required and forcing companies to use either GSM or CDMA. However, with the invention of 4G and 5G, both GSM and CDMA are being or have been phased out in favor of modern communications with LTE. 2022 is the last year for major cell providers to support 3G.
Jacob is new to your department and must be taught how to remove and install RAM into laptops. Which steps would you recommend he do BEFORE he performs this task?
A) Turn off the laptop and remove all power sources, including the battery and power cords. Put on an antistatic wristband. Remove the cover for the RAM port. Replace the RAM. Replace the port cover.
B) Turn off the laptop. Remove and set aside all screws. Replace the RAM. Replace the screws.
C) Turn off the laptop and remove all power sources, including the battery and power cord. Put on an antistatic wristband. Diagram the placement of screws, then remove and set aside all screws. Replace the RAM. Replace the screws. Replace the power sources.
D) Turn off the laptop. Remove the cover for the RAM port. Replace the RAM. Replace the port cover.
Hardware
C) Turn off the laptop and remove all power sources, including the battery and power cord. Put on an antistatic wristband. Diagram the placement of screws, then remove and set aside all screws. Replace the RAM. Replace the screws. Replace the power sources.
You should instruct Jacob to take the following steps:
Turn off the laptop and remove all power sources, including the battery and power cord.
Put on an antistatic wristband.
Diagram the placement of screws, then remove and set aside all screws.
Replace the RAM.
Replace the screws.
Replace the power sources.
When instructing beginners on how to install fragile parts like RAM or CPUs in any electronic device, you must make sure that you educate them about electrostatic discharge (ESD). ESD is the amount of static electricity in a person’s body. There is enough ESD in a person’s body to damage a small stick of RAM or a CPU, so users should always wear proper safety devices when installing.
There is no specialized RAM port with a cover to be removed before replacing the RAM in a laptop. You must remove screws to reach the RAM. When removing screws, be sure to diagram their placement or number them for correct reassembly.
You must remove all power sources before replacing components within a laptop.
You were recently given an old notebook computer that is missing most of its peripherals and accessories. You need to obtain the components necessary to allow you to efficiently perform your job both at the office and while traveling. You would like to purchase as many of the necessary accessories and peripherals as possible from a local computer store, where your company has an account.
Which accessory or peripheral will you most likely have to obtain directly from the notebook manufacturer because of its highly proprietary nature?
A)Docking station
B)Modem card
C)Mouse
D)External monitor
E)Network card
Hardware
A)Docking station
A docking station is a desktop device to which you can attach (dock) your portable computer when you are at your home or office. Docking stations typically provide a power connection, keyboard, mouse, input and output ports, and a jack for an external monitor. This provides a more comfortable work environment for the user when working at a home or office, without having to maintain separate desktop systems.
The drawback to docking stations is that they are highly proprietary devices. Most are only designed to work with specific computer models. The connectors, for example the power, monitor, and keyboard, are the same, but the location of the connectors is specific to the laptop model.
Your organization is encouraging all users that have been issued corporately owned iPhones to put the phones in Airplane Mode when the battery is running low. Which of the following is NOT disabled when an iPhone is placed in Airplane Mode?
A)Siri
B)Wi-Fi
C)Cellular service
D)GPS
Mobile devices
A)Siri
- Siri is software for the HomePod, iPhone, and macOS from Apple that provides the user with a personal assistant that performs various tasks based on the user’s voice commands. It can answer questions, schedule meetings, send messages, and do other things that are helpful to the user. For example, the user can say a command such as “Wake me up at 6:30 a.m.,” and Siri sets an alarm to wake up the user at that time.
Siri is not disabled when an iPhone is placed in Airplane Mode. However, it may be difficult to take advantage of Siri when in Airplane Mode because none of the wireless services can be used.
Global Positioning System (GPS) is a location service that enables devices to use a radio-navigation system that identifies the location of the cellular device by using three different segments. These segments are the space segment, often in the form of a satellite, a control segment, and a user segment. Another cellular location service that can be used to track a mobile device are antenna towers, which can send and receive radio signal to gain rough estimates of device locations. This information can be used for company data purposes, for certain applications, for law enforcement, or for entertainment purposes.
When an iPhone is placed in Airplane Mode, the following services are disabled:
Cellular (both voice and data)
Wi-Fi
Bluetooth (optionally; you can configure the device to leave Bluetooth running)
GPS
Location Services
When an Android phone is placed in Airplane Mode, the following services are disabled:
Cellular
Wi-Fi
Bluetooth
Audrey travels for business three to four days a week and is not always near power outlets. She needs a solution for when her laptop battery dies. What would you recommend she do? (Choose all that apply.)
A)Purchase an extra power cord.
B)Purchase a portable battery bank made to charge laptops.
C)Change the power settings on her laptop to consume less power.
D)Purchase an extra laptop battery.
Hardware
B)Purchase a portable battery bank made to charge laptops.
D)Purchase an extra laptop battery.
You should recommend that she purchase an extra laptop battery or a portable battery bank made to charge laptops. Having spare or extra battery is necessary, and using it is as simple as removing the old battery and inserting a new one. Portable battery banks are very popular and lightweight, and they can be used to charge a laptop when a battery dies. Bringing an extra power cord will not help when there are no power outlets available.
Changing the power settings can be a temporary fix and should be considered. However, this would not be the solution to a dead battery.
You are adding a new computer to an existing 1000BaseT network. Which cable connector is used in this network?
A)RJ-45
B)SC
C)ST
D)MTRJ
Hardware
A)RJ-45
The RJ-45 cable connector is used in a gigabit Ethernet or 1000BaseT network. The RJ-45 connector is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) copper wire cabling and can be used to carry data at up to 1,000 Mbps, which is 1 gigabit per second (Gbps).
The SC, ST, and MTRJ connectors are used with fiber optic cabling. For instance, these cable connectors can be used in a 100BaseFX network.
An RJ-11 connector is used to connect telephone cable to a computer modem. While an RJ-11 connector looks similar to an RJ-45 connector, the RJ-11 connector is narrower than an RJ-45 connector because it uses fewer wires.
One of your clients needs to print to multipart forms. Which printer type should you advise your client to consider?
A)Laser
B)Inkjet
C)Dot matrix
D)Thermal
Hardware
C)Dot matrix
Dot matrix or impact printers can print multi-part forms, often referred to as carbon copies or impact paper, because the act of printing is accomplished by physically striking paper with a print head. Another impact printer, the daisy-wheel printer, can also be used for multipart forms. An impact printer includes the following components that are part of the printing process: print head, ribbon, and tractor feed.
Inkjet, thermal, and laser printers cannot print on all layers of a multipart form. A multi-part form has two or more sheets of paper per page, and only an impact printer can create an impression on the pages under the top page. Daisy-wheel and dot matrix printers are still used in some specialty environments, such as when multipart forms are printed or where the typewriter appearance of a daisy-wheel printout is required. The daisy-wheel printer offers a higher print quality compared to a dot matrix printer, but the daisy-wheel printer is generally limited to printing text, whereas a dot matrix printer can print text and graphics.
Every time a Windows 10 computer boots, you receive an error message stating that the cover was previously removed. You want to prevent this alert from being displayed. In which location should you disable this alert?
A)In Device Manager
B)In the System Configuration utility
C)In the BIOS
D)In Event Viewer
Hardware
C)In the BIOS
To prevent an alert regarding the cover being removed from displaying, you should disable the chassis intrusion detection, no matter which operating system you are running. Chassis intrusion detection is always configured in the system BIOS. Chassis intrusion detection is a method of physical intrusion detection. It provides an alert the next time the computer is booted that tells the user that the chassis has been opened. Often, hackers will physically open a computer to insert hardware that is used to capture confidential or sensitive information.
Chassis intrusion detection is not configured in the System Configuration utility, in Event Viewer, or in Device Manager.
You are installing the network cabling for your company. A diagram of the cabling is shown in the following image:
Which type of cable are you installing?
A)Coaxial cable
B)Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable
C)Fiber optic cable
D)Shielded twisted pair (STP) cable
Hardware
C)Fiber optic cable
Based on the image displayed, you are installing fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cabling has a center glass core that is surrounded by protective materials. Fiber optic cabling transmits light. It provides a higher transmission speed and better security than the other options listed. However, it is the most expensive to implement.
UTP cable consists of four pairs of wires, each pair with a specific number of twists to reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI). The wires are contained within a rubber casing. STP cable looks the same as UTP cable, except STP cable will also have an outer shielding material (usually foil) located between the wires and the outer casing.
Coaxial cable consists of a single copper core surrounded by plastic insulation. Outside the plastic insulation is a metal shield, which is surrounded by the rubber casing.
A user contacts you with a printer configuration issue. The user wants to print multiple copies of a document. However, he wants the individual pages to print together, meaning all the copies of page 1 should print before the copies of page 2. Which configuration option should you tell the user to adjust?
A)Quality
B)Collation
C)Order
D)Orientation
B)Collation
You should tell the user to adjust the Collation option. Collation determines how the individual pages within a multiple-page document are printed when you print multiple copies of the document. Collated printing prints an entire copy of a document together before starting the next copy of a document. Non-collated printing prints all copies of a page before proceeding to the next page.
The Orientation option determines the orientation of the page. The Portrait orientation prints a page as normal, with the narrow side of the page at the top. The Landscape orientation prints a page with the wide side of the page at the top.
