Hardware Flashcards
Your company employs a team of trainers who travel to remote locations to make presentations and teach classes. The team has been issued new laptops to use for those presentations and classes. A contractor is coming to your office to show the trainers the ports they will use to connect different devices for the presentations. Which of the following will he most likely need to demonstrate? (Choose all that apply.)
A) VGA ports
B) ExpressCard ports
C) DisplayPort ports
D) Audio jacks
E) USB port adapters
F) RJ-45 ports
A) VGA ports
C) DisplayPort ports
E) USB port adapters
A user has recently moved to the United States from the United Kingdom. He contacts you asking how to switch his desktop computer to the appropriate voltage. What should you tell him to do?
A) Replace the power supply.
B) Slide the switch on the inside of the power supply to the appropriate voltage.
C) Slide the voltage switch on the side of the power supply to the appropriate voltage.
D) Slide the switch on the motherboard to the appropriate voltage.
C) Slide the voltage switch on the side of the power supply to the appropriate voltage.
You need to implement a RAID level that duplicates a partition on another physical disk, providing two identical copies of the data. Which RAID level should you use?
A) Level 2
B) Level 3
C) Level 0
D) Level 1
E) Level 5
F) Level 4
D) Level 1
RAID Level 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates the original disk, and this duplicate is placed on a separate disk, creating a “mirror.” Disk mirroring requires two disks of equal size. It is simple to implement and offers fast recovery if a single disk fails. However, because disk mirroring requires the duplication of the initial partition, only 50% of the total available disk space is used. RAID Level 1 is less efficient when performing disk writes.
Disk duplexing is also implemented at RAID Level 1. Disk duplexing builds on disk mirroring by adding a controller for each disk channel. Disk duplexing eliminates the disk controller as a single point of failure in the system.
RAID Level 0 is disk striping. A RAID-0 volume consists of two hard drives where data is striped across the entire volume. This RAID level provides no fault tolerance and fast data-writing speeds.
RAID Level 2 is disk striping with hamming parity. It requires at least three disks. Data is striped across the disks, and hamming parity information is calculated and stored on the parity disk. This RAID level is not popular.
RAID Level 3 is a striped set with dedicated parity. It requires at least three disks. One disk in the volume is a dedicated parity disk. Data is striped across the remaining disks.
RAID Level 4 is similar to RAID Level 3. However, RAID Level 4 does block-level striping instead of byte-level striping.
RAID Level 5 is disk striping with parity. It requires at least three disks. This level provides fault tolerance. All of the disks in the volume appear as one disk to the end user, and parity information is spread across all the disks.
A user reports that his Windows computer often issues errors about running out of virtual memory. The performance is sometimes sluggish. You want to increase the amount of available virtual memory.
What should you do?
A) Restart the computer.
B) Open the case and verify the type of RAM installed.
C) Edit the size of the paging file in the CMOS.
D) Edit the size of the paging file in the operating system.
D) Edit the size of the paging file in the operating system.
You should edit the size of the paging file in the operating system. In many Windows versions, you can accomplish this by clicking the Settings button in the Performance section of the System Properties dialog box’s Advanced tab. Virtual memory is managed by the operating system. The initial size and maximum size of the paging file can be manually configured by the user. The paging file is virtual memory.
You should not open the case and verify the type of RAM installed. This is a necessary step when upgrading RAM because the Windows operating system can tell you the amount of memory installed, but not the type of memory installed. The only way to discover this is by physically inspecting the RAM chips. Upgrading the RAM will not increase the amount of virtual memory. However, increasing the amount of RAM in your system can often decrease the need for virtual memory.
You cannot edit the size of the paging file in the CMOS. Virtual memory is not managed or configured in the CMOS.
You should not restart the computer. This will reset the paging file so that the virtual memory problem goes away temporarily. However, it does not increase the size of the virtual memory file.
Sluggish performance can be caused by a variety of different issues. If you notice performance is abnormally slow, try updating device drivers, expanding the available RAM, checking the integrity/updating operating system files, and closing background applications. Sluggish performance can also indicate a hard drive failure, fragmented data, or a malware infection.
You are using a color inkjet printer. You print an image containing multiple colors. However, colors in the printed document are not the same as those displayed on the monitor. You want to ensure that printed documents contain the same colors as displayed on your monitor. What should you do?
A) Calibrate the printer.
B) Remove the color cartridge of the printer, shake it, and replace in the printer.
C) Change the screen resolution of your computer to 800 × 600 pixels.
D) Install a new color cartridge in the printer.
A) Calibrate the printer.
You should calibrate the printer to ensure that printed documents contain the same color as those displayed on your monitor. When colors of an image are different on your monitor than the printed output of the image, the first step is to calibrate your monitor. The next step is to calibrate your printer, which can be done by using the printer software. For an inkjet printer, you should also perform the following routine maintenance: clean the print heads, replace the cartridges, and clear paper jams.
You should not install a new color cartridge. You should install a new color cartridge when the ink in the cartridge has run out. You should not shake the color cartridge. You should remove and shake the color cartridge of the printer when you suspect that the printer ink has dried. You should not change the screen resolution of your computer to 800 × 600 pixels. The screen resolution of a computer is used to specify the size of objects and text to be displayed on the screen.
Steven wants to upgrade the RAM in his gaming system. Which features are important considerations before he adds memory modules to a computer’s system board? (Choose two.)
A) Parity
B) Level 1 cache
C) CPU type
D) Access speed
A) Parity
D) Access speed
Adding new memory modules with access speeds and parity settings different from those of existing modules on the same memory bank can cause intermittent system failures. Therefore, the most important considerations are access speed and parity.
Access speed refers to the amount of time a memory module requires to provide data to a memory controller. Access speed is measured in nanoseconds. The memory controller is the interface between physical memory and a computer’s central processing unit (CPU); it is typically part of a system board’s chipset. Mixing modules of different speeds on the same memory bank can cause a computer to stop responding on an intermittent basis and may result in data corruption. Even if the computer is operational with the memory mixture, the memory will run at a slower speed, matching that of the memory module with a slower speed.
Parity is an error-detection method used to verify whether information has been lost as data is moved from one location to another. Memory modules are classified as either parity or nonparity, depending on whether they perform error checking. Combining parity random access memory (RAM) with nonparity RAM can sometimes generate parity errors at startup. It is safest to ensure that all modules within a bank have an identical parity setting, although adding parity modules on a nonparity system board is occasionally feasible.
A system board’s documentation should clarify its minimum access speed requirements for memory modules. It is possible to add memory modules that operate faster than a system board’s minimum requirement, as long as memory modules within a bank have the same access speed. Using faster memory will not provide any performance benefit. Using memory slower than the minimum requirement, however, will cause a computer’s CPU to waste time waiting for slower memory modules during input/output (I/O). Observing the system board’s bank order requires that memory bank 0 be completely filled before memory is added to bank 1, and banks 0 and 1 must be completely filled before memory is added to bank 2, and so on. All memory modules are extremely sensitive to static electricity, so caution should be used when installing or removing them.
Although a Level 1 cache is RAM, a Level 1 cache is built into a CPU and is not a memory module located on a computer’s system board. Neither the CPU nor its cache is a factor that the technician needs to consider when adding memory to a system board. If the computer does not see the memory after it is added, you should check the system BIOS. The BIOS may not be configured to read that amount of memory.
You replace a black ink cartridge in your inkjet printer, and now the printouts consist of jagged lines and characters. What is the first action you should take to resolve the problem?
A) Remove and reinstall the cartridge.
B) Run a printer alignment program.
C) Print a test page.
D) Run a printer diagnostics program.
B) Run a printer alignment program.
After you install a new printer cartridge in an inkjet printer, you should run the printer alignment program to align the inkjet print heads. This should allow the printer to produce clearer output. After you replace an ink cartridge and attempt to print, you will usually receive a message that recommends the running of the alignment program. You should also run the alignment program for your printer if you notice at any time that vertical or horizontal lines in your printer output are not aligned. The jagged printing is due to very small differences between the new and the original cartridges, and the alignment program is specifically designed to adjust for these differences.
Printing a test page will simply produce more evidence of the need to align the cartridge without actually performing the alignment.
A diagnostics program is generally used for troubleshooting, whereas an alignment program is generally used for maintenance.
Removing and reinstalling the cartridge is unlikely to resolve the issue because the position of the new cartridge in the holder will remain the same.
Always keep in mind that you should check the obvious first when troubleshooting a printer. If the printer is not printing, you should make sure it is plugged in and turned on. You should also make sure that it has paper. Most technicians can tell you stories about how they were called in for troubleshooting an issue that had a very obvious fix. Also, keep in mind that some internal components should only be replaced by individuals who are experienced in repairing printers. These printer technicians are usually employed by the vendor from which you purchased the printer.
A user has requested to have a printer duplexer added to his printer. Which function is provided by this component?
A) Document sizing
B) Double-sided printing
C) Document sorting
D) Document stapling
B) Double-sided printing
A printer duplexer, also called a duplexing assembly, provides double-sided printing that usually is purchased as an add-on printer feature.
Document sorting is provided by a collator, and document stapling is provided by a stapler. Document sizing is a feature of most printer/copiers that allows you to shrink or enlarge documents.
You are responsible for managing your research department’s network. This network uses RG6 coaxial cabling. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this network?
A) It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
B) It should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz.
C) It does not have a foil shield.
D) Its signal quality is not as good as that of RG59 coaxial cable.
A) It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
RG6 coaxial cable is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable.
None of the other statements is true regarding RG6 coaxial cable. RG6 cable should be used in situations that require the 50 MHz frequencies or higher. RG6 signal quality is better than the signal quality of RG59 cable. RG6 cable has a foil shield. RG59 cable should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz. RG59 is thinner than RG6 cable. RG59 does not have a foil shield. For both of these cable types, the maximum cable length is 185 meters, and the maximum transmission speed is 10 Megabits per second (Mbps).
You are troubleshooting a laser printer that feeds multiple sheets of paper for each page it is supposed to print. Which component could be causing the problem? (Choose two.)
A) The primary corona
B) The feed mechanism
C) The photosensitive drum
D) The paper type
B)The feed mechanism
D)The paper type
Using an incorrect paper type or mixed paper types can cause a laser printer to pick up multiple sheets from its feed rollers. A dirty or worn feed mechanism can also cause multiple pages to be picked up from the paper tray. Relative humidity that is too high or too low changes the paper’s physical properties, which can cause feed rollers to pull several pages at one time. High levels of humidity can cause the paper thickness to increase through moisture adsorption from surrounding air. Low levels of humidity can cause the paper to stick together through electrostatic attraction.
A defective primary corona can cause image problems, such as clouded or faded printer output. If you experience faded or full printing, you should first replace the toner cartridge. If this does not fix your problem, then the primary corona is probably defective.
A defective photosensitive drum can adversely affect images that appear on printed pages. For example, a defective photosensitive drum may cause extraneous markings to appear on each page.
Always keep in mind that you should check the obvious first when troubleshooting a printer. If the printer is not printing, you should make sure it is plugged in and turned on. You should also make sure that it has paper. Most technicians can tell you stories about how they were called in for troubleshooting an issue that had a very obvious fix. Also, keep in mind that some internal components should only be replaced by individuals who are experienced in repairing printers. These printer technicians are usually employed by the vendor from which you purchased the printer.
On a network that you administer, you cannot use a Windows computer named Wkst1 to connect to an Internet host with the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) www.cybervista.net. You want to determine whether a WAN link between Wkst1 and www.cybervista.net is down. You know that data normally passes through 10 hops in transit from Wkst1 to www.cybervista.net. Which command should you use to test connectivity?
A) tracert www.cybervista.net
B) arp www.cybervista.net
C) ipconfig www.cybervista.net
D) nbtstat www.cybervista.net
A) tracert www.cybervista.net
Of the listed commands, you should use the tracert www.cybervista.net command to determine whether a WAN link between Wkst1 and www.cybervista.net is broken. The tracert computername command or tracert IP-Address command starts the tracert utility. The tracert utility displays the path that data travels through a network. The path begins at the host, which is the computer on which the utility is started, and ends at the host specified in the computername or IP-Address variables.
In this scenario, the tracert www.cybervista.net command will display the route that data travels between Wkst1 and www.cybervista.net. Each host that data traverses on its route to the destination host is referred to as a hop. The tracert utility numbers each hop and displays the following information for each hop: time required for the data to travel through the host, the FQDN of the host, and the IP address of the host. You can use the tracert command to determine which WAN link is causing a connectivity problem. In this scenario, for example, you know that data usually passes through 10 hops from Wkst1 to www.cybervista.net. If the tracert utility reports an error transmitting data from hop 7 to hop 8, then a problem likely exists with the WAN link between hop 7 and hop 8.
You can use the arp command with various switches to determine the status of Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) on a computer and to view the ARP cache. ARP is the protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite that resolves media access control (MAC) addresses to IP addresses. Each NIC in a computer is configured with a MAC address, which is used for physical addressing on a network. If you issue the arp www.cybervista.net command at a command prompt on a Windows computer, then a new command prompt will be displayed. You will not be able to view the route that data travels between the Wkst1 computer and the www.cybervista.net computer.
You can use the nbtstat command to view information about the status of NetBIOS over TCP/IP on a Microsoft network and to troubleshoot problems with Windows Internet Name Service (WINS). WINS resolves NetBIOS names to IP address on Microsoft networks. If you issue the nbtstat www.cybervista.net command at a command prompt, then a screen of instructions for the use of the nbtstat command will be displayed.
You can issue the ipconfig command at a command prompt on a Windows computer to view the IP configuration, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address. If you issue the ipconfig www.cybervista.net command at a command prompt, an error will occur.
Beth’s computer keeps locking up, and she is not sure why. She was told by the intern at her company’s help desk that she should reboot her computer often. However, she has noticed that the computer freezes when she opens more than two programs at a time. Before she upgrades the RAM, what else can she do to help alleviate this problem?
A) Install all the updates shown in Windows Update.
B) Increase disk thrashing.
C) Increase the size of the paging file.
D) Choose the Balanced power plan in Control Panel.
C) Increase the size of the paging file. - A swap file, sometimes called a page file or paging file, is space on a hard drive used as a temporary location to store information when RAM is fully utilized. Using a swap file, a computer can use more memory than what is physically installed in the computer. However, if the computer is low on drive space, the computer can run slower because of the inability of the swap file to grow.
Beth could increase the size of the paging file to help alleviate the problem. When systems lock up or there are extended delays between clicks and responses, Windows is demonstrating that it is running out of memory. Seldom are users taught what to do to maintain their computer, so you should help them avoid this situation by keeping track of their page file usage. This keeps them from running out of resources and making their computer run smoothly. Beth should not increase disk thrashing. Thrashing occurs when a computer’s virtual memory is in a constant state of paging, rapidly exchanging data in memory for data on disk. This occurs automatically and will adversely affect a computer’s performance.
Beth should not install all of the updates shown in Windows Update. Windows Update runs in the background and constantly searches to keep your computer up to date with the latest patches or fixes. Users can choose to have automatic or manual updates. Because the problem that Beth is having is most likely caused by too little RAM, updating the computer will not help alleviate the problem.
Beth should not choose the Balanced power plan in Control Panel. This solution would help conserve power, but the problem Beth is experiencing is not due to power issues.
To keep track of your paging file usage, you can run system diagnostic tools and allocate hard disk space as virtual memory. Virtual memory comes preset in your computer to prevent insufficient RAM errors. Computers are designed to exhaust all RAM resources first so that applications will run properly. However, if you allocate hard disk space for RAM, accessing it will be a bit slower than accessing physical RAM but will produce the same results. On the flip side, when you use virtual memory, RAM seems to run applications better and more efficiently. A paging file actually keeps programs from crashing once physical RAM is full.
Users who use virtual memory can save money by using inexpensive hard drive space for RAM. For example, a 32-bit operating system can utilize 3 to 4 gigabytes of hard drive space. The operating system moves information back and forth between the virtual RAM (paging file) and the physical RAM. Virtual RAM is a memory management technique that stores data from various applications by dividing it into several physical memory fragments. Some of these fragments are then stored on an external storage drive or hard drive that are later called upon when a data exchange is going to occur.
Sluggish performance can be caused by a variety of different issues. If you notice performance is abnormally slow, try updating device drivers, expanding the available RAM, checking the integrity/updating operating system files, and closing background applications. Sluggish performance can also indicate a hard drive failure, fragmented data, or a malware infection.
You replace the toner cartridge in a laser printer. Now, all printouts have black specks on both sides. Which action you should take first?
A) Replace the toner cartridge.
B) Clean the interior of the printer.
C) Realign the transfer corona.
D) Check the fuser assembly and fuse.
B) Clean the interior of the printer.
Random specks of toner can appear on printouts for several reasons, including a defective toner cartridge, paper that is moist or does not meet the specifications for the printer, or toner contamination within the printer. The first action you should take is to inspect and clean the inside of the laser printer. Even a small amount of scattered toner inside the printer can cause specks to appear on many printouts. The cleaning should be done according to the manufacturer’s recommended procedure; the cleaning may need to include the general interior, the toner cartridge assembly exterior, the corona wire, and the fuser rollers. Although rough or moist paper can also cause black specks to appear randomly, these specks tend to be on the print side only and not on both sides.
The toner cartridge may also need replacing if it was damaged during handling and installation, but replacement should follow the cleaning procedure and test page printouts. Replace the cartridge only if the test pages do not print properly. Symptoms associated with a dirty or scratched drum within the toner cartridge include white specks on a black background and vertical streaks on the printout, respectively. Although dirt and dust can be carefully removed from a dirty drum, a scratched drum must be replaced.
The transfer corona alignment is generally fixed by the manufacturer and is not adjustable.
A fuser with a blown fuse would not melt the toner onto the page, and the symptom of a defective fuser or a blown fuser fuse would be an easily smudged printout, not a speckled printout. You should always check the manufacturer’s service guide recommendations for the maintenance schedule for a printer.
Always keep in mind that you should check the obvious first when troubleshooting a printer. If the printer is not printing, you should make sure it is plugged in and turned on. You should also make sure that it has paper. Most technicians can tell you stories about how they were called in for troubleshooting an issue that had a very obvious fix. Also, keep in mind that some internal components should only be replaced by individuals who are experienced in repairing printers. These printer technicians are usually employed by the vendor from which you purchased the printer.
You need to remove several devices from a computer. For which type of device should you use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device’s operation before removing it from the computer?
A) CD-ROM drive
B) USB flash drive
C) Hard drive
D) DVD drive
B) USB flash drive
You should use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop a USB flash drive before removing the drive from the computer. USB flash drives are hot-swappable. However, if you remove the drive from the computer without using the Safely Remove Hardware utility, you may interrupt the write operation. They may also be referred to as compact flash drives.
None of the other drives requires the use of the Safely Remove Hardware icon before removing the drive from the computer. In normal operation, you should power off the computer completely before removing the other drive types.
Users are having trouble accessing a server. You want to view the server’s DNS entry on the DNS server. Which command should you use?
A) ping
B) ipconfig
C) nslookup
D) tracert
C) NSlookup
You should use the nslookup command to view the server’s DNS entry on the DNS server. The nslookup command has two modes: interactive and non-interactive. If you only need to obtain one piece of information, you should use non-interactive mode. Otherwise, interactive mode is probably best. This command can be used to resolve a remote host’s name to its IP address.
You should not use the ipconfig command. This command is used to view the TCP/IP settings on the computer, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
You should not use the tracert command. This command displays the route a packet takes to a remote host.
You should not use the ping command. This command tests connectivity for a computer. To check functionality of the TCP/IP protocol, you can issue the ping 127.0.0.1 command. This pings the loopback address. To check communication between your local computer and a remote computer, you can ping the remote computer. For example, if the remote computer was named client1.kaplanit.com and had an IP address of 172.16.3.1, you could issue the ping client1.kaplanit.com or ping 172.16.3.1 command.
You are the network administrator for your company. You are installing a new printer in the network. When you check the print server properties, it displays the following error:
Server properties cannot be viewed. The print spooler service is not running.
What should you do to resolve the issue using the least administrative effort?
A) Click Start and Run. Type services.msc to start the printer spooler service.