The Quality option determines the resolution at which the page is printed. You can usually select from draft, normal, or high quality mode.
The Order option determines the order the pages are printed. You can usually print a document from last page to first or from first page to last.
Another printer option that you should be familiar with is duplexing. Duplexing allows you to print on both sides of a sheet of paper. It requires that you purchase a printer with a duplexer installed or upgrade the printer by adding the duplexer.
A user has been given an inkjet printer that connects locally to this desktop computer. What does this printer use to push ink onto paper?
A)A piezoelectric crystal
B)A nozzle
C)An electrostatic charge
D)A moving pin
Hardware
A)A piezoelectric crystal
Inkjet printers use either of two methods to push ink onto the print medium, typically paper. One method is to precisely vibrate a piezoelectric crystal, which then pumps ink through a nozzle. The other method is to apply a voltage to a resistor, which heats ink to the boiling point. When the ink boils, the vaporization pressure pushes the ink through fixed-position nozzles and onto paper. The first method is referred to as mechanical vibration, and the second method is referred to as thermal shock. A given inkjet printer will only use one of these ink deposition techniques. Although the nozzles control the direction of an ink droplet, they do not push the ink. Laser printers use an electrostatic charge to pull toner from a photosensitive drum onto paper. Moving pins are not a feature of ink-jet printers. A dot matrix printer has a print head that contains an array of pins; these movable pins strike an inked ribbon against a piece of paper to generate a series of dots that collectively create text and images. A laser printer uses an electrostatic charge to allow the toner to adhere to the paper.
For inkjet printers, you need to know about the following parts: ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt. The roller or feeder (depending on how the printer is configured) actually grabs the paper from the paper tray. The carriage holds the print head and moves it to the appropriate location. A belt and motor move the carriage. A duplexing assembly allows the printer to print on both the front and back of a sheet of paper. A good technician will want to know how to troubleshoot printer issues to educate users on cleaning heads, replacing printer cartridges, and clearing jams.
Inkjet printers need to be calibrated to ensure that the inkjet nozzles are aligned properly and that the color mixture is correct. Use the built-in calibration program to perform this function. This program is usually installed when the printer drivers are installed.
You need to implement a RAID level that duplicates a partition on another physical disk, providing two identical copies of the data. Which RAID level should you use?
A)Level 2
B)Level 4
C)Level 5
D)Level 3
E)Level 0
F)Level 1
Hardware
F)Level 1
RAID Level 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates the original disk, and this duplicate is placed on a separate disk, creating a “mirror.” Disk mirroring requires two disks of equal size. It is simple to implement and offers fast recovery if a single disk fails. However, because disk mirroring requires the duplication of the initial partition, only 50% of the total available disk space is used. RAID Level 1 is less efficient when performing disk writes.
Disk duplexing is also implemented at RAID Level 1. Disk duplexing builds on disk mirroring by adding a controller for each disk channel. Disk duplexing eliminates the disk controller as a single point of failure in the system.
RAID Level 0 is disk striping. A RAID-0 volume consists of two hard drives where data is striped across the entire volume. This RAID level provides no fault tolerance and fast data-writing speeds.
RAID Level 2 is disk striping with hamming parity. It requires at least three disks. Data is striped across the disks, and hamming parity information is calculated and stored on the parity disk. This RAID level is not popular.
RAID Level 3 is a striped set with dedicated parity. It requires at least three disks. One disk in the volume is a dedicated parity disk. Data is striped across the remaining disks.
RAID Level 4 is similar to RAID Level 3. However, RAID Level 4 does block-level striping instead of byte-level striping.
RAID Level 5 is disk striping with parity. It requires at least three disks. This level provides fault tolerance. All of the disks in the volume appear as one disk to the end user, and parity information is spread across all the disks.
There is also a special type of RAID called RAID1+0 or RAID 10. This RAID level is mirrored stipe sets. A minimum of four drives is required for this RAID level.
A serial ATA (SATA) or Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) adapter is required to use RAID volumes. The RAID level implemented refers to how data is distributed between multiple drives.
You need to install a TV tuner adapter card in a computer. All of the following steps are necessary EXCEPT
A)plugging the antenna into the TV tuner adapter card.
B)plugging the audio cable into the TV tuner adapter card and sound card.
C)plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a USB port.
D)plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a PCI slot.
Hardware
C)plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a USB port.
To install a TV tuner adapter card in a computer, you should NOT plug the TV tuner card into a USB port. While there are TV tuners available that plug into a USB port, the USB TV tuners are not adapter cards. Instead, they are external devices that plug into a USB port. A TV tuner card can decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source.
You should plug the TV tuner adapter card into a PCI slot. In addition, you should plug the audio cable into the TV tuner adapter card and sound card. This will ensure that the TV audio is played through your sound card. After closing the computer case, you should plug the antenna into the TV tuner adapter card.
A TV tuner adapter card will allow a computer to receive TV signals.
A customer has a Windows 7 computer with a HD DVD drive. He is asking about DVD compatibility. Which type of disk will he be unable to use in his computer?
A)DVD disks
B)Blu-ray disks
C)CD-ROM disks
D)HD DVD disks
Hardware
B)Blu-ray disks
High-definition DVD (HD DVD) drives can play CD-ROM disks, DVD disks, and HD DVD disks. All HD DVD drives are backwards compatible with CD-ROM and DVD disks.
HD DVD drives cannot play Blu-ray disks. Only Blu-ray drives can play Blu-ray disks. Blu-ray drives can play CD-ROM and DVD disks.
DVD drives can play CD-ROM and DVD disks. CD-ROM drives can only play CD-ROM disks.
You are replacing several laptop components to upgrade a customer’s laptop computer. Which device ALWAYS involves the detaching and reattaching of antenna connectors?
A)The screen
B)Mini-PCIe
C)The wireless card
D)The touchpad
Mobile Devices
C)The wireless card
When replacing the wireless card, you need to detach the antenna connectors and reattach them to the new card. Always refer to the manufacturer’s documentation to learn how to replace laptop components and to determine Wi-Fi antenna connector/placement before performing any upgrades or component replacement.
None of the other components ALWAYS involves the use of antenna connectors. The screen has several parts, including an inverter and a backlight. Some screen models include an integrated antenna. In those cases, you would need to detach and reattach the antenna connectors when replacing the screen.
Mini-PCIe is usually a single card that can be replaced. The touchpad, like the screen, DC jack, and system board, is often integrated a bit more into the system than other components.
While the screen, DC jack, system board, and touchpad can be replaced, doing so requires removing many components. Always take careful notes about the way in which components are attached, including screw locations. Other components that you may have to replace in a laptop include the CPU and speaker. Both of these can usually be accessed through a slot on the bottom or side of the laptop. If there is not a port on the bottom or side of the laptop for the device you are replacing, the component could be located under the keyboard.
Finally, laptops often come with plastic components that are located in PCMCIA ports or other similar ports. These plastic components can be easily lost. Make sure you remember where you place these plastic parts if you remove them from the laptop. If the plastic parts were included with the laptop, it is important that the port is not left empty, so as to ensure proper airflow and prevent damage from dust. These parts are often referred to as plastics or frames.
Your company has recently purchased cabling that has a rating of plenum. What does this indicate about the cable?
A)It will not produce toxic gas when it burns.
B)It is not Layer 2 protocol-dependent.
C)It is rated for speeds of 1,000 Mbps.
D)It cannot be tapped without detection.
Hardware
A)It will not produce toxic gas when it burns.
A plenum-rated cable will not produce toxic gas when it burns; therefore, it can be used in plenum areas such as ventilation ducts and other areas that carry breathable air. Non-plenum cables are covered with PVC, which produces toxic gas when it burns. Most fire codes require plenum-rated cable in any area that carries breathable air.
A user needs to transport a 1,100 MB file using physical media. Which media types could be used? (Choose two.)
A)CD-RW
B)CD
C)DDS-3
D)DVD+R
Hardware
C)DDS-3
D)DVD+R
The DVD+R and Digital Data Storage (DDS)-3 media types could be used to transport a 1,100 MB file. The DVD+R, DVD-R, DVD+RW, and DVD-RW media standards can store up to 4.7 GB on a single optical disk. Double-sided DVDs can store up to 9.4 GB. DVD media are the media type most used to duplicate bootable media. DVD-ROM is the DVD version of the standard CD format and allows up to 16 GB of data. If a DVD recordable disc has the DL designation, it stands for Double Layer. DVD+R DL discs can store up to 8.5 GB.
The DDS-3 digital audio tape (DAT) format can store from 12 to 20 GB on a single tape cartridge. Other tape formats, such as Travan and DLT, can also be used to store up to 70 GB per tape cartridge. The CD-R and CD-RW formats can store up to 700 MB on a single optical disc. A first-generation (1x) CD-ROM drive can transfer data at speeds up to 150 kilobytes per second (Kbps). The other possible CD-ROM drive specifications are as follows:
You work the service desk at a manufacturing firm that has several different types of printers. An employee who runs one of the 3D printers calls to say she can no longer print. What should you most likely bring to her workstation to get her up and running?
A)Toner cartridge
B)Ink cartridge
C)Imaging drum
D)Plastic filament
Hardware
D)Plastic filament
Recently, you had to have the nozzle gate in an inkjet printer replaced. What is the function of this component?
A)Controls whether ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
B)Controls how much ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
C)Contains ink in the ink cartridge
D)Controls the paper movement
Hardware
A)Controls whether ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
The nozzle gate controls the flow of ink from the ink cartridge to the paper. When an inkjet printer starts printing, the nozzle gate opens and allows the nozzle to spray the ink onto the paper. After printing is stopped, the nozzle gate shuts down to stop the flow of the ink. When the printer is idle, the nozzle gate remains closed to prevent the flow of the ink from the ink cartridge.
The nozzle gate does not control the paper movement. The transfer roller controls the paper movement and is a component of a dot matrix printer. The transfer roller is responsible for pushing paper upward for printing.
The nozzle gate does not contain the ink in the ink cartridge. The capillary tube is a component that contains the ink and is located behind the nozzle.
A nozzle gate does not control the ink quantity that flows from the ink cartridge. The nozzle is responsible for controlling the ink quantity that flows from the ink cartridge to the paper. A nozzle sprays an appropriate amount of ink to the paper for proper printing.
You have been tasked with performing several upgrades in a computer. Which hardware component will require the least amount of time to replace?
A)Motherboard
B)Power supply unit
C)Memory module
D)Network interface card
Hardware
D)Network interface card
A memory module is inserted into the memory slot without investing substantial effort. The memory module will require the least time to replace. Memory modules are usually just inserted into the slot and snapped into place. No screws are required. You should install additional memory of the same type and speed as existing memory to ensure RAM compatibility.
The network interface card (NIC), processor, motherboard, and power supply unit are field replaceable units (FRUs) of a computer. A motherboard will require disassembly of the entire system unit before being replaced. Therefore, a motherboard is not the hardware component that requires the least amount of time to replace. A power supply unit will also require a substantial amount of effort to replace compared to a memory module. With a power supply, all of the power connectors would need to be disconnected from the motherboard and all peripheral devices. Typically, a NIC is installed as an add-on card that can be taken out of the system unit by opening a single screw. A NIC will require more time to be replaced than a memory module.
You are explaining the significance of the wires running from a power supply. The Power Good signal sends power to the motherboard to indicate that the electrical power is sufficient and can prevent the computer from booting. Which voltage is used by the Power Good signal?
A)+3.3
B)+12
C)-12
D)+5
E)-5
Hardware
D)+5
The Power Good signal is a +5 voltage sent over a specific wire in the connector. This wire sends power from the power supply to the motherboard. If the motherboard does not receive the signal, the computer will not boot. If this is occurring, the only solution is to replace the power supply. The +5 voltage provides power to the motherboard. It also provides power to older CD/DVD drives, hard drives, PCI cards, and Pentium III and earlier processors.
The +3.3 voltage provides power to certain video cards and the motherboard. However, it has nothing to do with the Power Good signal.
The -5 voltage provides power to the ISA or AT bus adapter cards.
The -12 voltage provides power to some older network adapters and serial ports.
The +12 voltage provides power to newer CD/DVD drives, hard drives, and Pentium 4 and Athlon processors.
A Molex connector is the power connector that is larger than the connector used for floppy diskette drives, and it is commonly used with PATA drives. A Berg connector is used with floppy disk drives.
You must print a large number of pages on an inkjet printer in the minimum possible time. What should you do?
A)Specify low-resolution printing.
B)Change page orientation of all pages to Landscape.
C)Specify high-resolution printing.
D)Change page orientation of all pages to Portrait.
A)Specify low-resolution printing.
You are a desktop engineer for Verigon Corporation. Gloria requires a PCI network interface card and a PCI sound card installed in her computer. Her computer has three PCI slots, two of which contain the video card and the modem, respectively. Which card should you use to attach both the PCI network interface card and sound card to the computer?
A)PCMCIA card
B)Riser card
C)Flash memory card
D)USB PCI card
Hardware
B)Riser card
You should use a riser card to attach both the PCI network interface card and the sound card to the computer. A riser card is an expansion card that can be directly connected to the motherboard on a PCI or ISA slot. Riser cards have several slots to hold additional cards, such as PCI or ISA, that work in parallel with the motherboard. A riser card is commonly used in Low Profile Extended (LPX) and New Low Profile Extended (NLX) computers because these form factors are for slim-line cases.
A PCMCIA card is an incorrect option because it is not used on desktop computers. A PCMCIA card is also known as a PC card and is used in laptops. You cannot use a USB PCI card to attach PCI cards to the motherboard. A USB PCI card functions as a USB hub that provides additional USB ports to connect more USB devices. It does not provide slots to attach PCI devices.
You cannot use a flash memory card in this scenario because it does not have the capability to attach a PCI network interface card or sound card to it. Flash memory devices are storage devices by design. Flash memory cards include USB thumb drives, flash cards, CompactFlash (CF) cards, SmartMedia cards, Secure Digital (SD) cards, MiniSD cards, MicroSD cards, and Extreme Digital (xD) Picture Cards. Flash memory cards are a type of solid-state drive (SSD).
You have decided to enable overclocking to increase the performance of a computer. On which computer components can you specifically enable overclocking? (Choose all that apply.)
A)RAM
B)Motherboard
C)Hard drive
D)Processor
E)System bus
Hardware
A)RAM
D)Processor
E)System bus
You can specifically overclock the processor, RAM, and system bus. No other computer components can be overclocked. However, overclocking the system bus may also cause other components to be overclocked. Overclocking allows you to run the processor or system bus at a higher speed than the manufacturer’s rating to gain increased performance.
Overclocking cannot be specifically enabled on the motherboard or hard drive.
Vincent has a computer with two DVI ports and wants to connect it to an HDMI display. What is the easiest solution?
A)Install a video adapter card in the PCI slot.
B)Install a video adapter card in the PCIe slot.
C)Connect the HDMI cable to the DVI port.
D)Purchase a DVI-to-HDMI cable or adapter.
Hardware
D)Purchase a DVI-to-HDMI cable or adapter.
Your company employs a team of trainers who travel to remote locations to make presentations and teach classes. The team has been issued new laptops to use for those presentations and classes. A contractor is coming to your office to show the trainers the ports they will use to connect different devices for the presentations. Which of the following will he most likely need to demonstrate? (Choose all that apply.)
A)DisplayPort ports
B)RJ-45 ports
C)ExpressCard ports
D)USB port adapters
E)VGA ports
F)Audio jacks
Hardware
A)DisplayPort ports
D)USB port adapters
E)VGA ports
You are explaining to a group of new IT technicians the workings of a magnetic hard drive. As part of this discussion, you must cover the different parts. Which term is used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter?
A)Sector
B)Cluster
C)Cylinder
D)Track
Hardware
D)Track
The term track identifies the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A hard disk platter is divided into various smaller circles referred to as tracks. There are 1,024 tracks on a single platter, numbered from 0 to 1,023.
The research department has decided to purchase a new dot matrix printer for department-wide use. Which components are normally found in these printers? (Choose two).
A)Ribbons
B)Toner
C)Tractor feeds
D)Focusing lens
E)Print nozzles
Hardware
A)Ribbons
C)Tractor feeds
Which printer upgrade option allows a printer to act as a standalone printer on a network?
A)NIC
B)Duplexer
C)Finisher
D)RAM
Hardware
A)NIC
Some printers allow you to install a network interface card (NIC) so that the printer can act as a standalone printer on a network. This allows you to attach the computer directly to the network as you would any other device. Print jobs can then be sent directly to the printer. Networked printers are public devices that are connected to the network using an Ethernet or coaxial cable, depending on the type of network used. USB and serial printers can be configured as shared devices over the network by sharing them via the operating system of the computer to which they are attached. However, with USB and serial printers, the computer to which the printer is installed must be left on so other users can print.
Match the cable types on the left with the appropriate maximum distance and speed options on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match cable type with the correct maximum distance and speed.
Cable Types
ThinNet
ThickNet
Single-mode Fiber
Cat5
Cat6
Multi-mode Fiber
Hardware
The following is the correct matching of the cable types with maximum distance and speed options:
Cat5 – Up to 100 meters and 100 Mbps
Cat6 – Up to 100 meters and 10 Gbps
ThinNet – Up to 185 meters and 10 Mbps
ThickNet – Up to 500 meters and 10 Mbps
Multi-mode fiber – Up to 500 meters and 10 Gbps
Single-mode fiber – Up to 40 kilometers and 10 Gbps
You need to install a new video card in a Windows XP Professional computer. You need to ensure that the installed technology supports both analog and digital transmissions. Which technology should you install?
A)DVI-D
B)DVI-I
C)DVI-A
D)HDMI
Hardware
B)DVI-I
Digital Video Interface-I (DVI-I) technology supports both analog and digital transmissions. DVI technology is newer than Video Graphic Array (VGA) technology.
None of the other options supports both transmission types. DVI-D and High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) supports only digital transmissions. HDMI comes in three standard sizes: Standard HDMI, Mini-HDMI, and Micro-HDMI. DVI-A allows a VGA connector to connect to a DVI-I interface. With DVI-A technology, only analog transmissions are supported.
You need to ensure that data on your mobile device, including pictures, music, and contacts, is uploaded to your desktop computer. What is this process called?