B) Run the net start spooler command.
C) Run the net stop spooler command.
D) Use the Services program in Administrative Tools to start the printer spooler service.
B) Run the net start spooler command.
You should run the net start spooler command. This command is used from the command prompt to restart the Printer Spooler service.
You should not use the net stop spooler command. This command is used to stop the Printer Spooler service, which is the cause of the problem in this scenario.
You should not access the Services program in Administrative Tools to start the printer spooler because this method requires more administrative efforts as compared to restarting the print spooler service from the command prompt. You should not click Start and Run and type services.msc to start the printer spooler service. This method of restarting the Printer Spooler service requires more administrative effort as compared to restarting the print spooler service from the command prompt. You can also restart the print spooler service by clicking Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services. Then select Print Spooler and click Start.
You should attempt to restart the print spooler service if print jobs show up in the print spooler but no printing is occurring, after you have verified that the printer is operational.
Always keep in mind that you should check the obvious first when troubleshooting a printer. If the printer is not printing, you should make sure it is plugged in and turned on. You should also make sure that it has paper. Most technicians can tell you stories about how they were called in for troubleshooting an issue that had a very obvious fix. Also, keep in mind that some internal components should only be replaced by individuals who are experienced in repairing printers. These printer technicians are usually employed by the vendor from which you purchased the printer.
You plan to install an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) network that supports data transfer speeds up to 100 Mbps. Which cable should you use?
A) Cat2
B) Cat4
C) Cat5
D) Cat3
C) Cat5
Cat5 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of up to 100 Mbps.
Cat7, known as F type cabling, supports the same speed and length but up to 600 MHz.
Cat6a supports up to 10 Gbps and 250 MHz at nominal 100-meter segments (90-meter cable run).
Cat6 UTP supports 10 Gbps at 55-meter segments.
Cat5e supports up to 1,000 Mbps at 100-meter segments.
Cat4 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 20 Mbps.
Cat3 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 10 Mbps.
Cat2 UTP cable supports a data transfer rate of only 4 Mbps.
The length of a cable run includes standard holdovers of 5 meters for access to the patch panel on one end, and to the device on the other end. Therefore, a nominal cable run of up to 55 meters means a physical cable run of only 45 meters, plus 10 held over. To make a run of 100 meters, 90 meters count for the cable run from the patch panel to the wall jack, plus an additional 5 meters between each jack and its attached device (there are usually two of these, so the longest cable run must be reduced accordingly).
You need to install several USB devices on a server. You have been asked to attach USB hubs to the computer. Only one USB port is available. How many hubs can you daisy chain using the single port?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 2
B) 5
According to the USB specifications, you can daisy chain up to five hubs. Daisy chaining means that the hubs are attached to each other in a line. While the specification does allow chaining of up to five hubs, you may experience problems configuring more than two hubs in a line.
None of the other options is correct.
An instructor is describing a component that is always located on the CPU and accelerates the processing of instructions. Which component is being discussed?
A) The address bus
B) The L2 cache
C) The L1 cache
D) The heat sink
C) The L1 cache - *cache is a high-speed access area that’s a reserved section of main memory or an area on the storage device. The two main types of cache are memory cache and disk cache.
Memory cache is a portion of the high-speed SRAM (static random access memory) and is effective because most programs access the same data or instructions repeatedly. By keeping as much of this information as possible in SRAM, the computer avoids accessing the slower DRAM, making the computer perform faster and more efficiently.
disk caching is used to access commonly accessed data. However, instead of using high-speed SRAM, a disk cache uses conventional main memory. The most recently accessed data from a disk is stored in a memory buffer. When a program needs to access data from the disk, it first checks the disk cache to see if the data is there. Disk caching can dramatically improve the performance of applications because accessing a byte of data in RAM can be thousands of times faster than accessing it on a hard drive.
The central processing unit (CPU) uses cache memory to accelerate the processing of instructions and data. CPUs have contained cache memory as part of the chip architecture since the introduction of the 486; this cache memory is known as Level 1 (L1) cache, or internal cache. The amount of L1 cache is fixed because it is located on the processor itself. The L1 cache operates at the same speed as the processor. Some processors have two L1 caches; one cache stores instructions, and the other cache stores data.
A secondary cache, or Level 2 (L2) cache, is also included on most computers. The L2 cache is frequently located on the motherboard, although it can be adjacent to or included on the CPU as part of the chip package. When the L2 cache is on the motherboard, its size can often be increased. The L2 cache can be enabled or disabled from within the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) setup program. Both the L1 cache and the L2 cache use static random access memory (SRAM), which can operate at faster clock speeds than other types of RAM. The term cache refers to the use of memory as a temporary storage site for instructions or data that the CPU can access immediately. The term buffer is also used to describe temporary data storage. Without a cache to store information, the CPU might have to wait through one or more clock cycles for the information to be provided by the computer’s dynamic random-access memory (DRAM).
A user is not able to access shared folders on the network. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician first checks for the link lights on the Network Interface Card (NIC). The technician observes that the link lights are not on or blinking on the NIC. Which actions should the technician perform to resolve the problem by using the least amount of administrative effort? (Choose two.)
A) Replace the network cable.
B) Run the ipconfig /release command.
C) Replace the NIC.
D) Check that the switch is on and the other end of the cable is connected to the switch.
E) Run the ipconfig /flushdns command.
A) Replace the network cable.
D) Check that the switch is on and the other end of the cable is connected to the switch.
To resolve the problem by using the least amount of administrative effort, the technician should check that the switch is on and the other end of the network cable is connected to the switch. If the switch is not on, or if the other end of the network cable is not connected to the switch, the user’s computer will not be connected to the network. Therefore, the technician should check these areas first. If the problem persists, the technician must try replacing the network cable to resolve the problem because faulty cables can cause network problems. Therefore, while troubleshooting network problems, you should check if the network cable is properly functioning. The number one A+ rule for connectivity issues is always to check the connection.
The ipconfig /release command is not used for troubleshooting NIC problems. The ipconfig /release command is used to release the IP address for network adapters. Before running this command, you must run the ipconfig /renew command to renew the IP address.
Replacing the NIC might solve the problem in this scenario. However, replacing NIC involves more administrative effort and time than checking the switch and network cable. Therefore, you should not replace the NIC as your first troubleshooting step.
The ipconfig /flushdns command is not used for troubleshooting NIC problems. The ipconfig /flushdns command is used to clear the Domain Naming Service (DNS) client cache. If the amber light is constantly flashing on a NIC card, collisions are occurring. A flashing green light indicates normal activity. If the lights do not flash, a failure at the data link level has occurred. If the indicator lights on a network switch are flashing, either the port on the switch or the NIC of the computer to which the switch is connected is faulty.
A network contains 150 Windows client computers that all receive their IP configuration from a DHCP server. The network is divided into two subnets. The network administrator decides to move a client computer from one subnet to another. After moving the client, the computer is having trouble communicating on the network. You suspect that the client computer is using an IP address from the old subnet. You need to run the appropriate commands to ensure that the client computer receives a new IP address.
Select the appropriate command(s) from the left and place them in the appropriate order on the left. Only select commands that are necessary for the scenario. The scenario may include one or more commands. Order is important.
For this scenario, you need to release and renew the DHCP lease for the client computer. You do this by running the following commands:
ipconfig /release
ipconfig /renew
You are replacing the toner cartridge for an old laser printer. You are concerned that several internal components are reaching their maximum age based on the printer’s page count, and you need to replace the parts. However, you also know that certain components are included with the toner cartridge. You do not want to replace any components that are included in the toner cartridge. Which components are normally included in the cartridge? (Choose all that apply.)
A) A photosensitive drum
B) A transfer corona
C) Electrostatically charged toner
D) A fuser
A) A photosensitive drum
C) Electrostatically charged toner
Laser printer toner cartridges ordinarily contain a photosensitive drum and electrostatically charged toner, which is fused to paper during the printing process. To reduce maintenance costs, printer manufacturers typically incorporate laser printer components into replaceable toner cartridges.
A laser printer’s photosensitive drum has a cylindrical surface that laser light strikes. The light writes a path on the drum and leaves an electrical charge wherever it strikes the drum, eventually placing the image of an entire page on the drum. After a page of the document is completely replicated by the electric charge on the drum, the drum is rolled in toner, which is powdery ink consisting of plastic particles bonded to iron particles. The iron particles in the toner are sensitive to the electric charge, and therefore, adhere to the charged image of the document on the drum.
The printer’s fuser contains two rollers, which use heat and pressure at this point in the process to fuse the image onto the paper. After the document is printed, the electrical charge is removed from the drum and the excess toner is collected for reuse. A fuser can also be referred to as a fuser assembly.
The transfer corona applies an electric charge to printer paper with a polarity opposite to that of the toner particles to generate electrostatic attraction between the paper and the ink. Attractive electrostatic force then causes the toner to move from the drum to the paper. At this point, the toner is resting on the paper but still needs to be attached to the paper to create a permanent image.
A department manager reports that one of her department’s printers is printing fuzzy or low-quality print. Which conditions contribute to this problem (Choose two.)
A) A warped roller in the paper path
B) High humidity
C) A problem with the charge wires or the drum
D) Iron particles in the paper fibers
E) Too much paper in the paper tray
F) Damp paper
B) High humidity
F) Damp paper
Given a scenario, troubleshoot and resolve printer issues
For the A+ exam, you should understand the following common printer symptoms and how to troubleshoot them:
Streaks – This problem is usually caused by a malfunctioning fuser because the fuser is responsible for fusing the toner to the paper. Replace the fuser. In inkjet printers, this could be caused by a malfunctioning ink cartridge or dirty print head. Replace the cartridge, or clean the print head. In dot matrix printers, this is caused by a dirty print head. Clean the print head.
Faded print – This is usually caused when a toner cartridge, ink cartridge, or ribbon is close to empty. You should replace the cartridge or ribbon with a new unit.
Ghost images/Echo images – Ghost images/Echo images are light images of pages that were previously printed that are appearing on the currently printed page. This is usually caused by the erasure lamp or cleaning blade. The cleaning blade is part of the toner cartridge and is easier to replace than the erasure lamp. Try replacing it first. If it does not fix the problem, you will need to replace the erasure lamp.
Toner not fused to the paper – This problem is usually caused by a malfunctioning fuser. Replace the fuser.
Creased paper – This is usually caused by a paper jam. Check the printer internally to ensure that no paper jams or small scraps of paper are obscuring the paper path. Creased paper can also be caused by worn pickup rollers. Replace the pickup rollers. Pickup rollers are part of printer maintenance kits.
Paper not feeding – This is usually caused by worn pickup rollers. Replace the pickup rollers. Pickup rollers are part of printer maintenance kits.
Paper jam – When a paper jam occurs, you need to first completely clear the paper jam. If the paper jam continues to be a problem, you need to determine which printer part could be causing the paper jams. Check to make sure that you are using paper that is approved for the printer. Paper that is too thick will cause paper jams. Also, high humidity can cause the paper to stick together, which causes paper jams. Paper jams can also be caused by worn rollers or broken drive gears. Rollers are part of the printer’s maintenance kit. If you suspect broken drive gears, you will need to contact a printer technician to replace the drive gear. If the paper jams after reaching the corona assembly, the problem could be caused by the static eliminator strip, which needs to be replaced by a printer technician.
No connectivity – If this problem is with a locally attached printer, make sure that the cable is properly attached. Try replacing the cable with a new cable. If this problem is with a network printer, ping the printer to see if it is available. If you can ping the printer, you probably have an incorrect setting or driver.
Garbled characters on paper – This problem is usually caused by an incorrect printer driver. Install the most up-to-date version of the correct printer driver.
Vertical black lines on page – Vertical black lines are caused by scratches on the drum or dirty corona wire. If you suspect that scratches are on the drum, replace the toner cartridge. If you suspect the corona wire, try cleaning it first. If the problem still persists, replace the toner cartridge. For inkjet printers, you should try cleaning the print head or replacing the ink cartridge.
Vertical white lines – Vertical white lines are caused by a dirty transfer corona wire. Clean the corona wires. The corona wire is part of the toner cartridge and can be cleaned using a brush. For inkjet printers, clean the print head. If these solutions do not work, you will need to replace the toner cartridge or ink cartridge.
Backed up print queue – You can try to delete the print job from the print queue that you suspect is causing the problem. If this does not fix the problem, you will need to stop and restart the print queue. This will result in all jobs in the print queue being deleted. All users will have to resubmit their print jobs.
Low-memory errors – Often just turning the printer off and back on will fix this problem. If the problem persists, you could print the page at a lower resolution or change the print page so that it is less complex. If this does not fix the problem, you may try installing a different driver for the printer. You could also add more memory to the printer.
Access denied – This is most often caused by the access control list (ACL) for the printer. Make sure that the user has been granted print permission. This can also be affected by print availability and print priority. Print availability is a way to set up a printer so that a particular group can print to the printer during certain times. If a user attempts to print to the printer outside of the availability times, the print job is unsuccessful. Print priority allows you to assign jobs from a particular group a higher priority. If this technique is used, jobs that have a higher priority will take precedence over other print jobs. Print availability and print priority can prevent or delay print jobs.
Printer will not print – If you are sure that the printer has power and paper, you should try printing a test page. If the test page is unsuccessful, you probably have a connection issue. Replace the cabling if it is a local printer. If it is a network printer, complete network troubleshooting techniques to troubleshoot the issue.
Color prints in wrong print color – This is usually the result of a dirty print head. Clean the print head first. If the problem persists, replace the toner cartridge or ink cartridge. Calibrating the cartridge may also help.
Unable to install printer – If this problem occurs, the account used to install the printer probably does not have permissions to install the printer. Use an administrative-level account to install the printer.
Error codes – For any error codes you are given, consult the manufacturer’s documentation or website to get details on the error. Follow the manufacturer’s suggested troubleshooting steps for the particular error you receive.
Printing blank pages – The most often cause of this problem is that the printer is out of ink or toner. It can also be caused by clogged print nozzles in an inkjet printer. For a laser printer, the toner cartridge has sealant tape over the toner dispenser. If this tape is not removed, pages will be blank.
No image on printer display – This is most often caused because the printer is unplugged or in standby mode.
Incorrect printer orientation – If a page is not printing with the correct orientation, the problem could be the application settings or the printer itself. Ensure that the user is selecting the right orientation in the application and that the application is sending the job to the printer with the appropriate tray selected. In addition, you should ensure that the tray and paper are inserted correctly. Finally, you may need to update the printer driver.
Grinding issues – A printer can create noises for a variety of different reasons. When experiencing grinding noises, power down the printer and unplug it first. Check the cartridges to make sure they are full, the correct ones, and properly installed. Then you should check and clean the rollers as well as update firmware of the printer.
Paper jams – Paper can jam for a variety of reasons such as an overfilled tray, damaged paper, or improper paper. If the printer becomes jammed you should clear the jam and ensure that the paper tray is filled properly with good quality paper.
Incorrect paper size – Printers often require a specific sized paper to print. If a printer is utilizing incorrect paper, it can cause jams or misprints. You should check the paper tray to ensure that the paper is correct. You can find the printer’s paper requirements in its manual.
Multiple prints pending in queue – If a printer has multiple print jobs stuck in queue, you should stop the print spooler, delete the print jobs in queue, and restart the printer to fully reset the Windows printing environment. If that does not work, then you should check for new driver updates.
Speckling on printed pages – Speckling is where tiny ink spots get printed onto the paper unintentionally. This error can be the result of a dirty inkjet, a fault ink cartridge, or a faulty toner cartridge. Replacing these cartridges and cleaning the printer of any debris should stop ink speckling.
Multipage misfeed – This is when multiple pages are simultaneously fed into the printer when using the double-sided print feature. To fix this issue, clear the jam, check to make sure the paper is correctly oriented, undamaged, and the right type for the printer, and restart the print job.
Finishing issues – The two most common finishing issues revolve around staples and hole punches. With staples, the printer’s staples can become jammed. To solve this problem, first clear the jam and ensure that the remaining staples are oriented properly. You may need to replace the staple cartridge if it is running low or is defective. With a hole punch, you should go to printer settings to configure it properly. If the hole punch is still not working, you should check to see if you can install a new driver or reset the printer.
You are helping students install Windows and Linux servers in various configurations on their laptops. What would be the most important CPU or motherboard feature to configure?
A) Speed
B) Hyperthreading
C) Integrated GPU
D) Virtual technology
D) Virtual technology
Virtual technology would be the most important CPU or motherboard feature to configure. Virtual technology allows you to install another operating system on top of the existing operating system without overwriting the original OS. You install a hypervisor, such as Oracle Virtual Box or VMware’s VM Player, and then install the desired operating system within the hypervisor. In essence, the newly installed operating system launches like an application, but has the same functionality as an operating system that was installed directly on the host system. Virtualization technology is typically disabled in the BIOS. To enable the virtualization feature, go into the BIOS menu, look for Intel Virtualization Technology or AMD-V, and enable it.
None of the other features would help the students install one operating system within another on their laptops.
Hyperthreading allows a processor to execute two threads of code at the same time. Before hyperthreading, a single-core processor could only process one thing at a time. With multicore processors, each core is divided virtually, and each virtual core can work on separate sets of instructions. This process greatly increases processor efficiency.
Configuring processor speed is also known as overclocking. Overclocking can increase the speed at which the processor operates, but it also generates significant heat, and should not be implemented without an enhanced cooling system.
With an integrated GPU, you want to ensure that you have the latest drivers from the manufacturer. If you need additional graphics performance, consider adding a third-party graphics card and disabling the integrated GPU.
You want to use Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology in a laptop. Which components must support this technology to use it? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Operating system
B) Motherboard
C) BIOS
D) Software drivers
A) Operating system
B) Motherboard
C) BIOS
If you want to use Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology in a laptop, the motherboard, BIOS, and operating system must support SpeedStep. In addition, the chipset and processor must support the technology.
The software drivers do not need to support SpeedStep. Enhanced Intel SpeedStep Technology allows the computer to dynamically adjust processor voltage and core frequency, which decrease average power consumption and average heat production.
You disable SpeedStep in the system’s BIOS. SpeedStep would prevent a computer from using 100% of the CPU.
Match the cable types on the left with the appropriate maximum distance and speed options on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match cable type with the correct maximum distance and speed.
Cat5 – Up to 100 meters and 100 Mbps
Cat6 – Up to 100 meters and 10 Gbps
ThinNet – Up to 185 meters and 10 Mbps
ThickNet – Up to 500 meters and 10 Mbps
Multi-mode fiber – Up to 500 meters and 10 Gbps
Single-mode fiber – Up to 40 kilometers and 10 Gbps
A user needs to install a DVD drive in his desktop system. The DVD drive needs to be capable of backing up his system files. He wants to install the DVD drive that is capable of storing the most data. Which DVD specification should he install?
A) DVD-RW
B) DVD+RW
C) DVD-R
D) DVD+R DL
D) DVD+R DL
The DVD+R DL specification is capable of storing the most data. It can hold up to 8.5 gigabytes (GBs) of data because it writes to multiple layers on the disc. DVD-RW DL is a double-layer DVD drive that is rewritable, meaning that it can be written to multiple times.
DVD-R, DVD-RW, and DVD+RW can hold up to 4.7 GBs of data. The R designation means that data can be recorded to the disc one time. The RW designation means that data is rewritable. The - designation specifies that the format used by the disc is authorized by the DVD Forum. The + designation specifies that the format used by the disc is not authorized by the DVD Forum.
DVD-R discs are compatible with any DVD player, no matter what designation it is given.
Blu-ray discs can currently hold up to 50 GBs of data. Standard Blu-ray discs hold 25 GB of data (50 GB if dual layer). The newer BDXL format increases that capacity to 128
In the past year, several hard drives in your company’s computers failed without warning. All of the failed drives were replaced, but management is concerned that this will become an increasing problem because of the number of older computers in use. They have asked you to implement a technology that detects failing hard drives by analyzing the hard drive and providing a warning of impending failure. Which technology should you implement?
A)Throttling
B)Overclocking
C)Hyper-Threading
D)S.M.A.R.T.
D)S.M.A.R.T.