A)remote wipe
B)remote backup
C)synchronization
D)patching
Mobile Devices
C)synchronization
Synchronization is the process whereby your mobile device data, including contacts, pictures, e-mail, pictures, music, and videos, is uploaded to your desktop computer. To synchronize your data with a desktop computer, you will need to install the appropriate application on your desktop computer. Before installing the synchronization application, make sure that your desktop computer meets the minimum requirements for the application.
Remote wipe is a security feature that lets you remotely wipe your data from a mobile device. This feature is often used if a mobile device is lost or stolen.
Remote backup is a feature that allows you to back up your mobile device.
Patching is process whereby you update the operating system and applications on your mobile devices. You should always install patches and updates.
You want to ensure that a computer has a 64-bit architecture and is able to fully utilize 64-bit computing. Which component is NOT important for this purpose?
A)Operating system
B)Processor
C)Device drivers
D)Memory
Hardware
D)Memory
The computer’s memory is not important. A benefit of using 64-bit processors is that the maximum amount of RAM that can be used increased from 4 gigabytes to 1 terabyte (1,000 gigabytes).For a computer to provide a full 64-bit architecture, the computer must have a 64-bit processor installed. In addition, a 64-bit operating system and 64-bit device drivers must be used to ensure that the 64-bit processor is fully utilized.
When the 64 designation is used in a processor name, it means that the processor provides a 64-bit register. 64-bit processors allow computers to use memory over 4 gigabytes (GB).To fully utilize a 64-bit architecture, all components need to support it. Otherwise, those components that do not support the 64-bit architecture will operate in 32-bit mode.
Your company’s wireless device policy you to wirelessly back up your mobile device data, including apps, pictures, and music, so that you can later retrieve the data on any mobile device, even if the data is on another mobile device. Which iPhone feature can perform this function?
A)iTunes
B)iCloud
C)Apple Wallet
D)App Store
Mobile Devices
B)icloud
iCloud allows you to wirelessly back up your mobile device data, including apps, pictures, and music, so that you can later retrieve the data on any mobile device, even if the data is on another mobile device.
A user has requested to have a printer duplexer added to his printer. Which function is provided by this component?
A)Document sizing
B)Document stapling
C)Document sorting
D)Double-sided printing
Hardware
D)Double-sided printing
You need to connect two computers for a customer. The customer does not have a network and does not wish to purchase a concentrator, but both computers include functional Ethernet network interface cards with RJ-45 connectors. Which component will allow you to meet your customer’s needs?
A)A crossover cable
B)A passive hub
C)An Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card
D)A protocol analyzer
Hardware
A)A crossover cable
You can use a crossover cable to connect two computers directly through the RJ-45 connectors on their Ethernet network cards. A crossover cable consists of a standard 10BaseT cable with RJ-45 connectors that have specific pin contacts reversed. RJ-45 connectors, when used to connect Ethernet interface cards, support a 10BaseT network topology. On a standard 10BaseT network, computers’ network interface cards must connect to a concentrator, often referred to as a hub, before they are able to communicate with other computers. The reversed pin contacts in crossover cables accomplish the same signal conditioning that Ethernet concentrators are responsible for on a typical 10BaseT network. One reason to use a crossover cable is to connect two computers directly without incurring the cost of a concentrator.
You need to install several USB devices on a server. You have been asked to attach USB hubs to the computer. Only one USB port is available. How many hubs can you daisy chain using the single port?
A)4
B)5
C)2
D)3
Hardware
B)5
You plan to install an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network that supports data transfer speeds up to 100 Mbps. Which cable should you use?
A)Cat2
B)Cat4
C)Cat5
D)Cat3
Hardware
C)Cat5
You want to buy a longer charging cord for your iPhone 11. When you get to the store, there are many options to choose from. Which cable should you select?
A)Micro-USB
B)IEEE 1394
C)USB-C
D)Lightning
E)Mini-USB
Mobile Devices
D)Lightning
You are preforming some hardware upgrades on an old computer. You notice that the computer has an available Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot. Which statement is an accurate characterization of this architecture?
A)The PCI architecture is for Intel-compatible computers only.
B)All PCI cards support bus mastering.
C)The PCI bus is for 80386 and 80486 computers only.
D)The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.
Hardware
D)The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.
The PCI architecture supports 64-bit data transfers and includes 32-bit data paths for backward compatibility, whereas older Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) buses support only 8-bit and 16-bit data transfers. Because PCI slot circuitry is more compact than ISA circuitry, PCI slots are shorter and take up less space on a system board than their ISA counterparts.
You need to assemble a new computer. You have an AMD Opteron process. Which of the following CPU sockets will NOT support this?
A)FM1
B)AM2
C)940
D)F
Hardware
A)FM1
The FM1 CPU socket will NOT support an AMD Opteron CPU. This socket will support the AMD Llano CPU.
The F CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs.
The Socket 940 CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs.
The AM2 CPU socket will support Athlon 64, Athlon 64 X2, Athlon 64 FX, 2nd generation Opteron, Sempron, and Phenom CPUs.
Management has mandated that hard disks installed in servers provide the best disk performance and speed. You need to ensure that you purchase hard disks that conform to this mandate. Which factors should you consider? (Choose all that apply.)
A)Faster seek time
B)Bigger disk geometry
C)Higher latency time
D)Higher rate of revolutions per minute
E)Higher disk capacity
Hardware
A)Faster seek time
D)Higher rate of revolutions per minute
A faster seek time and higher rate of revolutions per minute (RPM) improve hard disk performance and speed. The seek time, measured in milliseconds (ms), largely depends on the speed with which the actuator arm can read the information from the platters of the disk’s read/write position. The actuator positions the head to different tracks on the hard drive’s platter surface. An actuator is also used in CD-ROM drives. The actuator is the part that moves. The faster the actuator arm moves and reaches the read/write position, the faster the response. The drive access speed is also dependent on the spinning speed of the platters. The spinning speed is measured in RPMs. A higher RPM value indicates a higher speed for the disk. Hard disk drives are the primary type of media rated using an RPM value. Other types of drives, including tape drives and flash drives, are not rated using an RPM value. Common RPMs for drives include 5,400 RPM, 7,200 RPM, 10,000 RPM, and 15,000 RPM.
You were recently given an old notebook computer that is missing most of its peripherals and accessories. You need to obtain the components necessary to allow you to efficiently perform your job both at the office and while traveling. You would like to purchase as many of the necessary accessories and peripherals as possible from a local computer store, where your company has an account.
Which accessory or peripheral will you most likely have to obtain directly from the notebook manufacturer because of its highly proprietary nature?
A)Docking station
B)Modem card
C)Mouse
D)External monitor
E)Network card
Mobile Devices
A)Docking station
Susan needs to replace the CPU in her laptop computer. She has asked you for recommendations. What would you recommend she do before she begins the process?
A)Purchase thermal grease.
B)Determine which processors the BIOS will support using the documentation.
C)Purchase extra memory with the CPU.
D)Purchase the same CPU as the one being removed.
Mobile Devices
B)Determine which processors the BIOS will support using the documentation.
Penny has a desktop computer that she is replacing with a laptop. She wants to know why everyone is raving over their new flash memory drives. What is the top reason to purchase a laptop with a flash memory drive rather than a conventional hard drive?
A)Ease of partitioning
B)Mechanical motor
C)Quiet sound
D)Ease of backup
Mobile Devices
C)Quiet sound
You have been asked to set up the new Android phones that have been purchased for management.
You are configuring the e-mail settings for the phones. Your organization’s e-mail servers are as follows:
POP3 mail server – pop3.dreamsuites.com
IMAP mail server – imap.dreamsuites.com
SMTP mail server – smtp.dreamsuites.com
The POP3 and IMAP servers use the default ports. The SMTP server requires SSL and uses port 587.
Management has requested that their e-mails retain the Read status no matter where the e-mail was read. What should you do? (Choose two.)
A)Configure pop3.dreamsuites.com as the incoming server using port 143.
B)Configure pop3.dreamsuites.com as the incoming server using port 110.
C)Configure imap.dreamsuites.com as the incoming server using port 143.
D)Configure smtp.dreamsuites.com as the outgoing server using port 25.
E)Configure smtp.dreamsuites.com as the outgoing server using port 587.
F)Configure imap.dreamsuites.com as the incoming server using port 110.
Mobile Devices
C)Configure imap.dreamsuites.com as the incoming server using port 143.
E)Configure smtp.dreamsuites.com as the outgoing server using port 587.
You wish to send encrypted emails. What option should you enable?
A)POP3
B)S/MIME
C)IMAP
D)ISP
Mobile Devices
B)S/MIME
Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) allows you to send encrypted emails when enabled. To enable S/MIME on an iPhone, go to Settings >Mail, Contacts, Calendars. Select the account with the appropriate email address for which you want to use S/MIME. Scroll down the Account screen, and select Advanced. Enable S/MIME at the bottom. Once enabled, you can also choose the Sign and Encrypt by Default options. You will need a valid certificate to be installed on the iPhone.
A company representative has just landed a significant order at a trade show. He has all the necessary information on his laptop and needs to transmit it to the home office for processing. However, he calls you on his company-issued Android phone and notifies you that Internet access is down at the trade show. He is on an LTE connection. What should you recommend?
A)Enable tethering on the phone.
B)Set the phone to Airplane Mode.
C)Pair the phone and laptop via Bluetooth.
D)Connect the laptop to the company network over a VPN.
Mobile Devices
A)Enable tethering on the phone.
You should recommend that he enable tethering on the Android phone. Tethering will allow the laptop to use the Android phone as a mobile hot spot to transmit the order to the home office via the phone’s data connection.
Tethering refers to using the Internet connection on a cell phone on another device, like a laptop or a tablet. This can be accomplished using Bluetooth, USB, or wireless. The phone becomes a “hot spot.” In essence, tethering allows a device to reach the Internet without otherwise having a connection.
You are choosing from among several different laptop components. Which of the following operates at the fastest speed?
A)ExpressCard using a PCIe bus
B)ExpressCard using a USB 2.0 bus
C)PCMCIA card using a 16-bit bus
D)PC card using a 16-bit bus
Mobile Devices
A)ExpressCard using a PCIe bus
An ExpressCard using a PCIe bus will operate at 2.5 Gigabits per second (Gbps). ExpressCard devices come in two types: ExpressCard 34 and ExpressCard 54. These types refer to their sizes. ExpressCard34 cards are 34 mm wide, 75 mm long, and 5 mm thick. ExpressCard 54 cards are 54 mm wide, 75 mm long, and 5 mm thick. They connect using a USB or PCIe port.
A PC card or PCMCIA card using a 16-bit bus will operate at 160 Megabits per second (Mbps). A CardBus PC Card using PCI bus will operate at 1,056 Mbps.
You are configuring the mail app on an iPhone to use an Outlook.com email address. What configuration information do you need to enter to establish connectivity?
A.Email address and password
B.Email address, password, and server name
C.Email address, password, server name, and mail protocol
D.Email address, password, server name or IP address, and mail protocol
A. When configuring a mobile email client to access a commercial email provider, you typically just need your username and password to establish connectivity. Examples include Google, Yahoo, Outlook.com, and iCloud.
You are purchasing a mobile device that allows you to use multi-finger gestures to interact with the device. What type of touchscreen technology does this device most likely use?
A.Capacitive
B.Infrared
C.SAW
D.Resistive
A. Capacitive touchscreens are a little less accurate than resistive touchscreens but more responsive. They respond to changes in electrical current, and as such, the human fingertip works great as the facilitator of input. Resistive screens require a heavier touch and don’t support multi-touch input. Infrared screens don’t work with multi-touch gestures, but like resistive screens, they can be used with gloves on. Surface Acoustic Wave (SAW) is another type of touchscreen, but it is not popular.
You are using a public Wi-Fi hotspot and believe that someone is trying to hack into your laptop. Which laptop feature should you use to immediately turn off all wireless connections?
A.Silent mode
B.Quiet mode
C.Airplane mode
D.Connectionless mode
C. Airplane mode turns off all wireless connections on a mobile device. It’s common on phones and tablets, and most laptops have the feature as well.
You have been asked to purchase a new camera for the company photographer. Some of the cameras are marketed as “smart” cameras. What key feature does this likely mean the camera includes?
A.Wi-Fi
B.RJ-45
C.Separate video processor
D.Internal hard drive
A. Smart cameras have built-in wireless network connectivity for easy picture and video transfers. Many will include Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and Near-Field Communication (NFC). Smart cameras, such as security cameras, can also connect via Wi-Fi to your network and the Internet, and can thus be accessed and controlled by a cell phone.
Your customer brought you a laptop with an internal battery that will no longer charge. You have told them that replacing the battery will be no problem at all. Which of the following will you need to do first?
A.Remove the back cover.
B.Remove the keyboard.
C.Disconnect the external power.
D.Disconnect the LCD panel.
C. Legacy laptops may have a battery that is removable and replaceable by sliding a connector or removing a few screws from the back of the case, but you might not be able to find a compatible replacement. Modern laptops have internal batteries. Before removing the back (bottom) cover of the laptop to get to the battery, you must disconnect the power to avoid getting shocked or damaging the laptop. You’ll also want to be certain that you can purchase a compatible battery both in features and size/shape. Most do not require you to remove the keyboard or LCD panel to reach the battery, but again before doing either of those, the power should be disconnected, and you will have researched the laptop.
A coworker is having a problem with their laptop and has asked you to fix it. When an external keyboard is plugged in, the laptop works just fine, but without it strange characters appear on the screen when typing. Which of the following are likely causes? (Choose two.)
A.The driver is corrupted and needs to be updated/replaced.
B.The ribbon cable is partially disconnected and needs to be reseated.
C.The laptop needs to be replaced.
D.There is debris under the keys.
A, B. Users should be discouraged from eating cookies or toast (or anything) over their laptops. Fine crumbs or other debris can cause keys to stick, but that likely wouldn’t cause the type of problem the user is experiencing. Oftentimes a laptop keyboard can be replaced fairly easily assuming a compatible one can be found, but in this case, the problem is most likely caused by a loose ribbon cable connecting the keyboard to the motherboard, or a corrupted driver.
Your boss has asked you to maximize the RAM in their laptop computer. You check the specifications and discover that the maximum system RAM is 32 GB of DDR4 RAM. The laptop currently has 16 GB onboard RAM and one empty slot. Which of the following RAM modules will you purchase?
A.One 16 GB SODIMM
B.One 32 GB SODIMM
C.One 16 GB DIMM
D.One 32 GB DIMM
A. You will always check the device’s documentation before purchasing components to ensure compatibility. In a laptop, RAM is often soldered directly onto the motherboard (onboard) and isn’t meant to be replaced by most users. Since the maximum system RAM is 32 GB, you would need one 16 GB RAM module to bring it up to that total. The SO in SODIMM stands for Small Outline and is the type of RAM module used in devices like laptops and sometimes printers. DIMMs (Dual Inline Memory Modules) are used in desktop computers.
A friend is trying to install an update on their iPod, but they’re receiving a message about insufficient space. They want to know if you can upgrade their storage. What will you tell them?
A.Sure, bring it over later today.
B.Storage can’t be upgraded. You’ll need to buy a new iPod.
C.Storage can’t be upgraded, but you may be able to offload some apps you no longer use.
D.Just purchase more space on iCloud; it’s the same thing.
C. The short answer is that no, storage on an iPhone, iPad, iPod, or almost any small device can’t be upgraded. When you buy one of these devices, it’s best to buy as much storage as you can afford. Attaching the device to your PC and doing the upgrade there may work. If not, you may not have to buy a new iPod if you have some data that you no longer need like conversations from years ago, or if you have some apps that you no longer use and can delete. You should be able to download them again later onto a new device. iCloud is storage in the cloud, and not the same as storage on your device; however, you could store photos in iCloud Photos or use Messages in iCloud to save space on the device.
You need to replace a failed hard drive in a user’s laptop, and it’s a model you are unfamiliar with. You look at the bottom of the laptop and see no obvious entrance points. Which component will you most likely need to remove to access the hard drive bay?
A.Plastics/frames
B.Battery
C.System board
D.Keyboard
D. As a rule of thumb, either you can access components from the bottom of a laptop, such as the memory and Mini PCIe card, or you’re going to need to remove the keyboard to access the components from the top.
You are on the phone talking to a technician who is trying to upgrade a laptop. The technician is having trouble identifying the Mini PCIe card. How wide should you tell the technician that the card is?
A.27 mm
B.30 mm
C.51 mm
D.60 mm
B. Mini PCIe cards come in two sizes. The full-size cards measure 30 mm wide and 51 mm long. Half-size cards are 30 mm wide and 27 mm long.
Your friend wants to be able to use their phone to pay for purchases at a popular coffee shop. They noticed that the phone needs to be about 4″ from the coffee shop’s reader. What radio wave communication type do you need to configure for your friend?
A.NFC
B.Wi-Fi
C.IrDA
D.Bluetooth
A. Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that uses radio frequency (RF) signals with limited range, about 4″ (10 cm). Bluetooth and Wi-Fi have greater ranges, and IrDA uses infrared light and requires line-of-sight communications. IrDA is no longer popular.
You’re upgrading the Wi-Fi card in a manager’s laptop and notice that the antenna cable is frayed, so you need to replace that too. What will you likely need to do to replace the antenna?
A.Wrap the antenna with electrical tape.
B.Open the display to replace the cable.
C.Attach a dongle for the new cable.
D.Just install the new card because the antenna is part of the card.
B. Often in laptops, the antenna is housed in the display area of the laptop. You would most likely need to separate the display from the laptop’s motherboard section to open it and replace the antenna cable. It will also likely have two different parts, a right and a left antenna, so make sure you get the right one.
Your boss has asked you to make sure that each of the company’s laptops has a biometric scanner as an extra measure of security. Which of the following are biometric devices that are commonly found and can be configured on laptops? (Choose two.)
A.ID card scanner
B.Face ID
C.Fingerprint reader
D.Retina scanner
B, C. Biometrics are using part of your body to identify you. An ID card is not biometric. Retina scanners are used in some secure environments but are not commonly found on laptops, but facial recognition like Apple’s Face ID and Windows Hello are on most modern laptops. Fingerprint readers can be found on many laptops, or can be easily added.
Your company is producing posters for an upcoming public relations campaign. The project leader wants to embed information into an NFC Type 4 tag in the poster. How much information can this tag hold?