Self-Monitoring Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) is a technology that detects failing hard drives through analyzing the hard drive during system boot up. If a S.M.A.R.T. error is reported when the computer boots, the hard drive is failing. It also reports on such hard drive parameters as read error rate, throughput performance, and seek error rate. The main purpose of using S.M.A.R.T. is to ensure that you receive warnings prior to a complete drive failure so that the drive can be replaced before complete failure.
CPU throttling is a processor technology that allows the processor to run at reduced power to conserve power.
Overclocking allows you to run the processor or system bus at a higher speed than the manufacturer’s rating to gain increased performance.
Hyperthreading is a processor technology that improves processor performance so that one processor is treated by the operating system as two processors. If you have only one physical processor, but the operating system shows two processors, then Hyperthreading is enabled.
Hard drive corruption can occur from a malware infection, damage from a sudden shutdown/power failure, or ordinary wear. Corruption can cause users to lose data. However, there can be ways to recover this data, providing that the hard drive is not damaged structurally. Users can examine the hard drive and attempt to repair damaged sectors. In the case of malware they can remove the malware and reboot the hard drive to repair functionality. Finally, to save the drive but not the data, they can format the hard drive to a NTFS file system (which will erase anything on the drive).
hard drive troubleshooting:
For the A+ exam, you will need to understand the following tools that are used during hard drive troubleshooting:
Screwdriver – Used to attach the hard drive to the computer case
External enclosures–- Used to hold the hard drive and attach to the computer case. Make sure to use the appropriate enclosure for the hard drive. Ensure that the sliding bar of the enclosure functions correctly to aid in future removal or replacement. If any slot covers are removed, make sure to retain them in case they are needed later.
CHKDSK – Used to correct disk errors. The chkdsk /f command fixes all errors that are found.
Format – Used to format the disk so that data can be written to it. Formatting a drive will erase all data on the drive.
Fdisk – Used to create and delete drive partitions. This command prepares the partition for formatting and must be run before the format command.
File recovery software – Used to recover data from a hard drive. Many third-party vendors specialize in this software. File recovery software can often still recover data from a failed or crashed hard drive. This software also can be used to recover data that was deleted.
Diskpart – Use Diskpart to convert a dynamic disk to a basic disk or to create a partition. It replaced the old fdisk utility.
Disk defragmentation tool – This tool is used to defragment a hard drive, which will improve hard drive performance.
Your company has decided to make several computers that will be used for specialized functions. You have been tasked with assembling these computers. Management wants you to ensure that the computers will not experience any overheating issues. Which components are used to help with this? (Choose all that apply.)
A) A heat sink
B) Thermal compound
C) A ZIF socket
D) A fan
A) A heat sink
B) Thermal compound
D) A fan
A user complains that the pointer movement on his laptop computer is very erratic. What should you do?
A) Calibrate the touch screen.
B) Attach an external mouse to the laptop.
C) Reboot the computer.
D) Adjust the touchpad sensitivity.
D) Adjust the touchpad sensitivity.
You should first try to adjust the touchpad sensitivity. Often, adjusting the sensitivity of the touchpad can reduce erratic behavior, including random mouse movement. If that does not work, you should clean the touchpad. If that still does not resolve the issue, you should try removing and reinstalling the touchpad drivers. If the issue still remains, the touchpad needs to be replaced. A touchpad is often referred to as a Human Interface Device in Device Manager.
symptoms for laptops and other mobile devices:
For the A+ exam, you need to be familiar with the following common symptoms for laptops and other mobile devices:
No display – This is most often caused when the display is dimmed via the controls or when the display has been sent to the external device. Try changing the screen dimness, or use the appropriate function key to cycle through the different display options. If neither of these solutions fixes the problem, you could have a failed backlight or inverter, which are both internal components that will need to be replaced to troubleshoot the problem. For an iPhone or iPad that has dimmed or turned black, you should press and hold down the Sleep/Wake button and the Home button simultaneously for at least 10 seconds. This should soon display the Apple logo on the black background. For Android tablets and smartphones, you must take off the back cover, reseat your battery, and then charge your phone for a few hours. However, just like the blue screen of death on PC-based devices, Android can have the same issue. If this is the case, you will have to remove the SIM card and battery and leave them out for 5–10 seconds. At this point, you need to charge the battery, as well. Finally, sometimes you may have to perform a hardware factory reset. This process will permanently remove the customer’s data from the device. Make sure to back up all personal data to a computer or to the cloud. To perform a hardware factory reset, you would press and hold the Volume Up, Power, and Home keys simultaneously and select Factory reset/wipe data using the volume keys. Then you would press the Power key to start the hardware factory reset.
Dim display – This is most often caused when the display is dimmed. Change the screen dimness to see if this fixes the problem. Also, you may need to check the switch on the laptop that tells the system that the lid is closed. If neither of these solutions resolves the problem, either the backlight or inverter could be the cause. Replace each of these components to troubleshoot the issue. Smartphones and tablets have dim screen controls in the Settings menu. On an iPhone, you can swipe up the Control Center and change the display. Android devices have apps you can download for free, such as Screen Dimmer. The dimmer feature is a great way to change the brightness of your screen and save your battery.
Flickering display – This is usually caused by an incorrect video driver or low screen refresh rate. Update the driver first. If this does not resolve the problem, consult the display device manufacturer’s documentation for the appropriate refresh rate. Finally, flickering can be caused by loose or bad connections. Check the internal connections for the display if none of the other solutions works.
Sticking keys – Dust accumulation can cause keys to stick. In addition, most keys have a spring that can wear out. First, you should try to blow out the keyboard using compressed air. It may also be necessary to clean the individual keys. In some laptops, keys can be detached for individual cleaning. Be careful when detaching individual keys because this can damage keyboard components. If this does not fix the problem, replace the integrated keyboard or purchase an external keyboard. Spilled liquids are most often the cause of sticking keys.
Intermittent wireless – This is usually caused by radio frequency interference (RFI). Research the wireless network environment. Try to minimize the obstructions between the laptop and the wireless access point. For example, microwaves and cordless phones can interrupt the flow or signal and cause disturbances to your flow and connection, so do not place routers near those types of electronics. Also, research the particular frequency in use on your wireless network to discover if you have deployed any devices that could be causing the problem. You may need to increase the signal strength on the wireless access point. Finally, the problem could be with the internal wireless card. Check the internal cable connections for the wireless card if none of the other troubleshooting techniques has solved the problem.
Battery not charging – If the battery will no longer charge properly, you should totally drain the battery’s power to eliminate the memory effect. If this does not solve the problem, replace the battery with a new one. However, the A+ number one rule is to always check the connection, so make sure that your plug snuggly fits on the charging device. Loose or disconnected cables can be frustrating, so do not eliminate that step when troubleshooting.
Ghost cursor/pointer drift/touch calibration – This usually occurs when the track pad is too sensitive. You can change the sensitivity settings to see if this fixes the problem. If the problem still exists, you should try installing the latest driver for the touch pad. Finally, you could disable the touch pad and connect an external mouse. You can also search Google for the Phantom Cursor to troubleshoot various devices. If a touchscreen is not responsive or is inaccurate, it may need to be recalibrated. To troubleshoot this, make sure you update the drivers and perform a calibration using the device’s calibration software.
No power – This is usually caused when you are no longer connected to an external power source and the battery has been depleted. Make sure that the laptop is plugged in to a functional external power source. Plug the laptop into a power source and allow the battery to recharge. You may also want to reconfigure the power settings to ensure that certain devices are not enabled when you are working using battery.
Num Lock indicator lights – To enable or disable the number lock function, you may need to press a single Num Lock key or use a function key combination. Read the laptop vendor’s documentation to learn the appropriate way to enable and disable the number lock function. If the number lock function is disabled, you will notice that the cursor moves around when you use the number keys instead of numbers being entered on the screen. If your keyboard has calculator type keys built in, you will need to enable Num Lock to use the calculator as desired.
No wireless connectivity – This is usually caused when the wireless device has been disabled. Read the laptop vendor’s documentation to learn the appropriate function key combination that can be used to enable/disable wireless. The device can also be disabled in Device Manager. If neither of these solutions fixes the problem, you should check the wireless card to make sure that it is seated properly and attached to the antenna. Replacing the wireless card or antenna may be necessary. For most mobile devices, you simply need to make sure that Wi-Fi is enabled or turned on. You also may need to make sure that Airplane Mode is turned off. Airplane Mode disables several features, including Wi-Fi.
No Bluetooth connectivity – This is usually caused when Bluetooth has been disabled. Read the laptop vendor’s documentation to learn the appropriate function key combination that can be used to enable/disable Bluetooth. If this does not fix the problem, you should check the wireless card to make sure that it is seated properly and attached to the antenna. Replacing the wireless card or antenna may be necessary. For mobile devices, you probably only need to make sure that Bluetooth is enabled. As with Wi-Fi, Airplane Mode disables Bluetooth on most devices.
Cannot display to external monitor – This is most often caused when the laptop’s display settings are set to the internal display. Use the appropriate function key to cycle through the different display options. If this does not fix the problem, you should check the cabling to the external monitor. For some displays, you will also need to make sure that that display device itself is set to the appropriate source.
Touchscreen nonresponsive – This is most often caused by a dirty screen. First, remove any screen protectors and try to clean the touchscreen. If that does not work, reboot the device. If the problem persists, the screen may need to be repaired or replaced. Keeping your touchscreens clean, dust-free, and protected will extend their life. Remember that they are very fragile, so you should handle them with care.
Apps not loading – First, you should make sure that your app and the device operating system is updated. Next, ensure that your firewall isn’t configured to block the app. You could then synchronize the license for the app. As a last resort, try removing and reinstalling the app.
Slow performance – Slow mobile device performance is usually caused by too many apps running in the background. Force stop any unneeded apps. If this does not resolve your issue, reboot the device. Finally, it could be that the device is reaching its storage capacity. If that is the case, you will need to remove some data and/or apps and possibly back up unused files to the cloud or an external backup device, like a server or an external hard drive.
Unable to decrypt email – This is usually caused by a missing or expired key or certificate. Make sure the appropriate key or certificate is installed. It may be necessary to restore them from backup. It also could be that the device is configured to not allow encrypted email. If this is the case, then you need to enable encrypted email.
Extremely short battery life – Always try completely draining and recharging the battery first. If the battery continues to only have a short life, you need to replace the battery. For mobile devices, you may try changing battery settings through the Control Panel or Settings.
Overheating – If your mobile device overheats, try removing the protective case that you have it in. Other solutions are to remove the device from direct sunlight, shut down apps you are not using, or buy a glare screen and turn down the brightness. Finally, turn your mobile device off or put it in Airplane Mode when not in use.
Frozen system – First, try plugging the mobile device into a power supply. Then you should try to power down or restart the device the normal way. If that is not possible, then remove the battery for a few seconds. Next, you should delete the app that is causing the device to freeze. As a last resort, reset the device to the factory defaults. For an Apple mobile device, another possible solution is to restore the device using iTunes. You can also consult the manufacturer’s website or device documentation on how to reset the device.
No sound from speakers – This is most often caused by the sound being muted or the device being in silent or vibrate mode. If that does not fix the problem, try adjusting the volume. As a last resort, reboot the device. If you are using Bluetooth speakers, remove the device through Settings, re-add the speakers, and resync.
GPS not functioning – First, you should ensure that the GPS function is enabled. If that is not the problem, reboot the device. Then try turning location services off and then back on. Finally, you could perform a GPS reset.
Swollen battery – Swollen batteries are an explosion or leaking hazard and should be replaced immediately. Swollen batteries are usually found in devices like laptops and mobile devices that use lithium batteries. Batteries can become swollen due to manufacturing defects or by not using the right charger. Lithium-ion batteries do not like to be overcharged because there is no place for the gasses in the overheated cells to go. The overheated batteries expand, swell, and appear warped. Always replace swollen batteries.
Malware on mobile devices – If you suspect that your mobile device has become infected with malware, you should install malware software to identify and help remove the malware. Then you should delete any unauthorized applications the malware may have downloaded. In extreme cases you may have to wipe and reboot your device. Encrypting your device, clearing browsing history, and having strong passwords can help minimize the risks posed. You should also ensure that all devices have some sort of anti-malware software installed and running in the background.
Physically damaged ports – Through use, ports can become damaged, which can prevent you from being able to connect and charge your device. If you suspect a port has become damaged, the best solution is to send it to a repair shop as an in-house repair can lead you to damage it further.
Digitizer issues – The digitizer converts the analog signals from your touch commands into digital signals that a mobile device can read. If your digitizer has broken and you are attempting to repair it, the first step should be to power off the device and remove the battery. Then using a sharp blade, remove the glued down digitizer as well as remove any excess old glue. Then you can place the new digitizer and reassemble to battery.
Liquid damage – Liquid can cause light to severe damage, depending on how much infiltrates the case. After removing the liquid from the device (or the device from the liquid) and powering it down, you should remove the battery and send it for safe disposal as the liquid could have damaged it beyond repair. Next, remove the SIM card and check whether any of the liquid contact indicators have turned red. If they have, it is likely several components have become exposed and are likely to become corroded and will need to be thoroughly cleaned or replaced. Placing a mobile device overnight in a bowl of rice can sometimes help to remove the moisture.
Poor/no connectivity – If a mobile device is having poor or no connectivity, first the device should be restarted as prolonged times without shutdown can reduce connectivity. Other issues that can occur are low signal strength, aging SIM card, or having data disabled/blocked.
Broken screen on touch display – If a screen is broken from use or being dropped, it can disrupt touch screen responsive and can make the screen unreadable. When attempting to repair this device you can send the device to a repair shop to replace the broken screen, or you can attempt to replace the screen yourself. If you are repairing the screen yourself, you should power down the device and remove the battery, if possible, unscrew/remove the broken screen, and then slide in/connect/screw in the new display.
Beverly has contacted you and stating that her computer will not boot and keeps beeping. Which components must pass a computer’s power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load? (Choose three.)
A) The memory
B) The video card
C) The hard disk drive
D) The network interface card (NIC)
E) The keyboard
F) The central processing unit (CPU)
A) The memory
B) The video card
F) The central processing unit (CPU)
A computer will not load an operating system if it encounters fatal errors during the POST. A central processing unit (CPU), memory, or video card failure during the POST routine will generate a fatal error and halt the startup process. A hard disk drive and a keyboard are both optional devices for a computer. Many server computers do not have a keyboard for security reasons, and most basic input/output system (BIOS) routines allow the POST to bypass a keyboard error.
Christine has a motherboard with a Socket 1156 and has called you to see if a Socket 1150 CPU could be used in its place. What would you recommend that she do?
A) Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket.
B) Replace the heat sink.
C) Upgrade the socket on the existing motherboard so it compatible with an LGA 1156.
D )Replace the thermal paste and pins.
A) Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket.
Intel motherboards with a Socket 1156, also known as Socket H, hold LGA Socket 1156 CPUs and have 1,156 pins. An 1156 socket is not compatible with LGA Socket 1150 (Socket H3), which has 1,150 pins and was compatible with 4th- and 5th-generation Core desktops and Xeon E3, v3, and v4 for servers. Therefore, you should recommend that she purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket. Alternatively, you could recommend that she purchase a new CPU. If both choices are an option, determining which has the best value for the price would help you to determine what to do.
You are troubleshooting a problem with a computer. After analyzing the problem, you determine a possible cause of the problem. You test your theory, but determine that the theory is not correct. Which two steps could you take next? (Choose two.)
A) Establish a plan of action.
B) Implement a solution.
C) Establish a new theory.
D) Escalate the problem.
C) Establish a new theory.
D) Escalate the problem.
When a possible theory is not confirmed, you have two possible courses of action: 1) establish a new theory or 2) escalate the problem.
You should not establish a plan of action until after you have tested your theory and determined that the theory is correct.
You should not implement a solution until after the theory is tested and a plan of action is established.
The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+ ce
The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+ certification exam objectives, occur in the following order:
Identify the problem – Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and perform backups before making changes. Inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes. Review system and application logs.
Establish a theory of probable cause – This is often referred to as root cause analysis. During this step, you should question the obvious. If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.
Test the theory to determine the cause – Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps required to resolve the problem. If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution – Refer to the vendor’s instructions for guidance.
Verify full system functionality, and, if applicable, implement preventative measures.
Document – Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.
You should always consider corporate policies, procedures, and impacts before implementing changes.
After troubleshooting a laptop computer issue, you discover that that the motherboard is faulty. The computer is under warranty, and the manufacturer ships you a replacement motherboard that is the same model as the defective one. You need to replace the laptop’s motherboard. All of the following are guidelines when replacing the motherboard EXCEPT
A) remove the fan and heatsink from the processor, and then remove the processor
B) remove the laptop’s keyboard, and disconnect it from the motherboard
C) remove any peripheral cards that are directly plugged into the motherboard
D) remove the RAM and hard drive from under the laptop’s keyboard
D) remove the RAM and hard drive from under the laptop’s keyboard
You should not remove the RAM and hard drive from under the laptop’s keyboard. In most laptop computers, the RAM and hard drive must be removed from the bottom of the laptop. The guidelines for replacing a laptop motherboard are as follows:
Power the laptop off and flip it over.
Remove the battery and all screws from the bottom of the laptop.
Remove the covers from the bottom of the laptop that cover the RAM and hard drive
Remove the RAM from its slots.
Slide the hard drive out of the laptop and disconnect any cables.
Remove the CD-ROM or DVD drive and disconnect any cables.
Turn the laptop right side up and open the lid.
Remove the plastic bezel that is above the keyboard.
Remove the keyboard and disconnect any cables.
Remove the fan and heatsink from the processor and disconnect any cables.
Determine if a separate graphics adapter is used in the computer. If so, disconnect it from the motherboard and remove the adapter card.
Remove any other peripheral devices that may interfere with the motherboard replacement. (On most current computers, the wireless adapter will need to be removed.)
Remove the screws from the motherboard. Label each screw as it is removed and place the screw on a piece of tape to ensure it is not lost.
Remove the faulty motherboard and replace it with the new motherboard.
Replace, in order, all the other parts that you have removed, ensuring that all cables are reconnected.
When replacing a motherboard, the most common issue is that a cable is not reconnected properly or that an adapter card or RAM module is not firmly seated. If a cable is not reconnected properly, one of the laptop’s ports may be non-operational.
You are helping a friend build his new home computer. After completing the assembly, you discover that none of the unused expansion slots have covers, and you cannot find the slot covers anywhere. You suspect that your friend threw them away along with the packing material for the case, thinking that they were simply unneeded metal punchouts. Why should you go through the trouble of finding new slot covers and installing them on the unused slots? (Choose two.)
A) To keep radiation exposure at a minimum
B) To dampen the noise coming from inside the computer
C) To keep air circulating properly inside the computer case
D) To keep foreign objects out of the case
E) To properly ground the computer motherboard
C) To keep air circulating properly inside the computer case
D) To keep foreign objects out of the case
The two main reasons for installing covers over unused expansion slot ports are to keep foreign objects out of the case and to keep air circulating properly inside the computer. Computer cases can attract dust, bugs, debris, and other unwanted objects if they are not sealed properly. Dust and dirt inside a computer case can trap heat and cause computer components to fail prematurely. Metallic objects such as pens and paper clips can cause damage if they fall into a computer case. Paper clips can short-out boards and cause components to fail if they fall onto exposed computer circuit boards. Computer cases are designed so that air circulates through the case and carries heat away from the sensitive components.
If you fail to properly seal the case, the airflow might be upset and the processor and other heat-generating components might not cool properly. This can result in failed components or a lower-than-expected life for the components in the computer. For hard drives, you need to ensure that the airflow around the hard drive is not obstructed to reduce overheating. Another method for improving the internal airflow in a computer is to replace the internal IDE cabling with round IDE cabling.
Be alert to the following events that could indicate the computer is overheating or an internal component (such as a fan) is failing:
Continuous reboots – Reboots are usually the result of electrical issues, power supply issues, or overheating. Brownouts or blackouts cause computers to reboot. Attaching a computer to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) will ensure that you can safely shut down the computer if these occur. If the power supply in the computer is the issue, you should replace it with one that supplies adequate power to the computer. Finally, if overheating is causing the reboots, you should check all fans and ensure that the CPU heat sink is still attached. You may need to replace these or add another cooling device to your computer.