A.16 KB
B.32 KB
C.1.4 MB
D.2.4 MB
B. Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that uses radio frequency (RF) signals with limited range, about 4″ (10 cm). To read an NFC tag in a poster, you would move your phone close to the tag. The phone would generate a small RF field that would power the tag, and data could then be read from the tag. There are five types of tags that vary in speed from 106 kbps to 2424 kbps and in maximum capacities from 2 KB to 32 KB. Type 4 holds the most data but is slower than Type 3.
You’ve been asked by the company president what can be done with NFC in addition to paying for coffee. What will you tell them? (Choose three.)
A.Securely share data with someone you’re having lunch with.
B.Beam data to someone 10 feet away.
C.Transfer files, photos, and videos.
D.Add information or URLs to business cards, making it easier for customers to learn about your products or services.
A, C, D. NFC can do so much more than pay for your coffee. In addition to the answers above, NFC tags can be set up to automate tasks instead of manually changing settings, such as silencing an alarm or logging into a PC. In some places they can allow your phone to be your bus pass. They’re considered secure for communication because of the short distance between devices.
You are investigating new laptops for your company. You want the laptop displays to have a wide viewing angle. Which technology standard is best suited for your needs?
A.LED
B.SVA
C.IPS
D.TN
C. There are three types of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) technologies listed in the A+ exam objectives: Twisted Nematic (TN), In-Plane Switching (IPS), and Vertical Alignment (VA). IPS LCDs provide better color representation as well as wider viewing angles, so that would be the best choice for this situation. Their drawbacks are somewhat slower response times and they tend to be a bit more expensive. Considering the other two types of LCD technologies, TN displays were developed first. They use less power compared to IPS and VA; however, when you start viewing them at wider angles, the picture quality suffers greatly. VA LCDs have slower response times than either IPS or TN, but they have the best contrast and image depth. SVA, or Super Vertical Alignment, is a Samsung term, not a standard, but it claims to offer better viewing angles than VA displays. LED monitors use Light Emitting Diodes as the backlight for an LCD. There are also microLED monitors and OLED monitors that create colors using LEDs with no backlight required.
Which type of LCD has the best contrast, meaning the darkest black and lightest white?
A.TN
B.IPS
C.VA
D.OLED
C. OLED (Organic LED) monitors are not LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) monitors. Each of the other three has their advantages. TN (Twisted Nematic) displays have the fastest refresh rates, IPS (In-Plane Switching) displays have the best viewing angle, and VA (Vertical Alignment) displays have the best color contrast.
Of the laptop LCD technologies, which consumes the least amount of power?
A.LED
B.IPS
C.TN
D.VA
C. There are three types of Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) technologies listed in the exam objectives: Twisted Nematic (TN), In-Plane Switching (IPS), and Vertical Alignment (VA). Of those three display types, TN uses the least amount of power. TN displays also have very fast refresh rates. The issue with TN LCD screens is that when you start viewing them at wider angles, the picture quality suffers greatly. IPS LCDs provide better color representation as well as wider-angle viewing, but they tend to be a bit more expensive and have somewhat slower response times. VA LCDs have slower response times than either IPS or TN, but they have the best contrast and image depth. LED (Light-Emitting Diode) refers to a type of backlighting for LCD monitors.
You have recently purchased a laptop computer with a touchscreen. It allows you to draw images on the screen and save them on the computer. Which device is responsible for converting the input into the image that you see and save?
A.Inverter
B.Touchpad
C.Digitizer
D.Touchscreen
C. A digitizer is a device that can be written or drawn on and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer. Digitizers take input from a user’s finger or a writing utensil, such as a stylus. Touchscreen devices and touchpads have a digitizer built into them. An inverter changes DC (Direct Current) to AC (Alternating Current) and is needed for some types of backlighting.
Of the laptop components listed, which one is least likely to be built into the display?
A.Wi-Fi antenna
B.Speakers
C.Webcam
D.Digitizer
B. Common components to include in the display are the screen, Wi-Fi antenna, webcam, microphone, inverter, and digitizer. Speakers are often near the keyboard on a laptop; however, some desktop displays have built-in speakers.
Which mobile device component can take input from a stylus or your finger, depending on the sensor type, and convert it into an image on the laptop or other mobile device?
A.Digitizer
B.Touchpad
C.Point stick
D.Inverter
A. A digitizer is a device that can be written or drawn on, and the content will be converted from analog input to digital images on the computer. Digitizers take input from a user’s finger or a writing utensil, such as a stylus. Digitizers may be built into laptop and mobile device displays, or they can be separate devices that connect to a computer via a USB or other cable. Touchpads and pointing sticks convert your finger movement to mouse movement on the display. An inverter is used in CCFL displays to convert DC to AC.
Which type of mobile device is known for using electrophoretic ink?
A.E-reader
B.Smart watch
C.Smart glasses
D.Tablet
A. Most e-reader displays use a technology called electrophoretic ink, or E Ink, which is a proprietary type of electronic paper. Although E Ink is available in color, many consider its best applications to be in grayscales or pure black and white. Additionally, E Ink uses almost no power to keep print on the page until the print is changed.
What three components of a mobile display are often connected in such a way that if one fails, you must replace the other two with it? (Choose three.)
A.Glass cover
B.LCD
C.Wi-Fi antenna
D.Digitizer
A, B, D. The digitizer on a mobile device is a thin layer of electronic material that is glued or fused onto the back of the glass. Popular new smartphones are fusing all three together, so if the ability to communicate with the smartphone through touch fails, you must replace not only the digitizer but the glass cover and LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) as well. If the glass cover shatters, then the digitizer and LCD are replaced as well because it is sold as one unit. The Wi-Fi antenna is usually a discrete part inside the case.
An artist in your company’s marketing department just received the new drawing pad that they ordered. What might you need to do to configure it? (Choose three.)
A.Install an alternate operating system.
B.Plug the device into an appropriate port, likely USB.
C.Enable Windows Ink or other software settings.
D.Calibrate the device.
B, C, D. Some drawing pads simply plug into the USB port of a laptop and they work just fine. Higher-end devices will likely need more setup but will pay off in quality. Some will need special software installed, including drivers, and that software will need to be configured. Most likely you’ll want to enable and configure Windows Ink. You may need to calibrate a drawing pad when you first connect it or only if the movement of the stylus is off from the movement on the screen. It’s unlikely that you’ll need a different operating system to use it.
One of your coworkers has purchased an external Bluetooth trackpad to use with their tablet. They’ve turned to you, the company IT person, to install and configure it for them. What actions will you need to take? (Choose two.)
A.Plug the device into a USB port.
B.Install drivers.
C.Put the device in pairing mode and open Bluetooth settings on the tablet, then tap the trackpad.
D.Go to Settings to configure speed and scrolling features.
C, D. Configuring a new Bluetooth trackpad is a fairly simple procedure. You first need to pair the device with the tablet, then configure it for speed and clicking and such.
What type of connection are you using if you use a USB cable to connect your laptop to your cell phone in order to use the cellular wireless connection from the laptop?
A.Hotspot
B.Tethering
C.USB networking
D.Phoning
B. Tethering is connecting a device to a mobile hotspot. The term used to be reserved only for when you were connected via USB cable, as opposed to connecting via wireless. Some devices will not function as a mobile hotspot but will allow you to tether a mobile device to it with a USB cable so that the mobile device can share the cellular Internet connection.
A laptop user wants to have a full-sized display and keyboard, as well as an external hard drive, and speakers available to them at their desk. Which accessory can they purchase to avoid plugging each of these devices separately into their laptop every time they return to the desk? (Choose two.)
A.KVM switch
B.Port replicator
C.Desktop station
D.Docking station
B, D. A docking station often replicates the functions of the ports on the back of a laptop so that peripherals such as displays, keyboards, printers, and so on that don’t travel with the laptop can remain connected to the dock and don’t all have to be unplugged physically each time the laptop is taken away. Docking stations effectively turn a laptop computer into a desktop computer, and the docking station may offer its own devices, such as an optical drive and speakers. It may have a generic connector such as USB-C or a proprietary connector. Docking station can also mean a charging cradle for a smartphone or tablet to plug in vertically that provides other functions such as built-in speakers for music playback or a clock. Two examples are Android Radio and Music Dock or Apple’s Universal Dock. This differs from a port replicator, whose main function is to let the user connect several devices at once and doesn’t require the laptop to be connected to offer connectivity between the devices. A KVM switch enables you to use one keyboard, video device, and mouse (hence the name, KVM) with two or more system units. Desktop station is not an actual term.
A user needs ports for external devices in addition to what their laptop is capable of connecting. The user would like these devices to have connectivity with each other whether or not the laptop is there. Which of the following will provide that option?
A.Docking station
B.Port replicator
C.KVM switch
D.Docking port
B. A port replicator is an attachment that provides the same ports as or additional ports to a laptop. The devices can communicate with each other via the port replicator whether or not the laptop is there. Docking stations are similar to port replicators because they provide a single connection to a laptop that will connect several devices, but the point of the docking station is to effectively make a laptop function as a desktop PC. Whereas a docking station may (or may not) be a proprietary device, a port replicator is not, and will generally provide a connection to the external devices via a USB or similar port. Docking station can also mean a charging cradle for a smartphone or tablet. KVM switches allow multiple system units to share a keyboard, video and mouse. Docking port is not an actual term.