Unexpected shutdowns – Random shutdowns that are not accompanied with a particular error message or a blue screen of death (BSOD) are usually the result of overheating. Make sure that all fans are working effectively. You may also want to deploy additional cooling options. Make sure that all open ports in the computer have a cover.
Grinding noise – Loud noises or grinding noises usually originate from system fans, the power supply, or the hard drives, because very few internal devices have moving parts. While a grinding noise is most often associated with a hard drive failure, it can also come from a broken fan. The noise usually means that the component is close to failure. This can be serious because the CPU and power supply rely on these fans prevent overheating, so you should replace the part immediately.
Obvious signs of overheating are surfaces that become hot to the touch (such as the bottom of a laptop), smoke, and burning smells. If these symptoms occur, power the machine down safely and investigate the cause of the issue.
You are troubleshooting a problem with a printer attached to a Windows computer. Several print jobs are queued and the printer is online, but the print jobs are not printing. Which two conditions could cause the problem? (Choose two.)
A) The disk used for spooling is extremely fragmented.
B) There is a problem with the spooler.
C) The printer is in energy-save mode.
D) Printing is paused.
B) There is a problem with the spooler.
D) Printing is paused.
You are connecting a video display wall that will use two 4K monitors. Which would be the best type of cable to transfer the video signal from the Windows 10 desktop source to the monitors?
A) Thunderbolt
B) Lightning
C) USB
D) Serial
A) Thunderbolt
Match the connectors on the left to the cable types on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match the connector with the correct cable type.
The following is the correct matching for connectors and cable types:
BNC – coaxial cable
SC – fiber optic cable
RJ-45 – twisted-pair cable
Coaxial cable can also use an F connector. Fiber-optic cable can also use an ST or LC connector. Twisted-pair cable can also use an RJ-11 connector. For twisted-pair cable, an RJ-11 connector is used in telephone deployments, and an RJ-45 connector is used in network deployments.
You need to provide users with an external hard drive. The company issued laptops have two Type A USB ports that are black, and an additional Type A port that is teal. To provide the best data transfer, which USB connector should the external drives have?
A)USB-C
B)USB 2.0
C)USB 3.0
D)USB
C)USB 3.0
Universal Serial Bus (USB) 3.0 has a data transfer capacity of 5 gigabits per second (Gbps) and was introduced in late 2008. The connector and ports are typically blue. USB 3.1 was introduced as an improvement to USB 3.0 and has a capacity of 10 Gbps. USB 3.1 connectors and ports are typically a teal color.
USB, also known as USB 1.1, has a data transfer capacity of 12 megabits per second (Mbps). USB cables were introduced in the late 1990s as replacements for parallel and serial connections. USB has gone through several evolutions, the most recent version being USB-C. Each new version has provided improvements in data transfer speeds.
USB-C uses a smaller connector instead of the “universal” flat and wide Type A connector. USB-C is an implementation of USB 3.1, which is capable of data transfer rates of up to 10 Gbps.
USB 2.0 has a data transfer capacity of 480 Mbps in high-speed mode. USB 2.0 was introduced in early 2000, and is backwards-compatible with USB 1.1.
You perform several hardware upgrades on a user’s computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear seven short beeps. Which component should you check?
A)CPU
B)Keyboard
C)Memory
D)Video card
A)CPU
When you boot a computer with an AMI BIOS and hear seven short beeps, it is an indication that something is wrong with the CPU. Most likely, the CPU was not properly seated during the upgrade.
Seven beeps do not indicate problems with the video card, memory, or keyboard. Problems with the video card result in eight short beeps with an AMI BIOS. Problems with memory result in two, three, four, or five short beeps with an AMI BIOS. Problems with the keyboard result in six short beeps with an AMI BIOS.
When a system boots, the power-on self-test (POST) will check the devices for functionality. If a device fails during the POST, a series of beep codes will sound to indicate the problem. BIOS beep codes can usually be traced to four sources: memory, video, keyboard, or CPU. If you are unfamiliar with the particular beep code, you should consult the computer’s maintenance manual or the website of the BIOS manufacturer. The codes that are used vary based on the manufacturer of the BIOS.
If the computer displays a blank screen at startup, and you hear the system fan but no POST beep sound, you may have a failed motherboard. If you hear beep codes, record the code that is heard and research that code to find the problem device. This problem could also mean that the power supply was not properly plugged into the motherboard.
The A+ exam lists other specific symptoms that an A+ technician must understand:
Unexpected shutdowns – Random shutdowns that are not accompanied with a particular error message are usually the result of overheating. Make sure that all fans are working effectively. You may also want to deploy additional cooling options. Make sure that all open ports in the computer have a cover. If an unexpected shutdown is accompanied by a blue screen of death (BSOD), please refer to the BSOD section below.
System lockups – System lockups occur when the system mysteriously stops functioning and no error or BSOD is displayed. Examine the system log files to troubleshoot the issue. Usually system lockups are due to memory issues, viruses, malware, or video issues.
BIOS times and settings reset – If you encounter this issue, the problem is with the CMOS battery. Replace the CMOS battery and make sure to reset your BIOS settings.
Attempts to boot to incorrect device – This issue is usually related to the BIOS/UEFI boot order. It was more common when floppy drives were listed as the first boot device. If a non-bootable floppy were left in the floppy drive at boot time, the computer would display a non-system disk or disk error at startup. Once the floppy disk was removed from the drive, the computer would boot. You can change the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI. This issue can also result from missing or corrupt boot files. If you suspect that this error is due to boot files being missing or corrupt, you should enable boot logging from the Windows Advanced Menu and replace the missing or corrupt boot files using the Windows installation media.
Continuous reboots – Reboots are usually the result of electrical issues, power supply issues, or overheating. Brownouts or blackouts cause computers to reboot. Attaching a computer to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) will ensure that you can safely shut down the computer if these occur. If the power supply in the computer is the issue, you should replace it with one that supplies adequate power to the computer. Finally, if overheating is causing the reboots, you should check all fans and ensure that the CPU heat sink is still attached. You may need to replace these or add another cooling device to your computer.
No power – Once again, check the obvious. Make sure that the computer is plugged in and that the wall outlet is supplying power. If a UPS or surge protector is used, check to see if its breaker was tripped by a power surge. Finally, check the computer’s power supply by replacing with known good unit.
Overheating – This is usually the result of cooling fan or cooling system failures. Make sure that all open slots are covered. In addition, ensure that all system fans are functional.
Intermittent device failure – First, make sure that you have the latest driver for the device. If the problem persists, you should replace the device. If intermittent failures are occurring with different devices, you could have a motherboard that needs replacing.
Fans spin, no power to other devices – If no beep codes are heard, you probably have motherboard failure. If you hear beep codes, record the code that is heard and research that code to find the problem device. This problem could also mean that the power supply was not properly plugged into the motherboard.
Smoke – This is a horrible problem to have but is usually easy to trace. Shut down the computer immediately and locate the device that is producing the smoke. Replace that device.
Burning smell – This problem usually accompanies smoke. As with smoke, you should shut down the computer immediately and locate the device that is producing the smoke. Replace that device.
Sluggish performance – Sluggish performance can be caused by a variety of different issues. If you notice performance is abnormally slow, try updating device drivers, expanding the available RAM, checking the integrity/updating operating system files, and closing background applications. Sluggish performance can also indicate a hard drive failure, fragmented data, or a malware infection.
Application crashes – If an application routinely crashes during use, there are several potential fixes. Users should attempt to install any driver and software updates to ensure the device and application is up to date. If applications are still not functioning, the user can attempt to roll back their device to a previously known safe state and test the application again to see what may have caused the crash. Lastly, users should also check the device’s event log to look for additional information about the system at the time of the crash.
Grinding noise – Loud noises or grinding noises usually originate from system fans, the power supply, or the hard drives, because very few internal devices have moving parts. While a grinding noise is most often associated with a hard drive failure, it can also come from a broken fan. The noise usually means that the component is close to failure. The CPU and power supply rely on these fans prevent overheating, so you should replace the part immediately.
Proprietary crash screens (BSOD/pin wheel) – Windows Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) errors are usually the result of hardware issues. You should always replace hardware one device at a time, following by a system boot. If the new hardware did not fix the issue, then that component is not the issue. Replace the component with the original and try replacing another component. Some of the more common BSOD errors are listed below:
Data_Bus_Error – Faulty hardware has been installed or existing hardware has failed. Usually this error is related to RAM, cache, or video RAM.
Unexpected_Kernel_Mode_Trap – Remove or replace any recently installed hardware. Run hardware diagnostics to determine which component has failed. Replace the failed hardware. This error can also be caused if you set the CPU to run at a higher speed than the CPU supports.
Page_Fault_in-nonpaged_area – This error is caused by RAM, cache, or video RAM. Replace the failed component.
Irq1_not_less_or_equal – This issue is usually caused by a device driver, system service, virus scanner, or backup tool that is not compatible with the version of Windows you are running. Make sure that all your drivers and software is updated to the version that is compatible with the Windows OS you are using.
Pinwheel errors occur when users see the spinning rainbow pinwheel. Causes include bugs in applications, event processing issues, and virtual memory issues.
Distended capacitors/capacitor swelling – Capacitors are included in computers on the motherboards, video cards, and power supplies. Capacitors can fail prematurely, causing the capacitor’s case to bulge or rupture. In most cases, the only way to fix this problem is to replace the card that has the swollen capacitor. It is possible to replace them, but the process requires soldering experience. Replacing the capacitor is an electrical hazard and should only be attempted with proper training.
You are showing a new IT technician how to install portable computer components. You want to demonstrate which devices can be removed and reinstalled without using screws or disassembling the computer. Which device satisfies this requirement?
A) Battery
B) Memory
C) Hard drive
D) Processor
A) Battery
The battery can be removed and re-installed without using screws or disassembling the portable computer in any way. You can “pop out” the old battery and “pop in” the new one by using a slider button on the bottom (or underside) of the computer.
The memory, hard drive, and processor are usually located inside the notebook, and accessing them will require some disassembly or the removal of screws. Memory for portable computers is usually located under the keyboard. Therefore, the keyboard must be removed to replace the memory. The processor is accessed in a similar manner. The hard drive is usually attached with screws to the bottom of the computer’s case.
Every time a Windows 10 computer boots, you receive an error message stating that the cover was previously removed. You want to prevent this alert from being displayed. In which location should you disable this alert?
A) In Device Manager
B) In the System Configuration utility
C) In the BIOS
D) In Event Viewer
C) In the BIOS
To prevent an alert regarding the cover being removed from displaying, you should disable the chassis intrusion detection, no matter which operating system you are running. Chassis intrusion detection is always configured in the system BIOS. Chassis intrusion detection is a method of physical intrusion detection. It provides an alert the next time the computer is booted that tells the user that the chassis has been opened. Often, hackers will physically open a computer to insert hardware that is used to capture confidential or sensitive information.
Chassis intrusion detection is not configured in the System Configuration utility, in Event Viewer, or in Device Manager.
You have a motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket. Which CPU would NOT be supported with this motherboard?
A)Core 2 Duo
B)Celeron
C)Xeon
D)Core i7
A)Core 2 Duo
A motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket will NOT support a Core 2 Duo CPU. An LGA 1155 CPU socket supports Core i3/i5/i7, Pentium, Celeron, and Xeon CPUs.
Core 2 Duo CPUs will require an LGA 775 socket. LGA 775 sockets also support Pentium 4, Celeron, Pentium 4 Extreme Edition, Core 2 Quad, and Xeon processors.
Which serial communication standards provide hot-swap capability? (Choose two.)
A) IEEE 1394
B) USB
C) RS-232C
D) PS/2
For the A+ exam, you also need to understand DB-9 and MOLEX connectors. DB-9 comes from the RS-232 standard and is a 9-pin connector. A Molex connector is used to provide power to drives of various types. It has four pins, two of which have power (one 12V and the other 5V).
A) IEEE 1394
B) USB
Universal Serial Bus (USB) and Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1394 are serial bus standards that allow hot swapping of devices. The term hot swapping, which is also known as hot plugging, refers to the ability to add or remove a device from the bus while the computer is turned on and operational. Older bus standards do not support this feature. Indeed, removing or adding a device while the computer is running can damage the device or the computer. For example, the ATX motherboard has two adjacent PS/2 ports for the keyboard and mouse connectors. If these connectors are reversed, the computer will usually beep and show an error message during the POST routine. If you unplug and reinsert the connectors while the computer is still turned on, you can cause a power surge through a connector and damage the motherboard. A typical response to an error message associated with such a connector reversal would be to press F1, but because the keyboard is connected to the mouse port, pressing this function key will have no effect.
USB is an external expansion bus standard that allows hot swapping and Plug and Play (PnP) capability. Up to 127 devices can be connected through 4-pin USB ports and daisy-chained USB hubs to a single USB controller. Two of the pins on the 4-pin USB port are used for data, and the other two provide power. The older USB 1.1 standard provides data transfer speeds of up to 12 megabits per second (Mbps), now referred to as low speed, because USB 2.0 supports a data transfer rate of 480 Mbps, which is called full speed or high speed. Devices that meet the USB 1.1 standard can be used with a USB 2.0 controller, which is designed for backward compatibility.
The USB specification uses a 4- or 5-pin, square- or rectangle-shaped connector. PS/2 connectors, also known as mini-DIN 6 connectors, are used almost exclusively with keyboard and mouse connectors. The green mini-DIN 6 connector is for a PS/2 mouse. The purple mini-DIN 6 connector is for a PS/2 keyboard.
The RS-232C serial interface is most commonly associated with COM ports and especially with dial-up modems that connect to a COM port. The AT motherboard commonly used a 9-pin serial mouse that also connected to a COM port. RS-232 ports only support one device per port.
The original IEEE 1394 standard offers data transfer rates of 400 Mbps; a newer standard, IEEE 1394b, provides up to 800 Mbps. The Apple implementation of IEEE 1394 is called FireWire, and the Sony implementation is called i.LINK. Like USB, FireWire also supports hot swapping and PnP capability. IEEE 1394 can support up to 63 devices. The IEEE 1394 specification uses a 9-pin male-to-male connector.
The hot pluggable hardware that you can purchase for a computer includes external SATA (eSATA), Express Card/54, and USB. eSATA is an external interface for a SATA hard drive. All three types of hardware are designed to allow users to install and remove devices at any time without having to switch off the computer.
A user contacts you with a printer configuration issue. The user wants to print multiple copies of a document. However, he wants the individual pages to print together, meaning all the copies of page 1 should print before the copies of page 2. Which configuration option should you tell the user to adjust?
A) Quality
B) Collation
C) Order
D) Orientation
B) Collation
You should tell the user to adjust the Collation option. Collation determines how the individual pages within a multiple-page document are printed when you print multiple copies of the document. Collated printing prints an entire copy of a document together before starting the next copy of a document. Non-collated printing prints all copies of a page before proceeding to the next page.
The Orientation option determines the orientation of the page. The Portrait orientation prints a page as normal, with the narrow side of the page at the top. The Landscape orientation prints a page with the wide side of the page at the top.
The Quality option determines the resolution at which the page is printed. You can usually select from draft, normal, or high quality mode.
The Order option determines the order the pages are printed. You can usually print a document from last page to first or from first page to last.
Another printer option that you should be familiar with is duplexing. Duplexing allows you to print on both sides of a sheet of paper. It requires that you purchase a printer with a duplexer installed or upgrade the printer by adding the duplexer.
A user has been given an inkjet printer that connects locally to this desktop computer. What does this printer use to push ink onto paper?
A) A piezoelectric crystal
B) A nozzle
C) An electrostatic charge
D) A moving pin
A) A piezoelectric crystal
Inkjet printers use either of two methods to push ink onto the print medium, typically paper. One method is to precisely vibrate a piezoelectric crystal, which then pumps ink through a nozzle. The other method is to apply a voltage to a resistor, which heats ink to the boiling point. When the ink boils, the vaporization pressure pushes the ink through fixed-position nozzles and onto paper. The first method is referred to as mechanical vibration, and the second method is referred to as thermal shock. A given inkjet printer will only use one of these ink deposition techniques. Although the nozzles control the direction of an ink droplet, they do not push the ink. Laser printers use an electrostatic charge to pull toner from a photosensitive drum onto paper. Moving pins are not a feature of ink-jet printers. A dot matrix printer has a print head that contains an array of pins; these movable pins strike an inked ribbon against a piece of paper to generate a series of dots that collectively create text and images. A laser printer uses an electrostatic charge to allow the toner to adhere to the paper.
For inkjet printers, you need to know about the following parts: ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt. The roller or feeder (depending on how the printer is configured) actually grabs the paper from the paper tray. The carriage holds the print head and moves it to the appropriate location. A belt and motor move the carriage. A duplexing assembly allows the printer to print on both the front and back of a sheet of paper. A good technician will want to know how to troubleshoot printer issues to educate users on cleaning heads, replacing printer cartridges, and clearing jams.
Inkjet printers need to be calibrated to ensure that the inkjet nozzles are aligned properly and that the color mixture is correct. Use the built-in calibration program to perform this function. This program is usually installed when the printer drivers are installed.
You need to install a TV tuner adapter card in a computer. All of the following steps are necessary EXCEPT
A) plugging the antenna into the TV tuner adapter card.
B) plugging the audio cable into the TV tuner adapter card and sound card.
C) plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a USB port.
D) plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a PCI slot.
C) plugging the TV tuner adapter card into a USB port.
To install a TV tuner adapter card in a computer, you should NOT plug the TV tuner card into a USB port. While there are TV tuners available that plug into a USB port, the USB TV tuners are not adapter cards. Instead, they are external devices that plug into a USB port. A TV tuner card can decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source.
You should plug the TV tuner adapter card into a PCI slot. In addition, you should plug the audio cable into the TV tuner adapter card and sound card. This will ensure that the TV audio is played through your sound card. After closing the computer case, you should plug the antenna into the TV tuner adapter card.
A TV tuner adapter card will allow a computer to receive TV signals.
A customer has a Windows 7 computer with a HD DVD drive. He is asking about DVD compatibility. Which type of disk will he be unable to use in his computer?
A) DVD disks
B) Blu-ray disks
C) CD-ROM disks
D) HD DVD disks
B) Blu-ray disks
High-definition DVD (HD DVD) drives can play CD-ROM disks, DVD disks, and HD DVD disks. All HD DVD drives are backwards compatible with CD-ROM and DVD disks.
HD DVD drives cannot play Blu-ray disks. Only Blu-ray drives can play Blu-ray disks. Blu-ray drives can play CD-ROM and DVD disks.
DVD drives can play CD-ROM and DVD disks. CD-ROM drives can only play CD-ROM disks.
A user needs to transport a 1,100 MB file using physical media. Which media types could be used? (Choose two.)
A) CD-RW
B) CD
C) DDS-3
D) DVD+R
C) DDS-3
D) DVD+R
The DVD+R and Digital Data Storage (DDS)-3 media types could be used to transport a 1,100 MB file. The DVD+R, DVD-R, DVD+RW, and DVD-RW media standards can store up to 4.7 GB on a single optical disk. Double-sided DVDs can store up to 9.4 GB. DVD media are the media type most used to duplicate bootable media. DVD-ROM is the DVD version of the standard CD format and allows up to 16 GB of data. If a DVD recordable disc has the DL designation, it stands for Double Layer. DVD+R DL discs can store up to 8.5 GB.
The DDS-3 digital audio tape (DAT) format can store from 12 to 20 GB on a single tape cartridge. Other tape formats, such as Travan and DLT, can also be used to store up to 70 GB per tape cartridge. The CD-R and CD-RW formats can store up to 700 MB on a single optical disc. A first-generation (1x) CD-ROM drive can transfer data at speeds up to 150 kilobytes per second (Kbps). The other possible CD-ROM drive specifications are as follows:
2x – 300 Kbps
4x – 600 Kbps
8x – 1,200 Kbps
10x – 1,500 Kbps
12x – 1,800 Kbps
20x – 3,000 Kbps
32x – 4,800 Kbps
36x – 5,400 Kbps
40x – 6,000 Kbps
48x – 7,200 Kbps
52x – 7,800 Kbps
56x – 8,400 Kbps
72x – 10,800 Kbps
A standard CD-ROM that uses a single laser beam to read data can only read data at up to 8,400 Kbps. The 72x CD-ROM is not a standard CD-ROM drive because it uses multiple laser beams to read the data. You can install a live version of an operating system on a CD-ROM if you want to be able to boot from an operating system without installing the operating system on a fixed hard drive.
Single-sided, single-layer Blu-Ray optical disks can store up to 25 GB. Dual-layer Blu-Ray disks can store up to 50 GB. Blu-Ray drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, and CD-ROM media. BD-ROM is the Blu-Ray version of a DVD-ROM disk but can store 25 to 50 GB of data. BD-R is a recordable version of Blu-Ray, and BD-RE is a rewritable version of Blu-Ray.
Optical drives, such as Blu-Ray, DVD, and CD-ROM drives, actually burn an image onto the media using a laser. Magnetic drives store data using a magnet.
Your company has recently purchased computer hardware inventory so that its IT technicians can make custom computers for certain users. The processors that were purchased include the Hyper-Threading (HT) technology. Which benefit does this technology provide?
A) Uses two or more physical processors to function
B) Allows the resources to sit idle
C) Reduces workload capacity
D) Uses virtual processors to perform multitasking
D) Uses virtual processors to perform multitasking
The Hyper-Threading (HT) technology in a processor provides the benefit of using a virtual processor to perform multitasking. A processor with HT enabled uses a single processor to create another virtual processor to simultaneously perform multiple tasks. A computer with HT enabled will virtually have two processors running. One processor is physically present in the computer, and another processor is a virtual processor. The HT capability of a processor allows the processor to perform multiple tasks without causing any delay by keeping multiple processes waiting in queue.
The HT technology in a processor does not reduce the workload capacity. HT technology increases the workload capacity of a processor by allowing the processor to multitask between processes.
The HT technology in a processor does not allow resources to sit idle. A processor with HT enabled can simultaneously handle multiple processes and execute them simultaneously. Therefore, the computer resources are used more efficiently, and the performance of the computer is improved.
The HT technology in a processor does not require two or more physical processors to function. The technology allows a single processor to act as two processors. One processor is the actual physical processor, and the other is a virtual processor that has been created for multitasking.
Recently, you had to have the nozzle gate in an inkjet printer replaced. What is the function of this component?
A) Controls whether ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
B) Controls how much ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
C) Contains ink in the ink cartridge
D) Controls the paper movement
A) Controls whether ink is flowing from the ink cartridge
The nozzle gate controls the flow of ink from the ink cartridge to the paper. When an inkjet printer starts printing, the nozzle gate opens and allows the nozzle to spray the ink onto the paper. After printing is stopped, the nozzle gate shuts down to stop the flow of the ink. When the printer is idle, the nozzle gate remains closed to prevent the flow of the ink from the ink cartridge.
The nozzle gate does not control the paper movement. The transfer roller controls the paper movement and is a component of a dot matrix printer. The transfer roller is responsible for pushing paper upward for printing.
The nozzle gate does not contain the ink in the ink cartridge. The capillary tube is a component that contains the ink and is located behind the nozzle.
A nozzle gate does not control the ink quantity that flows from the ink cartridge. The nozzle is responsible for controlling the ink quantity that flows from the ink cartridge to the paper. A nozzle sprays an appropriate amount of ink to the paper for proper printing.
You have been tasked with performing several upgrades in a computer. Which hardware component will require the least amount of time to replace?
A) Motherboard
B) Power supply unit
C) Memory module
D) Network interface card
C) Memory module
A memory module is inserted into the memory slot without investing substantial effort. The memory module will require the least time to replace. Memory modules are usually just inserted into the slot and snapped into place. No screws are required. You should install additional memory of the same type and speed as existing memory to ensure RAM compatibility.
The network interface card (NIC), processor, motherboard, and power supply unit are field replaceable units (FRUs) of a computer. A motherboard will require disassembly of the entire system unit before being replaced. Therefore, a motherboard is not the hardware component that requires the least amount of time to replace. A power supply unit will also require a substantial amount of effort to replace compared to a memory module. With a power supply, all of the power connectors would need to be disconnected from the motherboard and all peripheral devices. Typically, a NIC is installed as an add-on card that can be taken out of the system unit by opening a single screw. A NIC will require more time to be replaced than a memory module.
You are explaining the significance of the wires running from a power supply. The Power Good signal sends power to the motherboard to indicate that the electrical power is sufficient and can prevent the computer from booting. Which voltage is used by the Power Good signal?
A) +3.3
B) +12
C) -12
D) +5
E) -5
D) +5
The Power Good signal is a +5 voltage sent over a specific wire in the connector. This wire sends power from the power supply to the motherboard. If the motherboard does not receive the signal, the computer will not boot. If this is occurring, the only solution is to replace the power supply. The +5 voltage provides power to the motherboard. It also provides power to older CD/DVD drives, hard drives, PCI cards, and Pentium III and earlier processors.
The +3.3 voltage provides power to certain video cards and the motherboard. However, it has nothing to do with the Power Good signal.
The -5 voltage provides power to the ISA or AT bus adapter cards.
The -12 voltage provides power to some older network adapters and serial ports.
The +12 voltage provides power to newer CD/DVD drives, hard drives, and Pentium 4 and Athlon processors.
A Molex connector is the power connector that is larger than the connector used for floppy diskette drives, and it is commonly used with PATA drives. A Berg connector is used with floppy disk drives.
You are a desktop engineer for Verigon Corporation. Gloria requires a PCI network interface card and a PCI sound card installed in her computer. Her computer has three PCI slots, two of which contain the video card and the modem, respectively. Which card should you use to attach both the PCI network interface card and sound card to the computer?
A) PCMCIA card
B )Riser card
C) Flash memory card
D) USB PCI card
B )Riser card
You should use a riser card to attach both the PCI network interface card and the sound card to the computer. A riser card is an expansion card that can be directly connected to the motherboard on a PCI or ISA slot. Riser cards have several slots to hold additional cards, such as PCI or ISA, that work in parallel with the motherboard. A riser card is commonly used in Low Profile Extended (LPX) and New Low Profile Extended (NLX) computers because these form factors are for slim-line cases.
A PCMCIA card is an incorrect option because it is not used on desktop computers. A PCMCIA card is also known as a PC card and is used in laptops. You cannot use a USB PCI card to attach PCI cards to the motherboard. A USB PCI card functions as a USB hub that provides additional USB ports to connect more USB devices. It does not provide slots to attach PCI devices.
You cannot use a flash memory card in this scenario because it does not have the capability to attach a PCI network interface card or sound card to it. Flash memory devices are storage devices by design. Flash memory cards include USB thumb drives, flash cards, CompactFlash (CF) cards, SmartMedia cards, Secure Digital (SD) cards, MiniSD cards, MicroSD cards, and Extreme Digital (xD) Picture Cards. Flash memory cards are a type of solid-state drive (SSD).
You have decided to enable overclocking to increase the performance of a computer. On which computer components can you specifically enable overclocking? (Choose all that apply.)
A)RAM
B)Motherboard
C)Hard drive
D)Processor
E)System bus
A)RAM
D)Processor
E)System bus
You can specifically overclock the processor, RAM, and system bus. No other computer components can be overclocked. However, overclocking the system bus may also cause other components to be overclocked. Overclocking allows you to run the processor or system bus at a higher speed than the manufacturer’s rating to gain increased performance.
Overclocking cannot be specifically enabled on the motherboard or hard drive.
You are explaining to a group of new IT technicians the workings of a magnetic hard drive. As part of this discussion, you must cover the different parts. Which term is used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter?
A)Sector
B)Cluster
C)Cylinder
D)Track
D)Track
The term track identifies the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A hard disk platter is divided into various smaller circles referred to as tracks. There are 1,024 tracks on a single platter, numbered from 0 to 1,023.
A sector is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A sector is the smallest part of a track. Typically, a sector is 512 KB in size.
A cluster is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A cluster is a combination of two or more sectors. When you attempt to save a file that is larger than 512 KB, two sectors will be used. In this scenario, two sectors will be used to form a cluster.
A cylinder is not used to identify the concentric circles on a hard disk platter. A cylinder is a collection of the same track number, such as track 10, from all the recordable platters.
The physical parts of the hard drive assembly are as follows:
Platter – Hard drives generally have multiple disks in a stack, and each disk is known as a platter.
Spindle – The spindle revolves the platters in a speed measured by the revolutions per minute (RPM).
Read/write head – The head reads and writes data to/from the platters; there is usually a set of read/write heads on each side of each platter.
Drive bay – The drive bay is the physical space allowed for the drive assembly in the computer case.
Non-SCSI hard drives generally come in two types: SATA (Serial ATA) and IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics). IDEs are a standard interface used to connect a motherboard to various storage devices, like hard drives. IDE is the older technology. SATA is newer and provides faster speeds than IDE.
Which printer upgrade option allows a printer to act as a standalone printer on a network?
A)NIC
B)Duplexer
C)Finisher
D)RAM
A)NIC
Some printers allow you to install a network interface card (NIC) so that the printer can act as a standalone printer on a network. This allows you to attach the computer directly to the network as you would any other device. Print jobs can then be sent directly to the printer. Networked printers are public devices that are connected to the network using an Ethernet or coaxial cable, depending on the type of network used. USB and serial printers can be configured as shared devices over the network by sharing them via the operating system of the computer to which they are attached. However, with USB and serial printers, the computer to which the printer is installed must be left on so other users can print.
If a printer cannot have a NIC installed, you can share the printer locally from your computer. To do this, you attach the printer to your computer using a USB or printer cable. Then, use the Sharing tab of the printer’s Properties dialog box to share the printer. Users would then connect to the printer using the \computer_name\printer_name designation or the printer’s IP address. This allows you to share a local/networked printer via Operating System settings.
RAM is often upgraded to provide faster print job processing, but it will not create a standalone networked printer.
A finisher refers to a device that attaches to a printer to further process documents after they have printed, such as stapling and collating. A duplexer is a device that allows paper to be printed on both sides.
To print to a printer over a network, the LPR or RAW printing protocols are used. When installing a printer on a network, you need to ensure that you have the latest version of the printer drivers. These are usually downloaded from the printer manufacturer’s website. Some printers come with integrated hardware to allow the printer to act as an integrated print server. Printers can also use wireless or Bluetooth to communicate over a network or with a single computer. Some printers also come equipped with 802.11 network cards, allowing the printer to connect to a wireless access point. Keep in mind that with 802.11, you have two modes of communication: infrastructure or ad hoc. In infrastructure mode, a wireless access point acts as the central communication point between multiple wireless devices. In ad hoc mode, no wireless access point is needed. Wireless clients set up point-to-point connections in ad hoc mode.
Many of today’s printers are also equipped with cloud printing or remote printing capabilities. This allows users to print to a printer using the Internet. Cloud or remote printing utilities are provided to configure the printer properly. Then a cloud or remote printing application is downloaded to the device (desktop computer, laptop, smartphone, tablet, and so on) that allows the device to communicate with the printer over the Internet.
Printers can often be configured as public/shared devices using the settings in the computer’s operating system. Options include using TCP, Bonjour, and AirPrint, which allows sharing local/networked device via operating system settings. Recent years have brought an awareness of the need for data privacy and printing. It is often cost-prohibitive to provide all employees with their own printer. This is particularly tricky when employees must print private data as part of their day-to-day duties. Many printers now have solutions for this problem. User authentication on the physical printer can ensure that printed documents are only physically printed when the requestor is at the printer, thereby ensuring that only the requestor has access to the documents. Working in conjunction with this technique is hard drive caching, which allows documents to be stored on a hard drive until the printer is ready to print the documents.
You can provide printer device sharing both wired and wirelessly. Wired connections include USB, serial, and Ethernet ports. Wireless connections include Bluetooth and 802.11, including a, b, g, n, and ac. Wireless infrastructure mode requires a central access point, while ad hoc mode allows peer-to-peer connections without the use of a central access point.
Match the cable types on the left with the appropriate maximum distance and speed options on the right. Move the correct items from the left column to the column on the right to match cable type with the correct maximum distance and speed.
Cable Types
ThinNet
Single-mode Fiber
Multi-mode Fiber
Cat5
ThickNet
Cat6
Maximum Distance and Speed
Up to 100 m and 100 Mbps
Up to 100 m and 10 Gbps
Up to 185 m and 10 Mbps
Up to 500 m and 10 Mbps
Up to 500 m and 10 Gbp
The following is the correct matching of the cable types with maximum distance and speed options:
Cat5 – Up to 100 meters and 100 Mbps
Cat6 – Up to 100 meters and 10 Gbps
ThinNet – Up to 185 meters and 10 Mbps
ThickNet – Up to 500 meters and 10 Mbps
Multi-mode fiber – Up to 500 meters and 10 Gbps
Single-mode fiber – Up to 40 kilometers and 10 Gbps
Beverly has contacted you and stating that her computer will not boot and keeps beeping. Which components must pass a computer’s power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load? (Choose three.)
A)The hard disk drive
B)The central processing unit (CPU)
C)The keyboard
D)The video card
E)The network interface card (NIC)
F)The memory
B)The central processing unit (CPU)
D)The video card
F)The memory
A computer will not load an operating system if it encounters fatal errors during the POST. A central processing unit (CPU), memory, or video card failure during the POST routine will generate a fatal error and halt the startup process. A hard disk drive and a keyboard are both optional devices for a computer. Many server computers do not have a keyboard for security reasons, and most basic input/output system (BIOS) routines allow the POST to bypass a keyboard error.
Although a hard disk failure will prevent the loading of an operating system from that disk, not all computers load the operating system from a hard disk. For example, many computers can load the operating system from a floppy disk, a CD-ROM drive, or a network drive.
Failure of a network interface card (NIC) will prevent the loading of an operating system from a network location, but an operating system can still be loaded from a local device.
The POST of a computer is designed to test the essential components of the system during power on. During the built-in diagnostics performed by the BIOS, the CPU, memory, and video card must function properly. After the POST executes, the boot loader phase occurs. The BIOS contains a setting for the memory (RAM), hard drive, optical drive, and CPU.
You need to install a new video card in a Windows XP Professional computer. You need to ensure that the installed technology supports both analog and digital transmissions. Which technology should you install?
A)DVI-D
B)DVI-I
C)DVI-A
D)HDMI
For the A+ exam, you also need to understand the following:
DVI-to-HDMI adapter or convertor – allows a device with a DVI connector to connect to an HDMI port or vice versa
USB A-to-USB B adaptor or convertor – allows a device with a USB A connector to connect to a USB port or vice versa
USB-to-Ethernet adaptor or convertor – allows device with a USB connector to connect to an Ethernet port or vice versa
DVI-to-VGA adaptor or convertor – allows a device with a DVI connector to connect to a VGA port or vice versa
Thunderbolt-to-DVI adaptor or convertor – allows a device with a Thunderbolt connector to connect to a DVI port or vice versa
PS/2-to-USB adaptor or convertor – allows a device with a PS/2 connector to connect to a USB port or vice versa
HDMI-to-VGA adaptor or convertor – allows a device with an HDMI connector to connect to a VGA port or vice versa
B)DVI-I
Digital Video Interface-I (DVI-I) technology supports both analog and digital transmissions. DVI technology is newer than Video Graphic Array (VGA) technology.
None of the other options supports both transmission types. DVI-D and High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) supports only digital transmissions. HDMI comes in three standard sizes: Standard HDMI, Mini-HDMI, and Micro-HDMI. DVI-A allows a VGA connector to connect to a DVI-I interface. With DVI-A technology, only analog transmissions are supported.
A DVI-D connector is shown in the following graphic:
A DVI-I connector is shown in the following graphic:
A DVI-A connector is shown in the following graphic:
An HDMI connector is shown in the following graphic:
Another display port that you need to understand for the A+ exams is a connection called DisplayPort. This is a video port found on Apple Mac desktop models and some PCs, including laptops by HP and Dell. The DisplayPort is shown in the following exhibit:
RCA connectors are older connectors that send a video signal through a single composite or component cable. Red, green, and blue (RGB) connectors split the RCA signal into three separate color components. A BNC video connector is the standard connector used for coaxial cable connections, such as those used by standard cable television companies. A mini Din-6 connector is the standard round, proprietary connector used with an S-video cable.
You want to ensure that a computer has a 64-bit architecture and is able to fully utilize 64-bit computing. Which component is NOT important for this purpose?
A)Operating system
B)Processor
C)Device drivers
D)Memory
D)Memory
The computer’s memory is not important. A benefit of using 64-bit processors is that the maximum amount of RAM that can be used increased from 4 gigabytes to 1 terabyte (1,000 gigabytes).For a computer to provide a full 64-bit architecture, the computer must have a 64-bit processor installed. In addition, a 64-bit operating system and 64-bit device drivers must be used to ensure that the 64-bit processor is fully utilized.
When the 64 designation is used in a processor name, it means that the processor provides a 64-bit register. 64-bit processors allow computers to use memory over 4 gigabytes (GB).To fully utilize a 64-bit architecture, all components need to support it. Otherwise, those components that do not support the 64-bit architecture will operate in 32-bit mode.
You need to connect two computers for a customer. The customer does not have a network and does not wish to purchase a concentrator, but both computers include functional Ethernet network interface cards with RJ-45 connectors. Which component will allow you to meet your customer’s needs?
A)A crossover cable
B)A passive hub
C)An Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card
D)A protocol analyzer
A)A crossover cable
You can use a crossover cable to connect two computers directly through the RJ-45 connectors on their Ethernet network cards. A crossover cable consists of a standard 10BaseT cable with RJ-45 connectors that have specific pin contacts reversed. RJ-45 connectors, when used to connect Ethernet interface cards, support a 10BaseT network topology. On a standard 10BaseT network, computers’ network interface cards must connect to a concentrator, often referred to as a hub, before they are able to communicate with other computers. The reversed pin contacts in crossover cables accomplish the same signal conditioning that Ethernet concentrators are responsible for on a typical 10BaseT network. One reason to use a crossover cable is to connect two computers directly without incurring the cost of a concentrator.
Null-modem cables, which are serial cables with some pin contacts reversed, also allow direct communication between two computers. Use of the term null-modem became common because communications through these modified serial cables use modem commands and protocols, but actual modems do not have to be physically present. Standard serial ports are adequate for initiating and maintaining a connection.
An AGP card is a graphics card designed to connect to a computer’s AGP slot.
Passive hubs are concentrators that require no external electric power. The 10BaseT standard does not include specifications for passive hubs; consequently, 10BaseT concentrators are all active, which means they require a source of electric power.
A protocol analyzer is a tool that allows the capture and display of packets traveling across a network.
You have noticed dust, debris, and toner particles inside a laser printer. You need to vacuum the inside of the laser printer. What should you do first?
A)Remove the roller blade.
B)Remove excess toner with a damp cloth.
C)Remove the photosensitive drum.
D)Remove the toner cartridge.
D)Remove the toner cartridge.
You should remove the toner cartridge first. If you do not, you may have a larger mess than when you started. Using a damp cloth would be a mistake since the water can mix with the toner, again causing a larger mess than the one you started with.
You are preforming some hardware upgrades on an old computer. You notice that the computer has an available Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot. Which statement is an accurate characterization of this architecture?
A)The PCI architecture is for Intel-compatible computers only.
B)All PCI cards support bus mastering.
C)The PCI bus is for 80386 and 80486 computers only.
D)The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.
D)The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.
The PCI architecture supports 64-bit data transfers and includes 32-bit data paths for backward compatibility, whereas older Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) buses support only 8-bit and 16-bit data transfers. Because PCI slot circuitry is more compact than ISA circuitry, PCI slots are shorter and take up less space on a system board than their ISA counterparts.
The PCI bus is independent of a computer’s processor type. Apple computers also incorporate PCI buses.
Although the PCI standard was developed mostly to allow for bus mastering, not all PCI devices use bus mastering. Not all PCI slots in a computer support bus mastering, either. Bus mastering refers to the ability of a device to take control of a computer’s expansion bus and send data directly to another device on the bus without requiring the use of a computer’s central processing unit (CPU) resources. In most cases, you can expect the PCI slots closest to the keyboard connector to support bus mastering.