Which laptop expansion port technology was developed by Apple and Intel and supports a wide variety of peripheral devices?
A.USB
B.DisplayPort
C.eSATA
D.Thunderbolt
D. Thunderbolt was co-developed by Apple and Intel as an offshoot of the DisplayPort technology. Apple added support for PCIe and launched it in 2011. In terms of versatility, it’s second only to USB. You will find video devices, hard drives (both HDD and SSD), printers, laptop docking stations, audio devices, and PCIe expansion enclosures that use Thunderbolt. Thunderbolt 3 is compatible with USB-C.
You’re upgrading a user’s laptop from 802.11n to 802.11ac. What port will you most likely use inside the laptop?
A.PCI
B.PCIe
C.Mini PCIe
D.Mini PCIe x16
C. Mini PCIe is just for small devices like laptops. PCI and PCIe are found on desktop PCs. PCIe x16 (x16 is pronounced as by 16) is often used for video at blazing speeds. PCIe x1 is popular for all sorts of devices. There is no Mini PCIe x16.
You’re the IT manager for a manufacturing company. One of the corporate executives is questioning why you’re buying serial instead of parallel devices. You explain that serial transmits only one bit of information at a time, but it does so very fast compared to parallel. Which of the following will you tell them is not a serial connection?
A.Centronics
B.Thunderbolt
C.Lightning
D.USB-C
A. Centronics is a common name for a parallel port. Parallel ports are now legacy because serial communications are so much faster. Thunderbolt, Lightning, and USB-C all use serial communications, and they are very fast.
What type of connector is used on Android smartphones? (Choose two.)
A.Lightning
B.Thunderbolt
C.USB-C
D.USB Micro-B
C, D. Older Android devices used the USB Micro-B connector, while newer Android smartphones use the USB-C connector. Lightning is the connector used by iPhones, and Thunderbolt has a connector whose shape looks identical to a USB-C, but Thunderbolt is much faster.
The AC adapter for your laptop is not working properly, and you are searching for a replacement. Which two factors should be most important when selecting a new AC adapter? (Choose two.)
A.Polarity
B.Same wattage as the original
C.Brand of the adapter
D.Size of the adapter
A, B. You should choose an AC adapter rated for the same wattage as the original. You must also pay special attention to the voltage and polarity of the plug that interfaces with the laptop. If the laptop requires the positive lead to be the center conductor, for instance, then you must take care not to reverse the polarity. It’s best to find one that advertises compatibility with the device it will be charging.
How do modern docking stations connect to laptops? (Choose two.)
A.USB 2
B.USB-C
C.Thunderbolt 3 or 4
D.HDMI
B, C. Legacy docking stations would have a proprietary port that would align with a connector, usually on the bottom or back of a laptop. The docking stations would be proprietary, meaning they can only work with specific equipment. Modern docking stations connect with the fast USB-C or Thunderbolt ports, and sometimes USB-A ports. They often supply their own power and can make a laptop seem like a desktop by plugging in one cable that connects your laptop to multiple monitors, gigabit Ethernet, audio, or almost any other port type. Docking station can also mean a charging cradle for a smartphone or tablet to plug in vertically that provides other functions such as built-in speakers for music playback or a clock. Two examples are Android Radio and Music Dock or Apple’s Universal Dock.
Note: USB-C is an industry-standard connector for transmitting both data and power on a single cable.
You have enabled the GPS service in your tablet. What is the minimum number of GPS satellites your tablet needs to be in contact with to determine its location?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
C. GPS systems were designed to require multiple satellites. Receivers use a process called triangulation, which they use to calculate the distance between themselves and the satellites (based on the time it takes to receive a signal) to determine their location. They require input from four satellites to provide location and elevation or three to provide location.
A technician needs to replace a failed laptop hard drive. Which of the following form factors could it use?
A.1.3″
B.2.0″
C.2.5″
D.3.5″
C. An older laptop hard drive will be one of two form factors (sizes): 1.8″, which is now considered legacy, or 2.5″. Modern laptops most likely use either mSATA or M.2 drives, which are thinner than a RAM module and much smaller. Desktop computers have historically used 3.5″ hard drives.
You want to play video games on your tablet computer. Which accessory would you purchase if you wanted to play the game much like you would on a gaming console?
A.Docking station
B.Touch pad
C.Point stick
D.Game pad
D. A good game controller can make your mobile device feel a bit more like a gaming console. Most of the game pads will look like standard console controllers and connect via Bluetooth. Touchpads and pointing sticks are input devices like a mouse. Touchpads are usually rectangular areas on a laptop where your finger movements replace moving a mouse. A pointing stick will usually be in the middle of a keyboard and is controlled with a single finger pushing the stick in any direction. A docking station lets a laptop connect to multiple devices with a single connection on the laptop, enabling the user to use it easily with full-sized devices like a desktop PC.
Your new laptop has 4 GB system RAM and an integrated video card. The default setting specifies 512 MB of video memory. How much RAM is available for the processor to use?
A.4 GB.
B.3.5 GB.
C.3 GB.
D.It’s variable.
B. Many laptops use shared video memory, meaning that system RAM is divided up for use between the processor and the video card. On these types of systems, the amount of RAM available for video is configured in the BIOS/UEFI. Anything reserved for the video card is unavailable to the processor. In this case, subtracting half a gigabyte from 4 GB leaves the CPU with 3.5 GB.
Tablet computers feature touchscreens that are approximately what size?
A.Between 5″ and 7″
B.Between 3″ and 5″
C.Between 7″ and 12″
D.Between 12″ and 24″
C. Tablet screen sizes typically fall anywhere between 7″ and 12″, although you can find much larger ones with 24″ displays.
Which type of network connection is least likely to be found on a tablet computer?
A.Wi-Fi
B.Bluetooth
C.RJ-45
D.Cellular
C. RJ-45 is an 8-pin connector commonly used to connect computers to a local area network (LAN). Tablets are designed for mobile communication. As such, most tablets come equipped with Wi-Fi and Bluetooth, and many have cellular capabilities as well.
You are upgrading a laptop with a Mini PCIe card. What type of connector does Mini PCIe use?
A.52-pin
B.68-pin
C.144-pin
D.200-pin
A. Mini PCIe cards use a 52-pin connector. The Mini PCIe cards are 30 mm wide and come in full length (50.95 mm) and half length (26.8 mm). 68-pin connectors are used with SCSI devices, whereas 144-pin and 200-pin are SODIMM connector sizes.
What is the likely type of Wi-Fi antenna connector you will find as an external connector on a laptop?
A.SMA-female-RP
B.N-male
C.SMA-male-RP
D.N-female
A. The overwhelming majority of Wi-Fi antenna connectors for indoor-rated antennas found on laptops are type SMA (SubMiniature version A). On the device will be an SMA-female. What makes a connector “male” is the center pin and threads on the inside, while a “female” connector will have a receptor for the pin and threads on the outside. RP (reverse polarity) means that the pin and receptor are in opposite positions with regard to connector gender while the outside housing remains the same. SMA-RP and SMA are therefore not compatible with each other. N-type connectors look similar but are weatherproof and larger than SMA connectors.
After enabling your device for communication using the IEEE 802.15.1 standard, what is the next step?
A.Enter the PIN code.
B.Find a device for pairing.
C.Enable pairing.
D.Open port 802.15.1.
C. The IEEE standard 802.15.1 is commonly known as Bluetooth. The CompTIA A+ objectives list the steps for connecting Bluetooth devices as follows:
Enable Bluetooth.
Enable pairing.
Find a device for pairing.
Enter the appropriate PIN code.
Test connectivity.
You’ve enabled Bluetooth on your new headset and your laptop and enabled pairing on both. They have discovered each other, so what is the typical next step?
A.Pressing and holding a Bluetooth button
B.Entering the Bluetooth password
C.Entering the Bluetooth PIN code
D.Exiting out of any running Bluetooth applications
C. When pairing two Bluetooth devices, depending on the security settings, it is sometimes necessary to enter a Bluetooth PIN code. In security configuration menus, the PIN is sometimes referred to as the Bluetooth passcode or passkey. The CompTIA A+ objectives list the steps for connecting Bluetooth devices as follows:
Enable Bluetooth.
Enable pairing.
Find a device for pairing.
Enter the appropriate PIN code.
Test connectivity.
You’re configuring private email on a coworker’s cell phone. They want to make sure all of their mail will be only on their phone. Which mail protocol keeps all emails stored on a single device and can only be accessed from one device?
A.IMAP
B.SMTP
C.POP3
D.S/MIME
C. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) keeps emails stored on one device. This means both sent and received messages are stored on that one device, so all email is accessed from that device. The IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) downloads mail but leaves a copy on the server. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol for sending (not receiving) mail. S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is an encryption standard for securing email.
You’re configuring company email on a coworker’s phone. The company needs to keep a copy of every email on their server, even after it’s accessed by the user. Which mail protocol keeps all emails stored on the server, allowing messages to be synchronized between multiple devices?
A.IMAP
B.SMTP
C.POP3
D.S/MIME
A. Internet Messaging Access Protocol (IMAP) keeps a copy of emails on the server. This allows someone to view and work with their email from more than one device. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a protocol for sending (not receiving) mail. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads mail to a device and does not leave a copy on a server. Once downloaded, mail can only be read on that device. S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is an encryption standard for securing email.