New PCI buses and devices can run at 66 megahertz (MHz) and support data transfers at top speeds of approximately 132 megabytes per second (MBps). In modern computers, the PCI bus has displaced the VL bus, or Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) Local Bus (VLB), which is an older standard with a maximum practical speed of 33 MHz that is not compatible with Pentium computers. PCI supports multiple processors and is the leading standard for expansion bus technology. Major manufacturers of Intel-compatible system boards currently incorporate PCI buses onto their new system boards. The following PCI standards and specifications should be remembered for testing purposes:
Standard PCI – 32-bit bus and up to 133 megabytes per second (MBps) bus speed
PCI 2.1 – 32-bit and 64-bit bus and up to 266 MBps and 532 MBps bus speed, respectively
PCI -X 1.0 – 64-bit bus and up to 1.06 gigabytes per second (GBps) bus speed
PCI-X 2.0 – 64-bit bus and up to 4.26 GBps bus speed
PCI-X 3.0 – 64-bit bus and up to 8.5 GBps bus speed
PCI Express (PCIe) 1.0 – 32-bit bus and up to 2 GBps bus speed
PCIe 2.0 – 32-bit bus and up to 5 GBps bus speed
PCIe 3.0 – 32-bit bus and up to 8 GBps bus speed
PCIe 4.0 – 32-bit bus and up to 16 GBps bus speed
PCIe is often used for video cards, including HD video cards.
Mini-PCIe is a PCI standard used in laptops. It uses a 32-bit bus. It is also in DVD players, HDTVs, and other devices.
As an IT technician, you are responsible for maintaining your company’s laser printers. Recently, you read that laser printers have a cleaning phase. Another IT technician explains that you do not need to clean a laser printer because of this phase. However, you do not agree. What actually occurs during this phase?
A)The primary corona wire applies a uniform charge on the imaging drum.
B)The transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper.
C)The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum.
D)The laser writes an image on the imaging drum.
C)The discharge lamp neutralizes the imaging drum.
The discharge lamp neutralizes the photoreceptor in the cleaning stage of the laser printing process. The following are the seven stages of the laser printing process:
Processing – The computer sends the printed document to the printer spooler. The printer spooler contacts the printer. The printer processes the image.
Charging – The charge corona (also referred to as the primary corona) applies a uniform charge (typically negative) to the imaging drum. This creates a “blank slate” to which the laser will write.
Exposing – The modulated laser beam writes an electrostatic image on the rotating drum. Any areas on the imaging drum that the laser beam touches lose most of their electrostatic charge. This differential in electrostatic charge between the areas of the drum that have been written to and the remainder of the drum allows the image to attract toner in the next phase.
Developing – Toner is transferred from the toner cartridge to the imaging drum. The toner cartridge has a metallic roller called a developing cylinder that takes on a charge equal to the imaging drum. The toner sticks to the developing cylinder, and as it rotates toward the paper, a “toner fog” is created as the toner is both attracted to and repelled from the imaging drum. The toner is repelled from areas that were not touched by the laser because they have the same electrostatic charge as the toner, and it is attracted to the areas on the drum that were touched by the laser because of the difference in the electrostatic charges. This creates an image that is ready to be transferred to a piece of paper.
Transferring – The transfer corona charges the paper so that the toner on the imaging drum is attracted to the paper as the drum rotates and the paper and drum come into very close proximity. A corona discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper immediately after the toner transfers from the imaging drum to the paper, preventing the paper from sticking to the drum. Transfer rollers move the paper through the transferring process.
Fusing – The final step permanently bonds the toner to the paper. A fusing roller, heated by a quartz lamp, melts the toner to the paper, and the paper exits the printer.
Cleaning – A rubber cleaning blade removes any toner left on the imaging drum and deposits it into a waste bin, and a discharge lamp neutralizes the charge on the drum.
Your company recently had to call in a service representative to repair a laser printer. During the service call, the representative explains that the laser printer’s charge or primary corona was having problems. What is the main purpose of this laser printer component?
A)To charge the paper
B)To apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive drum
C)To write the image on the drum
D)To neutralize the charge on the paper
E)To coordinate the components to print a page
F)To melt the toner into the paper
B)To apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive drum
The purpose of the charge corona (called conditioning rollers in some laser printers) is to apply a uniform negative charge to the photosensitive particles on the surface of the imaging drum. It operates in tandem with the discharge lamp to essentially create a blank slate on which the laser can write. After the drum passes through the charge corona, an electrostatic image can be created on the imaging drum with the laser. Any areas on the imaging drum that the laser beam touches loses its electrostatic charge. These areas attract the charged toner as the drum rotates through the toner container, creating an electrostatic image on the drum.
As the drum continues to rotate, the toner particles on the drum come into very close proximity to the paper and are pulled onto it, because the paper is charged by the transfer corona wire. The paper then passes through a device (detac corona wire) that discharges the electrostatic charge on the paper, which keeps the paper from sticking to the drum. Finally, the paper passes through a fuser that heats the paper and bonds the plastic toner particles to it as the toner melts, creating the printed image.
As the paper exits the detac corona wire and fuser, the drum continues to rotate where it passes the discharge lamp, discharging the electrostatic charge on the drum. It then rotates to the primary corona, where the process begins again.
You need to assemble a new computer. You have an AMD Opteron process. Which of the following CPU sockets will NOT support this?
A)FM1
B)AM2
C)940
D)F
A)FM1
The FM1 CPU socket will NOT support an AMD Opteron CPU. This socket will support the AMD Llano CPU.
The F CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs.
The Socket 940 CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs.
The AM2 CPU socket will support Athlon 64, Athlon 64 X2, Athlon 64 FX, 2nd generation Opteron, Sempron, and Phenom CPUs.
Management has mandated that hard disks installed in servers provide the best disk performance and speed. You need to ensure that you purchase hard disks that conform to this mandate. Which factors should you consider? (Choose all that apply.)
A)Faster seek time
B)Bigger disk geometry
C)Higher latency time
D)Higher rate of revolutions per minute
E)Higher disk capacity
A)Faster seek time
D)Higher rate of revolutions per minute
A faster seek time and higher rate of revolutions per minute (RPM) improve hard disk performance and speed. The seek time, measured in milliseconds (ms), largely depends on the speed with which the actuator arm can read the information from the platters of the disk’s read/write position. The actuator positions the head to different tracks on the hard drive’s platter surface. An actuator is also used in CD-ROM drives. The actuator is the part that moves. The faster the actuator arm moves and reaches the read/write position, the faster the response. The drive access speed is also dependent on the spinning speed of the platters. The spinning speed is measured in RPMs. A higher RPM value indicates a higher speed for the disk. Hard disk drives are the primary type of media rated using an RPM value. Other types of drives, including tape drives and flash drives, are not rated using an RPM value. Common RPMs for drives include 5,400 RPM, 7,200 RPM, 10,000 RPM, and 15,000 RPM.
A higher latency time does not improve the disk performance. A higher latency time indicates that the RPM value is low and that the platters are taking a long time to reach the read/write head. Higher latency negatively impacts the disk performance and speed. The disk capacity indicates the amount of data that a disk can hold. Disk capacity does not indicate a hard disk’s speed and performance. A disk with higher disk capacity can even decrease the performance if the hard drive has a large amount of data or is full. Bigger disk geometry does not indicate higher speed and performance. The disk geometry indicates a disk’s cylinders, sectors, and heads.
Magnetic hard drives are drives that write data platters that are magnetically coated. These drives have a higher failure rate than solid-state drives, which have no moving parts. Magnetic drives come in two sizes or form factors: 2.5” and 3.5”. The 2.5” version is used mostly in laptops, while the 3.5” version is used mostly in desktops and servers.
Identify the external USB connectors on the motherboard by clicking the appropriate area.
What is the greatest distance that can separate the USB 2.0 device from the computer?
A)5 meters
B)3 meters
C)1.5 meters
D)10 meters
A)5 meters
You are hired to train a group of new users to become technicians. One of your lessons is on how to construct Cat5 and Cat6 Ethernet cables. To make sure they know the difference between 568A and 568B cables, what are the two most important areas you would focus on during the training?
A)A cable with one end wired as 568A and the other end wired as 568B is called a crossover cable, and a cable with both ends wired with the same standard is called a straight-through cable.
B)Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable.
C)T568B is called a crossover cable, and T568A is called a straight-through cable.
D)Purchase 568B wiring cables only.
A)A cable with one end wired as 568A and the other end wired as 568B is called a crossover cable, and a cable with both ends wired with the same standard is called a straight-through cable.
B)Use the correct color scheme pattern for a T568A and T568B cable.
You should instruct them on the proper color scheme or order. For T568B, the correct order is: Orange/white orange, Green/white blue, Blue/white green, and Brown/white brown. For T568A, it switches the green, orange, and blue wires with the correct order as follows: Green/white green, Orange/white blue, Blue/white orange, and Brown/white brown.
You should also teach them that a crossover cable has two different ends: one wired as 568A and the other as 568B. A straight-through cable is used for directly connecting cables to a wall jack, which enables that node to communicate with several devices, and both ends would be either 568A or 568B.
You have purchased a new power supply with a 24-pin connector. However, the motherboard only has a 20-pin connector. What is the fastest option to get the computer operational again?
A)Purchase another power supply with a 20-pin connector.
B)Plug the 24-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving the remaining pins unconnected.
C)Purchase a motherboard with a 24-pin power connector.
D)Change the setting on the voltage selector switch.
B)Plug the 24-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving the remaining pins unconnected.
You should plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 11, 12, 23, and 24 unconnected. These four pins are for higher current capabilities of the processor, which do not need to be used in the current scenario.
A user reports that he is having problems with his laptop’s monitor. He explains that the liquid crystal display (LCD) is no longer spreading the light over the entire screen. Which component of the LCD is most likely causing this problem?
A)Vertical alignment
B)Deflection yoke
C)Inverter
D)Electron gun
E)Diffuser
E)Diffuser
The diffuser component is the most likely cause of the problem. The diffuser takes the points of light and uniformly spreads them out over the entire area of the display.
Randy wants to know the cost differences between several hard drives for his laptop. He knows that flash memory can serve as a hard drive, but he needs to know what type of drive to order. What should you tell him to purchase?
A)Solid-state drive
B)SATA hard drive
C)PATA hard drive
D)SCSI hard drive
A)Solid-state drive
Solid-state drives are similar to flash drives, which have no moving parts. Sometimes, people purchase them for additional storage in a laptop or as replacements for their hard drives. Solid-state drives are more expensive than magnetic drives but have some major advantages that people need to consider. Because they have no moving parts, they consume less power, make very little noise, are more reliable, and have fewer heat issues.
Jane is responsible for making sure her team has all the items it needs when traveling for business. One of her users has a laptop with no active Ethernet port. Which accessory should she purchase for that team member?
A)USB-to-RJ-45 dongle
B)USB 3.0 cable
C)USB-to-Wi-Fi dongle
D)USB-to-Thunderbolt cable
A)USB-to-RJ-45 dongle
You are assessing several computers to decide on a purchase for your company. Which CPU-to-front-side bus ratio would provide better performance?
A)5:1
B)3:1
C)4:1
D)2:1
D)2:1
The 2:1 CPU-to-front-side bus (FSB) ratio would provide better performance than the other ratios. The smaller the ratio, the more efficiently the processor will operate. When the ratio is high, the processor often has to wait for data to be sent out over the FSB before getting new data to process.
For example, when a CPU can operate at 3,200 MHz and the FSB can operate at 1,600 MHz, the fastest speed that the CPU will work at is 1,600 MHz. This is an example of a 2:1 ratio. The CPU can only operate at the highest speed of which the FSB is capable. The FSB speed is set in the BIOS. The Execute Disable Bit (EDB) is a feature by Intel that is basically a security feature on CPUs to help prevent hackers and malicious worm attempts. These CPUs have a J after the model number and are used in PCs or servers to prevent damage and worm propagation. In the CompTIA documentation, EDB is referred to as disable execute bit.
Keep in mind that memory speeds are also affected by the front-side bus speed. If you have 2,400 MHz memory but a 600 MHz FSB, the memory will only be able to operate at 600 MHz.
You have been instructed to build a new computer using an existing Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard. You must purchase a computer case that will be able to hold this motherboard. What are the dimensions of the motherboard?
A)12 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep
B)6.7 inches wide by 6.7 inches deep
C)11.2 inches wide by 8.2 inches deep
D)9.6 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep
A)12 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep
The correct dimensions for an ATX motherboard are 12 inches wide and 9.6 inches deep. An ATX motherboard has the processor and memory located at a right angle to the expansion slots so that more expansion slots can be installed easily. An ATX motherboard supports up to seven expansion slots in a combination of Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slots. The ITX form factor is 8.6 inches wide by 7.5 inches deep and had very little impact in the marketplace. The mini-ITX form factor is 6.7 inches wide by 6.7 inches deep and is designed for smaller and lower-cost PCs. You would typically see this form factor used when users have space or height limitations in their desk space.
The micro-ATX form factor is 9.6 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep and is the next step up from the mini-ITX.
The mini-ATX motherboard is 11.2 inches wide by 8.2 inches deep. It supports fewer expansions slots than the ATX motherboard.
The micro-ATX motherboard is 9.6 inches wide by 9.6 inches deep. It usually has four PCI slots and would be installed in a small form factor case.
You are responsible for performing all routine maintenance on your company’s thermal printers. Which of the following is NOT part of routine maintenance for these printers?
A)Cleaning the heating element
B)Replacing the paper
C)Removing debris
D)Calibrating the printer
D)Calibrating the printer
Calibrating the printer is not part of routine maintenance for thermal printers. Inkjet and laser printers require calibration to ensure that the print alignment and colors are configured correctly.
Routine maintenance of thermal printers includes replacing the paper, cleaning the heating element, and removing debris.
Direct thermal printers are the most commonly used ticket printers on the market. These printers do not require toner or ink cartridges, and instead, produce a printed image by selectively heating specially coated thermal paper. The ticket stock heats up through the printhead which generates heat in the shape or pattern provided. The heating of the ticket stock turns the paper black when the thermal coating reacts with the heating element.
Alice needs to connect many external devices to her PC. Which of the following expansion cards would enable her to connect the largest number of devices?
A)Riser card
B)FireWire expansion card
C)Thunderbolt card
D)USB expansion card
D)USB expansion card
A USB expansion card would allow her to connect the largest number of devices. A USB port supports up to 127 devices.
The other cards would not connect more devices than a USB expansion card. Each FireWire port supports up to 63 devices. Thunderbolt supports up to 7 devices. Devices do not connect directly to riser cards. Riser cards provide a means to attach extra adapter cards to the motherboard.
Match each printer quality on the left with the printer it describes. Each quality will only match to a single printer type, and each printer type will only have a single quality.
Printer Qualities
Heating element
Ribbon
Duplexing assembly
Print to file
Ink cartridge
You should match the printer qualities as follows:
Laser – Duplexing assembly
Inkjet – Ink cartridge
Thermal – Heating element
Impact – Ribbon
Virtual – Print to file
A laser printer has the following components: imaging drum, fuser assembly, transfer belt, transfer roller, pickup rollers, separate pads, and duplexing assembly. The imaging process for a laser printer is as follows:
1.Processing
2.Charging
3.Exposing
4.Developing
5.Transferring
6.Fusing and cleaning
An inkjet printer has the following components: ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt.
A thermal printer has the following components: feed assembly and heating element.
An impact printer has the following components: print head, ribbon, and tractor feed.
A virtual printer is capable of printing to file, PDF, XPS, and image.
Aaron has been hired as the new PC repair technician. He has a motherboard that has a Socket AM3+. He has two different Socket AM3 CPUs that have lost their original packaging. What should Aaron do?
A)Remove the AM3+ socket from the motherboard and replace it with an AM3 socket.
B)Purchase a new motherboard with an AM3 socket.
C)Purchase a new AM3+ processor.
D)Install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ socket.
D)Install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ socket.
Aaron should install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ sockets because they are completely compatible. AM3 processors include the Phenom II, Athlon II, Sempron, and Opteron 138x. AM3+ processors include the Phenom II, Athlon II, FX, and Opteron 3000.You cannot remove the AM3+ socket from the motherboard. Sockets are permanent parts of a motherboard and cannot be replaced.
Steven wants to upgrade the RAM in his gaming system. Which features are important considerations before he adds memory modules to a computer’s system board? (Choose two.)
A)Parity
B)Access speed
C)CPU type
D)Level 1 cache
A)Parity
C)CPU type
Adding new memory modules with access speeds and
CPU type different from those of existing modules on the same system can cause intermittent system failures. Therefore, the most important considerations are access speed and CPU type.
Access speed refers to the amount of time a memory module requires to provide data to a memory controller. Access speed is measured in nanoseconds. The memory controller is the interface between physical memory and a computer’s central processing unit (CPU); it is typically part of a system board’s chipset. Mixing modules of different speeds on the same memory bank can cause a computer to stop responding on an intermittent basis and may result in data corruption. Even if the computer is operational with the memory mixture, the memory will run at a slower speed, matching that of the memory module with a slower speed.
Parity is an error-detection method used to verify whether information has been lost as data is moved from one location to another. Memory modules are classified as either parity or nonparity, depending on whether they perform error checking. Combining parity random access memory (RAM) with nonparity RAM can sometimes generate parity errors at startup. It is safest to ensure that all modules within a bank have an identical parity setting, although adding parity modules on a nonparity system board is occasionally feasible.
You have been tasked with performing several upgrades in a computer. Which hardware component will require the least amount of time to replace?
A)Network interface card
B)Motherboard
C)Memory module
D)Power supply unit
C)Memory module
A memory module is inserted into the memory slot without investing substantial effort. The memory module will require the least time to replace. Memory modules are usually just inserted into the slot and snapped into place. No screws are required. You should install additional memory of the same type and speed as existing memory to ensure RAM compatibility.
The network interface card (NIC), processor, motherboard, and power supply unit are field replaceable units (FRUs) of a computer. A motherboard will require disassembly of the entire system unit before being replaced. Therefore, a motherboard is not the hardware component that requires the least amount of time to replace. A power supply unit will also require a substantial amount of effort to replace compared to a memory module. With a power supply, all of the power connectors would need to be disconnected from the motherboard and all peripheral devices. Typically, a NIC is installed as an add-on card that can be taken out of the system unit by opening a single screw. A NIC will require more time to be replaced than a memory module.
A technician has just been hired as your new tech support. You are explaining different RAM types to them. Which random access memory (RAM) technology would you tell them fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate?
A)SGRAM
B)DDR2 SDRAM
C)SDRAM
D)DDR3 SDRAM
B)DDR2 SDRAM
DDR2 SDRAM uses differential pairs of signal wires to allow faster signaling without noise and interference problems to achieve higher throughput. DDR2 SDRAM uses 1.8 V to operate and fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle instead of 2 bits as with DDR SDRAM. DDR2 chips typically use Fine Pitch Ball Grid Array (FBGA) packaging rather than the Thin Small Outline Package (TSOP) chip packaging used by most DDR and conventional SDRAM chips.
The Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is a type of DRAM that is designed to run in synchronization with the memory bus. A high-speed clocked interface is used by SDRAM to deliver information in very high-speed bursts. SDRAM is used primarily in older AGP 2x/4x low-end video cards and chipsets. SDRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate.
The Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is similar to SDRAM in its capability to be synchronized with high-speed buses up to 200 MHz. Unlike SDRAM, SGRAM includes circuitry to perform block writes to increase the speed of graphics fill or 3D Z-buffer operations. SGRAM does not transfer 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate.
The Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is a RAM standard created by JEDEC. DDR SDRAM is the most common video RAM technology found on recent video cards. DDR SDRAM is designed to transfer data at speeds twice that of conventional SDRAM by transferring 2 bits of data per clock cycle, once at the falling edge and once at the rising edge of the cycle. DDR uses 2.5 V to operate.
DDR3 SDRAM is faster than DDR2. It has the ability to transfer data at eight times the speed of its memory cells, which in essence allows for faster bus speeds and peak throughput. It comes in 512-MB to 8-GB sticks and enables a maximum memory module of 16 GB using 1.5 volts. DIMMs are 240-pin size, which is the same as DDR2, but they are electronically incompatible with DDR2 because of the key notch location.
DDR4 SDRAM increases latency and speed for quicker transfers, but it only provides a 2% performance increase over DDR3. The most recent edition to release is DDR5. DDR5 addressed many of the issues found with DDR4 by reducing power consumption while still managing to increase bandwidth with up to a possible 4.8 gigabits per second.
You are told by a technician over the phone that you need to bring replacement DDR4 SDRAM memory. What type of packaging is used for DDR4 SDRAM memory?
A.224-pin DIMM
B.240-pin DIMM
C.288-pin DIMM
D.296-pin DIMM
B.240-pin DIMM
A technician asks you how to get a computer’s processor to run faster than it currently does. What are they trying to achieve?
A.Hyper-Threading
B.Overclocking
C.Virtualization
D.Multicore Support
B.Overclocking
Overclocking is when someone sets the speed of the processor to run faster than it was rated for.
Hyper-threading allows for the processor core to handle multiple processes simultaneously.
Virtualization is when you create multiple virtual machines on a computer.
Identify the cable connector in the picture. It is threaded and screws into place.
A.F-type
B.BNC
C.SC
D.FC
A. F-type connectors are threaded and screw into place. F-type connectors are often found at the end of an ISP’s cable connection. BNC connectors were once used in LAN wiring but are now found in RF and video applications and test equipment such as oscilloscopes. The BNC connector locks by twisting one-quarter turn. SC and FC connectors are for fiber-optic cable.
Of the following fiber connectors, which are used for duplex (two strands instead of one)? (Choose two.)
A.ST
B.SC
C.FC
D.LC
B, D. Both SC and LC connectors are square and can be purchased in single or duplex connectors. SC is square and is a push/pull design. ST have a bayonet connection. FC connectors have a threaded coupling. LC connectors are smaller at 1.25 mm and have a latching mechanism to keep them in place, making them good for rack mount use. SC, FC, and ST connectors are 2.5 mm.
What twisted pair connectors are commonly used with telephone wire?
A.RJ-45
B.Coaxial
C.RJ-11
D.FC
C. RJ-11 accommodates two pair of wires and is the standard for household or office wired telephone connections. RJ-45 is the four pair connector used for twisted-pair Ethernet. Coaxial is a type of network cable and would have a BNC connector (with a locking mechanism) or an F-type connector. FC is a type of fiber-optic connector.
Using the T568B wiring standard on both ends of a cable would produce what type of network cable?
A.T568B on both ends is not a working network cable.
B.T568B is a telephone wiring standard.
C.T568B on both ends is a crossover network cable.
D.T568B on both ends is a straight-through network cable.
D. A cable with the same T568 standard on both ends is a straight-through network cable. These are used for patch cables and network drops. If you have a T568A on one end and a T568B on the other, that’s a crossover cable.
You’re looking at a connector that has eight wires with colors in the order of green stripe, green, orange stripe, blue, blue stripe, orange, brown stripe, brown. What type of cable do you have?
A.Twisted pair, T568A standard
B.Twisted pair, T568B standard
C.LC
D.SC
A. The color code listed is the T568A standard. In the T568B standard the orange and green are opposite. LC and SC are fiber-optic connectors.
You need to install a memory upgrade in a laptop computer. The computer’s documentation says that the laptop uses DDR4 SODIMMs. How many pins will be on the SODIMM?
A.262
B.200
C.204
D.260
D. DDR4 SODIMMs have 260 pins, DDR3 SODIMMs have 204 pins, and DDR5 SODIMMs have 262 pins.
The most common RAM slots used in desktop and laptop computers, respectively, are what?
A.SODIMM and DIMM
B.Micro-DIMM and DIMM
C.DIMM and Mini-DIMM
D.DIMM and SODIMM
D. Desktop computers use dual inline memory modules (DIMMs), and laptops most commonly use small outline DIMMs (SODIMMs). Another potential laptop memory form factor is the Micro-DIMM, which is used in super lightweight laptop computers.
Which laptop expansion port was designed as an industry standard to replace VGA and DVI ports and is backward compatible with both standards?
A.DisplayPort
B.VideoPort
C.Thunderbolt
D.HDMI
A. The Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) introduced DisplayPort in 2008. It was designed to be an industry standard and to replace VGA and DVI. It’s also backward compatible with VGA and DVI by using adapters. A DisplayPort connection is intended for video devices only, but like HDMI and USB, it can transmit audio and video simultaneously.
You have a MacBook Pro computer with a Thunderbolt 4 port. What is the maximum throughput of a device plugged into this port?
A.5 Gbps
B.10 Gbps
C.20 Gbps
D.40 Gbps
D. The first version of Thunderbolt supported 10 Gbps data rates, which is fast. Thunderbolt 2.0 joins two 10 Gbps channels together for 20 Gbps throughput. But Thunderbolt 3 and Thunderbolt 4 provide 40 Gbps.
Which motherboard form factor measures 4.7″ × 4.7″?
A.Mini-ITX
B.Nano-ITX
C.Pico-ITX
D.Mobile-ITX
B. Nano-ITX motherboards are 4.7″ square, a mini-ITX motherboard is a 6.7″ square, pico-ITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″, and mobile-ITX motherboards are 2.4″ square.
Which of the following statements are true regarding CPUs and operating systems? (Choose two.)
A.A 32-bit OS can run only on a 32-bit CPU.
B.A 64-bit OS can run only on a 64-bit CPU.
C.A 64-bit OS can run on a 32-bit CPU or a 64-bit CPU.
D.A 32-bit OS can run on a 32-bit CPU or a 64-bit CPU.
B, D. A 64-bit OS will run only on a 64-bit processor.
A 32-bit OS can run on either a 32-bit or a 64-bit processor, although you will not be able to fully utilize the 64-bit processor’s capabilities with a 32-bit OS.
The DC power supply (DCPS) within a laser printer converts AC power into what three voltages? (Choose three.)
A.+5 VDC
B.–5 VDC
C.+24 VDC
D.–24 VDC
A, B, C. The DC power supply (DCPS) converts house current into three voltages: +5 VDC and –5 VDC for the logic circuitry and +24 VDC for the paper-transport motors.
Identify the cable type shown here.
A. Three RCA-like connectors at the end of a cable indicate a component video cable.
A technician is considering whether to buy a new LCD. Which type of LCD has faster response times than the others?
A.TN
B.VA
C.IPS
D.Plasma
A. TN Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs) have the fastest response times. The IPS is quick enough for someone interested in gaming, but plasma displays would show significant blur or lag when pushed to their limits by fast-moving gameplay. VA displays are slower than IPS displays.
You need to share printers on your network with multiple client operating systems, such as Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following services will best meet your needs?
A.Bonjour
B.AirPrint
C.TCP printing
D.Virtual printing
C. TCP printing allows clients with different OSs to send jobs directly to printers without worrying about intra-OS conflicts. Bonjour and AirPrint are both Apple services, and virtual printing allows you to print output to documents such as PDF files. Whenever sharing printers for remote printing, be sure to set proper user authentication on the print device.
Which of the following types of printers does not require the replacement of some sort of ink or toner?
A.Laser
B.Thermal
C.Impact
D.Inkjet
B. Laser printers need toner cartridges, impact printers need ink ribbons, and inkjet printers use ink cartridges. Thermal printers heat up paper to produce images.
You are working on repairing a defective laser printer. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the imaging drum in a laser printer?
A.It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s not exposed to light.
B.It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s exposed to light.
C.It can hold a high negative charge regardless of light exposure.
D.It is not required to hold a charge.
A. An imaging drum is a photosensitive drum that can hold a high negative charge if it’s not exposed to light. It is dark inside an electrophotographic (EP) printer, except when the laser scanning assembly shines on particular areas of the photosensitive drum, reducing the high negative charge to a much lower negative charge. Toner itself is negatively charged and repelled by the highly negative charged areas but attracted to the areas with a very low charge. The use of varying negative charges is what facilitates the printing process. When replacing a photosensitive drum, it’s best to avoid exposing it to light.
What are the dimensions of a mini-ITX motherboard?
A.12″ × 9.6″
B.9.6″ × 9.6″
C.6.7″ × 6.7″
D.3.9″ × 2.8″
C. Mini-ITX motherboards are 6.7” square (or more precisely, 6.69″ square). ATX motherboards are 12″ × 9.6″. A micro-ATX motherboard is a 9.6″ square, and pico-ITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″.
You have three hard disks, each 1 TB in size. After installing them as a RAID-5 array in a computer, how much usable storage space will you have?
A.1.5 TB
B.2 TB
C.2.5 TB
D.3 TB
B. In a RAID-5 array, each stripe places data on n–1 disks, and parity computed from the data is placed on the remaining disk. The parity is interleaved across all the drives in the array so that neighboring stripes have parity on different disks. Said differently, you lose the equivalent of one hard disk worth of storage to hold the parity information. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Inexpensive (or Independent) Disks.
What hardware device is used to store encryption keys, making them safer because they are never directly loaded into a server’s memory?
A.HSM
B.BIOS
C.ITX
D.TPM
A. The Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a piece of hardware that can be removed and is used to hold encryption keys for a system. It differs from TPM (Trusted Platform Module) implementations in that TPM is a chip on the motherboard, not a separate piece of hardware, and TPM can also be software. TPM is used to encrypt hard drives. The BIOS (or UEFI) is the program the CPU uses to start up the system after being powered on. ITX is a motherboard form factor.
You need to enable clients to scan documents and place them on network accessible storage regardless of the multifunction device’s location worldwide. Which service will best suit your needs?
A.Bonjour
B.AirPrint
C.Virtual printing
D.Cloud services
D. Many modern multifunction devices have the ability to connect to a cloud and email and store scanned documents and images directly from the device without requiring a connected PC. The documents are made accessible worldwide via services such as Dropbox, Evernote, or Google Drive.
What is the most important consideration when installing a network connected multifunction device that is capable of directly scanning and emailing?
A.Print quality
B.Duplexing
C.Security
D.Speed
C. The ability of multifunction devices to email and scan without a PC means that these devices need to be hardened the same way any other device with a network connection would. Secure protocols need to be present to protect sensitive corporate information.
What protocol is often used when scanning documents from a large multifunction device and sending them to the corporate server?
A.TPM
B.HSM
C.SNMP
D.SMB
D. Server Message Block (SMB) is the secure protocol used when scanning documents from a multifunction device to a server. TPM and HSM are security encryption devices, not protocols. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol, used to gather information from managed switches and other devices across a network.
Identify the computer component shown here.
A. Heat sinks are often made of metal, with many fins on them to increase surface area and dissipate heat faster. Many modern CPU coolers will have both a fan (which requires power) and the finned metal heat sink. Passive heat sinks do not use power (so no fan), and secondary cooling fans are generally attached to the case.
What features are included in modern networked MFDs? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Email
B.Scanning
C.Printing
D.Faxing
A, B, C, D. While faxing is not used as often as it once was, it is still a feature available on some MFDs. Email, scanning, and printing are also common features.
Which of the following connectors transmit analog signals? (Choose two.)
A.VGA
B.RJ-45
C.RJ-11
D.HDMI
A, C. VGA is an analog video connector, and RJ-11 connectors are used with analog phone lines and modems. Modems receive a digital signal from a computer, then modulate that signal to analog to transmit over analog lines. On the other end, they demodulate the signal into a digital one again that a computer or other digital device can understand. RJ-45 connectors are used in networking, and HDMI carries digital audio and video signals.
Your partner wants to know what this port is on the back of their computer. What will you tell them?
A..eSATA
B.DisplayPort
C.DVI port
D.HDMI port
B. The port shown is a DisplayPort. There is also a mini-DisplayPort, but that is not shown.
You have a motherboard that supports up-plugging. Which of the following statements regarding PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A.You can put an x1 card into an x8 slot.
B.You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot.
C.You can put an x8 card into an x1 slot.
D.You can put an x16 card into an x8 slot.
A, B. With up-plugging, you can put a smaller PCIe card into a larger slot, even though it does not fill it up completely. For example, you can insert an x8 card into an x16 slot. The x8 card won’t completely fill the slot, but it will work at x8 speeds. It’s important to note that a motherboard doesn’t necessarily support this feature, so if you plan to use a smaller card in a larger PCIe slot, make sure the motherboard supports up-plugging or the card will run at 1x speed.
A technician needs to increase the fault tolerance of their computer’s storage system, and they have two hard drives available. Which of the following options is their best choice?
A.Install both drives and configure them as separate volumes.
B.Install both drives and implement RAID-0.
C.Install both drives and implement RAID-1.
D.Install both drives and implement RAID-5.
C. RAID-1 is called disk mirroring; it writes data simultaneously to both drives. If one drive fails, the other still has a working copy of the data. RAID-0 is disk striping and does not provide fault tolerance. RAID-5 is striping with parity and provides fault tolerance, but it requires a minimum of three hard disks.
During which step of the laser printer imaging process does a fluorescent lamp discharge the photosensitive drum?
A.Cleaning
B.Charging
C.Exposing
D.Developing
A. During the cleaning step, a rubber blade inside the toner cartridge scrapes any toner left on the drum into a used toner receptacle, and a fluorescent lamp discharges any remaining charge on the imaging drum, making it neutral and ready to be charged again by the corona wire (or charging roller).
What type of front-panel or top-panel connector uses a standard 3.5 mm jack to make connections?
A.USB
B.Audio
C.FireWire
D.Thunderbolt
B. The audio connector on the front-panel or top-panel will use a round, 3.5 mm connector. You can plug speakers or a headset with a boom microphone into it.
The motherboard in your desktop computer supports dual-channel memory. Which of the following statements regarding RAM in this motherboard are true? (Choose two.)
A.The RAM will work only if it’s installed in pairs.
B.The RAM will work only if it’s installed in pairs or if one double-sided RAM module is used.
C.The RAM will work if only one module is installed but not in dual-channel mode.
D.The RAM will work in dual-channel mode if two identical modules are installed.
C, D. With most dual-channel motherboards, RAM will work just fine if one module is installed. However, you will get better performance if you fill the entire bank. If there is only one RAM module installed in one channel, then you can’t possibly take advantage of the dual-channel architecture.
A customer wants you to upgrade their motherboard so that they can have the fastest video connection possible. They want to know how fast PCIe 4 is. What will you tell them the data rate of a single lane of PCIe 4 is?
A.250 MBps
B.500 MBps
C.1 GBps
D.2 GBps
D. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0 and 5.0. Each version doubles the data transfer rate of the version before. For the four versions, a single bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps, approximately 1 GBps, roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps respectively. In any version of PCIe, there can be up to 16 lanes, so for example, in theory, a PCIe 4.0 x16 connector could transfer nearly 32 GB/s (1.969 GB/s per lane, x 16 lanes). You might find it helpful in your studies to locate or create a chart of the different versions and bandwidth for x1, x4, x8 and x16.
A technician needs to replace a failed power supply in a desktop computer. When choosing a replacement power supply, which two specifications are most important to consider? (Choose two.)
A.Wattage
B.Multiple rail
C.Dual voltage options
D.Number and type of connectors
A, D. When installing or replacing a power supply, always make sure that it has enough wattage to power the components in the computer. In addition, it must have enough of the right connectors to connect to all the components that require their own power. Multiple rail and dual voltage are optional features.
You need to replace the magnetic hard drive in your manager’s laptop. They want a high-speed, high-capacity drive. What are the most common issues associated with their request? (Choose two.)
A.Increased battery usage
B.Increased heat production
C.Decreased component life span
D.Decreased space for other peripherals
A, B. Faster hard drives transfer more data than slower hard drives, but there is no specific correlation between hard drive speed and its life span. The downsides to faster hard drives can be increased battery usage and heat production.
You have a motherboard with a white expansion slot, that has a divider on the opposite end of a PCIe connector like the two shown in the image. What type of expansion slot is this?
A.PCIe x1
B.VESA
C.PCI
D.AGP
C. The slot described is a PCI slot. It used a 32-bit or 64-bit bus. The first version was released in 1992, and they remained popular until PCIe was developed. Some motherboards have PCI and PCIe slots on them. PCI and PCIe are not physically compatible. VESA and AGP are legacy slots for video cards.
A designer from the corporate office is visiting your field office. The user tries to print from their MacBook Pro to a networked printer, but it does not work. Local users in the office are able to print to the device using their Windows computers. What would most likely solve the problem?
A.Select the Enable Mac Printing option in the print server configuration settings.
B.Select the Enable Bonjour option in the print server configuration settings.
C.Install a macOS printer driver on the print server.
D.Stop and restart the print spooler service.
C. Print servers need to have the appropriate drivers for all operating systems that will be clients. It’s possible that this print server does not have the macOS driver installed.
A user that you support needs to replace this cable. What type of peripheral connector, shown here, will you be looking for?
A.USB Type A
B.USB Type B
C.USB Standard mini-B
D.Thunderbolt
B. The connector shown is USB Type B. It will plug into the USB peripheral device and is commonly used by printers.
Which of the following are advantages of using a CPU liquid cooling system over an air-based system? (Choose two.)
A.Easier to install and maintain
B.More efficient
C.Quieter
D.Safer for internal components
B, C. Liquid cooling systems are generally quieter than air-based systems that use fans, and they are more efficient at cooling the processor. However, they are more complex to install, and if the liquid were to leak out, it could cause damage to internal components.
You need to perform preventive maintenance on an impact printer. What are two areas you should examine that you would not need to on most inkjet printers? (Choose two.)
A.Ink cartridges
B.Output tray
C.Printhead
D.Tractor feed mechanism
C, D. Impact printers create images by physically striking the paper, which can wear down the printhead. Always check that. Also, impact printers most often use tractor-feed mechanisms to load the paper, and they can wear down or get bogged down by paper debris as well.
Which expansion bus technology uses lanes, which are switched point-to-point signal paths between two components?
A.PCI
B.PCI-X
C.PCIe
D.Mini-PCI
C. PCIe uses lanes. Each lane between any two intercommunicating devices consists of a separate pair of wires, one for each direction of traffic, which dramatically increases speed.
A large display with a wide viewing angle is needed for a small conference room. Which type of LCD would be best?
A.VA
B.IPS
C.LED
D.Plasma
B. Of the liquid crystal display (LCD) choices given, IPS have the better viewing angle. LCDs can be twisted nematic (TN), in-plane switching (IPS), or vertical alignment (VA). VA has a greater contrast ratio, but it has a narrower viewing angle than IPS. TN is legacy technology. LED refers to a type of backlighting, and plasma displays are not a type of LCD.
You have a user who needs recommendations for installing a home server PC. They want their family to be able to share files and videos on their home network. They also want their data to be protected in the event of a hard drive failure. Which components do you recommend the system include? (Choose two.)
A.Dedicated print server
B.RAID array
C.Gigabit NIC
D.Dual processors
B, C. A home server PC should be able to handle media streaming as well as file and printer sharing. A dedicated print server is not likely needed, though, as the operating system can function as a print server. A gigabit NIC will be helpful to manage the network traffic, and a RAID -1 or RAID 5 array can help recover from hard drive failure.
Your motherboard has 3 PCIe x16 v 4.0 slots and the motherboard does not support up-plugging for PCIe adapter cards. Which of the following statements is true?
A.You can’t put an x8 card into an x16 slot.
B.You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x1 speed.
C.You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x8 speed.
D.You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x16 speed.
B. The x8 card won’t completely fill the x16 slot, but it will work at x8 speeds if up-plugging is supported by the motherboard. Otherwise, the specification requires up-plugged devices to operate at only the x1 rate.
Which system component enables the use of Secure Boot technology?
A.BIOS
B.UEFI
C.AMI
D.SATA
B. Secure Boot is an option enabled in system firmware. BIOS is not technically advanced enough to manage Secure Boot, but its successor UEFI is. AMI (American Megatrends) is a BIOS manufacturer, and SATA is a type of hard drive technology.
Motherboard documentation for a desktop computer mentions 240- pin DIMM slots. What type of DIMM is used on this motherboard?