What is the hosted messaging version of Microsoft’s Exchange mail server that saves customers email off-site?
A.Google Inbox
B.Exchange Online
C.iExchange
D.On-Prem Exchange
B. Exchange Online is the cloud service version of Microsoft Exchange and part of Microsoft Office 365.
What configuration settings are commonly used when setting up email from an online provider on a device?
A.Active Directory domain name
B.Port and TLS settings
C.Email server name
D.Username and password
D. If you use a common email provider such as Google, Yahoo, Outlook, or iCloud, then setting up email on a device should be simple. Often all you need is your username and password. If setting up a corporate account or if you must manually configure email, then you’ll need more information such as the protocol (IMAP [Internet Message Access Protocol] or POP3 [Post Office Protocol version 3]) and the server names for sending and receiving email. You may also need the port number and security settings.
What type of update is done to mobile devices over the air?
A.PRI and PRL
B.IMEI
C.Screen resolution
D.IMSI
A. The Preferred Roaming List (PRL) and Product Release Instructions (PRI) deal with how your phone connects to the correct mobile tower and network. Updates to this information on the phone is typically done over the air. Your IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) and IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity) and screen resolution can’t typically be changed. IMEI identifies the exact device, and IMSI uniquely identifies the account holder.
Which number that is a part of the GSM system is hard-coded into the phone and identifies your physical phone hardware to the cellular tower?
A.PRI
B.IMSI
C.IMEI
D.MAC
C. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is a unique number assigned to the physical phone. This unique identifier is hard-coded into the device. The Product Release Instructions (PRI) describe how your device connects to the network. An IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity) number uniquely identifies the account holder, and a MAC (Media Access Control) address uniquely identifies a network interface card.
Which unique mobile number identifies you as a user and is coded into the SIM card if you’re on a GSM network, or otherwise linked to your account, allowing you to transition from one phone to another?
A.PRI
B.IMSI
C.IMEI
D.MAC
B. The International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI) is a unique number that identifies you, the user, to the cellular service. If you’re on a GSM network, it is on your SIM card and can easily be transferred from one phone to another. If you’re on a CDMA network, you must transfer from one phone to another by activating the phone on your account. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is a unique number assigned to the physical phone. This unique identifier is hard-coded into the device. The Product Release Instructions (PRI) describe how your device connects to the network, and a MAC (Media Access Control) address uniquely identifies a network interface card.
A user is traveling to a country that employs content blocking technology on the cellular network. What would you suggest setting up to bypass the content blocking as well as keep the user’s mobile browsing more private?
A.S/MIME
B.PRL
C.Baseband
D.VPN
D. A virtual private network (VPN) will keep browsing confidential as well as bypass any local content blocking efforts. S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is an encryption standard for securing email. Baseband is a type of signaling technology that only allows for one signal on a medium at a time (Ethernet uses this). The Preferred Roaming List (PRL) ensures that your cellphone connects to the most appropriate tower based on your location and provider.
What best practice can save someone from losing the data such as calendar entries and contacts on their mobile device if the device is lost?
A.Synchronization
B.VPN
C.Encryption
D.Updating
A. Synchronization means to duplicate or back up the data from the device. Synchronization can be done to the local desktop, to the cloud service off premises, or even to an automobile. A VPN (virtual private network) uses encryption protocols to safeguard communications across a shared transmission medium (like the Internet) and mimics the network connection you would have if you were in the same building as your server. Encryption is using algorithms to change data so that it can’t be read by unauthorized people or devices, thus protecting your data and logins. Updating is a generic term for modernizing and adding features to something.
A user wants a list of favorite websites to be readily available between multiple devices, including their mobile device. What is the best option?
A.Email weblinks to self.
B.Send links to a URL shortening service.
C.Synchronize bookmarks.
D.Print web URLs to carry.
C. When you synchronize bookmarks between devices, the website addresses are copied and readily available. The same synchronization can be done for several media types, such as videos, music, pictures, and documents.
What technology lets you minimize how often a user must log in for multiple services?
A.SSO
B.SMTP
C.Synchronization
D.Nonrepudiation
A. Single sign-on (SSO) is the authentication feature of users logging into their device, which in turn uses their authorization and credentials to authenticate to other systems or services. This is implemented through Active Directory (AD) or another centralized service that could store a user’s privileges. Since the user was authenticated through the service (like Active Directory) and that service is trusted by the other software, the user is not required to log into the other software. SMTP is a protocol for sending email, synchronization means updating between systems, and nonrepudiation is proof of delivery or access such that a party can’t later say they didn’t access or see something. Nonrepudiation is a principle of information security.
You’re installing Bluetooth speakers in a conference room and just entered the pin to connect the two devices. What is your next step?
A.Enable pairing.
B.Search for the Bluetooth device.
C.Enable Bluetooth.
D.Test connectivity.
D. As with any device installation in IT, the last step is to verify that the device works as intended. The CompTIA A+ objectives list the steps for connecting Bluetooth devices as follows:
Enable Bluetooth.
Enable pairing.
Find a device for pairing.
Enter the appropriate PIN code.
Test connectivity.
You’re going hiking this weekend in unfamiliar territory and have installed an application on your phone that shows you where you are on the map in relation to the trails and surrounding areas. What two types of location technology might this app use? (Choose two.)
A.GPS
B.MDM
C.Cellular location services
D.RFID
A, C. Both GPS and cellular location services can be used to pinpoint the location of any device on Earth that has a GPS receiver or cellular service. GPS finds your location by pinging satellites whereas cellular location services use two or more cell phone towers. MDM is a type of data security for mobile devices, and RFID is radio frequency ID, which is often used for inventory management.
You’re at home binging on a popular Internet movie service and suddenly notice that the spinning wheel is showing up often, taking more time to download the movie than normal. What is likely the problem?
A.Your router needs to be reset.
B.You have reached your data cap.
C.Your laptop is overheating.
D.The service is overwhelmed with requests.
B. While it’s possible that the server has too many requests, the more likely culprit to your slow downloads is that you’ve reached your Internet service’s data cap and your service has slowed down. This can happen whether it’s a home service or a cell phone. Some services may cut you off completely and others merely send you a text message that you’ve reached your limit so they’ll be slowing your connection or billing you more. If the router needed to be reset, the symptoms would be different. If the laptop was overheating, it would most likely shut down.
The executives at your company are concerned about employees using their personal devices for work. They worry that someone may leave and take proprietary information with them. You calm their fears by telling them that there are settings in place that protect company data that is accessed by employees. What are those settings called? (Choose two.)
MDM
MAM
GSM
CDMA
A, B. Mobile Application Management (MAM) protects corporate data while being used on employee’s personal devices. It can force employees to save all work files in the company’s OneDrive, encrypt files and delete them after a period of time, and restrict employees from downloading company content. It can even delete company files when a device has become inactive. Mobile Device Management (MDM) systems can be used to wipe data from a device and restore it to factory settings. GSM and CDMA are cellular communication systems.
Which of the following display types refers not to how the liquid crystals are arranged, but rather to the type of backlight being used?
A.LED
B.OLED
C.IPS
D.TN
A. LED (Light-Emitting Diode) refers to the light source used as backlighting for an LCD (Liquid Crystal Display). OLED displays do not need backlighting because their carbon-based diodes emit both light and colors. IPS, TN, and VA are all types of LCD monitors that need a backlight. Not on the CompTIA A+ exam yet are micro-LED displays, where the LED produces the color and the light similar to an OLED, and mini-LED monitors that provide backlighting for LCDs but use a much smaller LED, allowing for better color specificity.
The Wi-Fi connection between your laptop and network has failed. Upon examining Device Manager you notice that the network card is not listed. You’ve reseated the card and it still isn’t found in Device Manager, so you’ve decided to replace it. Which of the following card types will you likely need to purchase?
A.PCIe
B.PCI
C.M.2
D.PCMCIA
C. Most likely you’ll need to purchase an M.2 Wi-Fi card, and it’s the only option listed that would work. Before you purchase a replacement, verify that your laptop has an internal connector and note what type it is. Then disable the onboard Wi-Fi, if there is one, before installing the new card. Mini-PCIe is a laptop connector standard that was largely replaced by M.2 connectors. PCIe and PCI are for desktop computers; PCI having been replaced by the newer, faster PCIe. PCMCIA is a legacy type of laptop connector. If there is no internal connector for a Wi-Fi card, you could purchase a USB Wi-Fi card, but it will take up one of your ports and may get bumped, and it was not listed as an option for this question.
A technician needs to replace a hard drive that failed in their new laptop. What type of drive will they likely need? (Choose two.)
A.M.2
B.mSATA
C.2.52
D.3.52
A, B. Modern laptops most likely use either mSATA or M.2 drives, which are thinner than a RAM module and much smaller. Legacy laptops used 1.8” or 2.5” drives, and desktop computers have historically used 3.5² hard drives.
Mini-SATA, also known as mSATA, is a smaller version of the serial ATA connection. It is used to connect solid-state drives in portable computing devices, such as laptops and netbooks. Mini-SATA devices are usually a bit smaller that the standard size of business card (shown right), and permit data transfer speeds of either 1.5 GB/s or 3.0 GB/s.