A.DDR3
B.DDR4
C.DDR5
D.SODIMM
A. DDR3 DIMMs have 240 pins. DDR4 and DDR5 DIMMs have 288 pins, but they are not interchangeable and have notches (module keys) in different locations to prevent installing the incorrect modules into a motherboard. SODIMMs are laptop RAM, not desktop RAM.
DDR4 and DDR5 DIMMs have the same number of pins. How, then, can you tell the difference between the two?
A.Placement of the module key (notch).
B.Color of the module.
C.Size of the module.
D.DDR5 have heat sinks; DDR4 don’t.
A. The module key, also called a notch, on a DDR5 DIMM is at the center of the module whereas the DDR4 DIMM is slightly off center. Both are sold with heat sinks attached and come in multiple colors. Physically, they’re the same size.
Which CPU technology allows for the assignment of two logical cores for every physical core present?
A.Multicore
B.32-bit vs. 64-bit
C.Integrated GPU
D.Multithreading
D. Multithreading is a feature of processors that divides physical processor cores into logical cores, and software processes into multiple threads that can be run concurrently on those logical cores. As a result, the operating system can schedule two processes at the same time on each physical core. Intel’s implementation of multithreading is called hyperthreading.
An inkjet printer doesn’t seem to be moving the printhead to the right area. What two components within an inkjet printer are responsible for moving the printhead into proper position and therefore could be the problem?
A.Carriage and belt
B.Roller and belt
C.Carriage motor and roller
D.Carriage motor and belt
D. The motor that makes the printhead carriage move is also often called the carriage motor or carriage stepper motor. It has a belt attached to it, the carriage belt, which moves the printhead carriage back and forth.
You need to configure Hyper-V on one of your Windows-based desktop computers with an Intel processor. Which of the following must be true? (Choose three.)
A.The CPU must have SLAT.
B.The CPU must have Intel VR.
C.The processor must be 64-bit
D.You need to enable virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI.
A, C, D. The CPU must support VM Display Mode Extension; on an Intel processor, it’s called Virtualization Technology (Intel VT). The processor must be 64-bit and have second-level address translation (SLAT). Virtualization also requires the Windows Pro edition or better. Virtualization must be enabled in the BIOS/UEFI and may be found under different names depending on the motherboard manufacturer.
An analog LCD is most likely to have what type of connector?
A.DisplayPort
B.RCA
C.VGA
D.BNC
C. The most common analog video connector is a VGA connector. It is usually blue in color, arranged in a D shape with 15 pins arranged in 3 rows.
You have a peripheral that needs a data speed of 20 Gbps and 9 W of power to be supplied by the connection to the PC. Which PC peripheral connection type is it most likely to use?
A.Thunderbolt
B.USB 3.0
C.eSATA
D.DisplayPort
A. Thunderbolt v1 and v2 both provide 20 Gbps of data bandwidth. Thunderbolt 3 doubles the data rate to 40 Gbps. Thunderbolt 3 and Thunderbolt 4 can also provide the power the device needs. USB 3.0 can only provide about 5 W of power and is much slower at 5 Gbps. eSATA is also slower and doesn’t provide power, although eSATAp does. DisplayPort is also slower and provides no power, unless it’s DisplayPort over USB.
In the laser printer imaging process, which step immediately follows the exposing step?
A.Charging
B.Fusing
C.Developing
D.Transferring
C. The order of steps is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.
What are the two power requirements that a PCI expansion bus may have in a desktop computer? (Choose two.)
A.1.7 V
B.3.3 V
C.5 V
D.6.6 V
B, C. PCI slots and adapters are manufactured in 3.3 V and 5 V versions. Adapters are keyed to fit in a slot based on their voltage requirements. Universal adapters are keyed to fit in slots based on either of the two voltages. PCI has largely been replaced by PCIe, but there are still implementations of it,
Which of the following is a standard for a secure cryptoprocessor that can secure hardware (and the system boot process) using cryptographic keys?
A.TPM
B.LoJack
C.Secure Boot
D.BitLocker
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is an international standard for a dedicated security coprocessor, or cryptoprocessor. Coupled with a BIOS/UEFI, it can be configured to boot the system only after authenticating the boot device. LoJack is a feature for locating stolen or missing devices, Secure Boot is designed to prevent malicious software from loading before a PC boots, and BitLocker is a feature of Windows Pro and higher editions that is used to encrypt entire storage drives.
In a laser printer, what is the function of the transfer corona assembly?
A.It transfers a positive charge to the paper.
B.It transfers a positive charge to the imaging drum.
C.It transfers the toner from the imaging drum to the paper.
D.It transfers the image from the laser to the imaging drum.
A. The transfer corona assembly is given a positive charge, which is transferred to the paper, which in turn pulls the negatively charged toner from the photosensitive imaging drum. This is the transferring phase of the laser printer imaging process.
What type of connector is shown here?
A.Molex
B.SATA
C.PCIe
D.ATX
C. This is an eight-pin PCIe power connector. They also come in 6-pin configurations.
Which component within a laser printer converts AC current into usable energy for the charging corona and transfer corona?
A.LVPS
B.HVPS
C.ACPS
D.Transfer corona assembly
B. The high-voltage power supply (HVPS) provides the high voltages used by both the charging corona and the transfer corona during the laser printer imaging process. The printer will likely have a second power supply that provides power to the circuit boards. Caution needs to be observed when working inside any laser printer because of the danger inherent in the two power supplies.
You have been asked to install and configure a RAID-10 storage array for a computer. What is the minimum number of hard disks required for this configuration?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
C. RAID-10 (also known as RAID-1+0) provides fault tolerance to RAID-0 through the RAID-1 mirroring of each disk in the RAID-0 striped set. It requires a minimum of four hard disks.
Identify the peripheral connector shown here.
A.HDMI
B.PATA
C.SATA
D.eSATA
C. The image is of a SATA connector, commonly used for internal hard drives.
A graphic designer in your office needs two displays to do their work. Which of the following should you install to set up their desktop computer for this configuration?
A.A video splitter
B.A second video driver
C.A second video card
D.A video replicator
C. To use a second display on a desktop computer, you need to install a second video adapter or have one video adapter with two display interfaces. Laptops often have an external display interface and are capable of providing video to the built-in screen and an external display at the same time.
You have a motherboard designed to hold DDR3 1600 memory. What will happen if you attempt to install DDR4 2400 memory into the motherboard?
A.It won’t fit.
B.It will operate at 667 MHz.
C.It will operate at 1133 MHz.
D.It will operate at 1600 MHz.
A. DDR3 and DDR4 memory slots are both keyed, but the keys are in different places. DDR3 has 240 pins and DDR4 has 288 pins. Therefore, the memory will not fit into the slots on the motherboard.
What happens during the transferring step of the laser printer imaging process?
A.The image is transferred to the imaging drum.
B.The toner is transferred to the imaging drum.
C.The toner is transferred to the paper.
D.A strong, uniform negative charge is transferred to the imaging drum.
C. During the transferring step, the positively charged paper pulls the negatively charged toner from the photosensitive drum at the line of contact between the roller and the paper.
A technician needs to install an optical disk system with capacity to burn disks storing about 60 GB of data at one time. What is the minimum technology required to get over this threshold?
A.DVD-10
B.DVD-18
C.Triple BDXL
D.Quad BDXL
C. A Blu-ray Disc Extra Large (BDXL) can store up to 128 GB of data, (Quad BDXL) although most for sale boast only 100 GB of storage (Triple BDXL). Blu-ray is the latest rendition of optical disks, but DVDs are still available, and come in single layer (SL), dual layer (DL), single side (SS) and dual side (DS) formats. DVD-18 (DS, DL) hold approximately 16 GB of data. DVD-10 (DS, SL) can hold approximately 9GB, and DVD-9 (SS, DL) hold approximately 8 GB of storage. DVD-9 and DVD-10 can both be DVD+R or DVD-R format but DVD-18 can only be the DVD+R format.
You have been asked to purchase new RAM for three workstations. The workstations call for DDR4 3600 chips. What throughput will these modules support?
A.450 Mbps
B.1,800 Mbps
C.3,600 Mbps
D.28,800 Mbps
D. The number designation of 3600 in DDR4 3600 indicates bus speed of 3,600 MHz. To find the throughput, multiply the bus speed by 8. DDR4 3600 therefore is the same as PC4 28,800 with a peak transfer rate of 28,800 Mbps. (3,600,000 cycles per second x 8 = 28,800,000 bits per second. Divide by 1000 to get Mbps = 28,800).
A technician needs to purchase new RAM for a motherboard. The motherboard specifications call for 5,200 MHz DDR5 RAM. Which RAM modules should the technician use?
A.PC 5200
B.PC 41600
C.PC5 41600
D.PC5 5200
C. Multiply the 5200 bus speed by 8 to get the bits per second that can be transferred in and out of the RAM module. The PC5 designation means that it is DDR5, and the 41,600 means that it can (theoretically) transfer 41,600 Mbps (megabits per second).
On your network, users want to print easily from their iPads and iPhones. Which service supports this?
A.Bonjour
B.AirPrint
C.TCP printing
D.Virtual printing
B. iPads and iPhones can automatically detect AirPrint-enabled printers on their local network and print to them without requiring the installation of a driver. Bonjour is a service that works with both Macs and Windows devices but requires some configuration. TCP printing uses an IP Address to connect to a printer. Virtual printing sends the output to something else such as a .pdf file.
When printing, which component is responsible for converting the data being printed into the format that the printer can understand?
A.PDL
B.Printer driver
C.Print queue
D.Print spooler
B. The printer driver uses a page description language (PDL) to convert the data being printed into the format that the printer can understand. The driver also ensures that the printer is ready to print. PDL stands for page description language, which specifies the printed page layout. The print queue holds print jobs that are waiting to be printed, the print spooler manages the printing process, including locating the right printer driver.
You’re installing a new printer and notice that the manufacturer has provided two drivers with the printer. One is a PostScript driver and the other is a Printer Control Language (PCL) driver. The user will mainly be printing graphics. Which driver should you install?
A.Allow Windows to install its default driver.
B.Install the PCL driver.
C.Install the PostScript driver.
D.Either driver will work equally well.
C. Windows comes with many drivers for different devices, but if the manufacturer has provided a specific printer driver, it’s often best to install that printer driver first, then connect the device. In this case, the user will be printing mostly graphics, so the PostScript driver will provide better printing for them. PostScript drivers are not dependent on the hardware, so the printed graphic will look the same regardless of what device it is printed on.
What type of printer driver is best to use if you’ll be printing mostly documents and want to have the PC released to do other jobs more quickly?
A.Allow Windows to install its default driver.
B.Install the PCL driver.
C.Install the PostScript driver.
D.Driver choice won’t have an effect.
B. Printer Control Language (PCL) drivers depend on the printer hardware to create some of the effects such as filling in areas and making underlines. The PC releases the print job to the printer to finish, making the PC and application available to the user more quickly.
What is the maximum data rate for a USB 3.0 connection?
A.12 Mbps
B.480 Mbps
C.5 Gbps
D.10 Gbps
C. USB 3.0 supports 5 Gbps, USB 1.0 supports 12 Mbps, USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps, and USB 3.1 Gen 2 supports 10 Gbps.
A technician has been asked to install and configure a RAID-10 array in a working computer that contains one hard drive. How many additional hard drives, at a minimum, do they need to bring to the job?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
C. With RAID 10, drives are set up as mirrors, then those mirrors are striped. A minimum of two drives are needed to create a mirror, then another two to stripe the data for a total of four drives. The computer already has one drive in it. That drive would be mirrored, then striped, so three more drives are needed. RAID 10 provides both extra speed and fault tolerance.
You’ve been tasked with making a system faster, so you implement a RAID solution that does only that. What level of RAID will you implement?
A.RAID-0
B.RAID-1
C.RAID-5
D.RAID-10
A. RAID-0 uses a minimum of two drives, writing different bits of data to each drive at the same time to improve speed, but it doesn’t offer any fault tolerance. RAID-1 is disk mirroring, which provides some fault tolerance but no speed improvement. RAID-5 and RAID-10 improve both speed and fault tolerance.
Which CPU architecture term describes a CPU with multiple physical processor dies in the same package?
A.Multicore
B.64-bit
C.Integrated GPU
D.Multiprocessor
A. A processor that exhibits a multicore architecture has multiple completely separate processor dies in the same package. The operating system and applications see multiple processors in the same way that they see multiple processors in separate sockets. 64-bit refers to the width of the data bus. An integrated GPU means that the graphics processor is also on the CPU package, and multiprocessor refers to more than one physical socket on a motherboard.
Which of the following optical disk standards provides the highest capacity?
A.DVD-R SS, SL
B.DVD-R DS, SL
C.DVD-R SS, DL
D.DVD-R SS, TL
B. All are digital video disk (DVD) technologies. A single-sided, single-layer (SS, SL) DVD provides about 4.7 GB of storage. A dual-sided (DS) disk will double that capacity to 9.4 GB. Adding a second layer, or dual-layer (DL), adds more capacity, but the technology does not double the capacity of a single layer. A single-sided, dual-layer (SS, DL) disk has a capacity of about 8.5 GB. There is no DVD-R SS, TL, but a DVD+R DS, DL holds nearly 17 GB of data. The -R refers to the encoding scheme. There is also a + R format. There are also number designations to identify how many sides and layers a DVD has. DVD-9 is single side, dual layer, DVD-10 is dual side, single layer, DVD-18 is dual side, dual layer.
What are the dimensions of a mobile-ITX motherboard?
A.9.6″ × 9.6″
B.6.7″ × 6.7″
C.3.9″ × 2.8″
D.2.4″ × 2.4″
D. Mobile-ITX motherboards are 2.4″ square, MicroATX motherboards are 9.6″ square, mini-ITX motherboards are 6.7″ square, and Pico-ITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″.
Which two CPU sockets are capable of supporting Intel Core i9 processors? (Choose two.)
A.LGA1700
B.LGA2066
C.Socket AM3+
D.Socket FM2
A, B. Sockets that support Intel processors are currently named starting with the letters LGA, such as LGA1700 and LGA2066. Socket names that start with AM or FM will support AMD processors and not Intel processors.
You are discussing data storage needs with a client who is a videographer and media producer. They need to store dozens of large files and need immediate access to them for editing. What is the most appropriate storage technology for them to use?
A.NAS
B.SSD
C.SD
D.BD-R
B. A solid-state drive (SSD) will provide them with the highest capacity of the four options and also give them immediate access. Network attached storage (NAS) speaks to its connection and availability, not capacity. If the client required file sharing as well, then using a NAS would be the proper choice. Secure Digital (SD) is a memory card format and does not offer the capacity or immediacy they need. BD-R is a Blu-ray disk format. It has good storage capabilities, but not the immediacy for editing.
You are searching for a new display on the Internet and find a used digital LCD for sale. What are the two most likely types of connector you will find on this display? (Choose two.)
A.Composite
B.DVI-D
C.HDMI
D.VGA
B, C. Digital displays will have a digital interface, such as DVI-D, HDMI, or mini-HDMI. Composite connectors are rarely used on displays, and VGA is analog, not digital.
Which of the following are typical formats supported by virtual printing? (Choose three.)
A.Print to PDF
B.Print to XPS
C.Print to DOC
D.Print to image
A, B, D. The four virtual printing options are print to file, print to PDF, print to XPS, and print to image.
A PCIe x1 v 3.0 lane provides how much data throughput?
A.250 MBps
B.500 MBps
C.1 GBps
D.2 GBps
C. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0, and 5.0. For the five versions, a single bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps, approximately 1 GBps, roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps, respectively. Each PCIe slot can have up to 16 lanes, the number of lanes being indicated by x1, x4, x8, x16. (The x is pronounced as by.) Therefore, a PCIe 3 x1 slot can support up to 1 GBps of bandwidth.
During which step in the laser printer imaging process does a wire or roller apply a strong, uniform negative charge to the surface of the imaging drum?
A.Charging
B.Conditioning
C.Exposing
D.Transferring
A. During the charging step, the charging corona uses a high voltage to apply a strong, uniform negative charge (around –600 VDC) to the surface of the imaging drum.
You are installing two new RAM modules into a dual-channel motherboard. Which of the following is true?
A.Both RAM modules need to have the same parameters.
B.The RAM modules can be different sizes but must be the same speed.
C.The RAM modules can be different speeds but must be the same size.
D.The RAM modules can have different speeds and sizes, as long as they are the same type.
A. When installing dual-channel RAM, be sure that the RAM modules both have the same parameters. In some cases, you might even need to make sure they come from the same manufacturer. RAM for channeled motherboards is often sold in packs such as a pack of two RAM modules for dual-channel motherboards, three modules for triple-channel motherboards, and four modules for quad-channel motherboards.
There are four servers in your server closet. You need to access each of them, but not at the same time. Which device will allow you to share one set of input and output devices for all four servers?
A.Touchscreen
B.Docking station
C.Set-top controller
D.KVM switch
D. The purpose of a KVM switch is to allow you to have multiple systems attached to the same keyboard, video display, and mouse. You can use these three devices with only one system at a time, and the KVM switch will have a dial or buttons to allow you to switch between systems.
A user on your network has a laser printer that is several years old with no Ethernet connection. It’s connected to their computer and shared on the network for others to use. Now, the user no longer wants the printer, but others still need to use it on the network. What would be the best upgrade to install in this printer to allow others to send print jobs to it directly over the network?
A.A network card
B.A print server
C.TCP/IP printing
D.AirPrint
B. To get this printer off of the original user’s desk, it probably needs to be its own print server. Installing an integrated (or stand-alone) print server with a network connection should work well in this situation. Installing a network card wouldn’t take care of the sharing aspect of the problem. You need a network connection before you can use TCP/IP settings to connect to it. AirPrint is Apple’s wireless printing, which would also need to have the printer connected to a wireless network.
A technician needs to perform maintenance on an inkjet’s dirty paper pickup rollers. What should they use to clean them?
A.Rubbing alcohol
B.Mild soap and water
C.A dry, lint-free cloth
D.Compressed air
B. Clean pickup rollers (and other rubber rollers) with mild soap and water and not alcohol. Alcohol can dry out the rollers, making them brittle and ineffective. A dry cloth will not remove the dirt or debris, and compressed air would just blow the debris into other internal printer components.
During which step in the laser printer imaging process is toner attracted to the imaging drum?
A.Exposing
B.Transferring
C.Fusing
D.Developing
D. During the developing step, toner is attracted to areas of the drum where an image has been written by the laser. Those areas have a slight negative charge (–100 VDC) as opposed to unexposed areas of the drum and the developing roller (to which the toner is stuck), which each have a charge of –600 VDC.
You are installing and configuring a magnetic hard drive and have several models to choose from. Which hard drive is most likely to have the highest data throughput rates?
A.500 GB, 7,200 rpm
B.750 GB, 5,400 rpm
C.750 GB, 10,000 rpm
D.1 TB, 7,200 rpm
C. The primary factor in determining data throughput for a magnetic hard drive is the spin rate, which is measured in revolutions per minute (rpm). Higher spin rates will result in faster data reads and writes and increase data throughput.
Identify the white connector on the section of motherboard shown here.
A.RAM
B.PATA
C.Mini-PCI
D.ATX
D. The white connector is a 20-pin ATX power connector. You will also see 24-pin versions, which have two rows of 12 pins each. The 24-pin versions are ATX12V. Whether 20 or 24 pin, these are often labeled P1.
Your manager tells you to buy a high-capacity magnetic hard drive with the highest data transfer rate possible. Which hard drive parameter do manufacturers modify to increase hard drive data transfer rates?
A.Read/write head size
B.Connector size
C.Spin rate (rpm)
D.Platter size
C. To make information available to the rest of the computer more quickly, hard drive manufacturers increase the speed at which the hard drive platters spin, which is measured in revolutions per minute (rpm). The downside of higher speed is usually more heat generated by the drive, so faster hard drives may require additional cooling in the case.
Three of these four motherboard form factors can be mounted in the same style of case. Which ones are they? (Choose three.)
A.ATX
B.MicroATX
C.Mini-ITX
D.Nano-ITX
A, B, C. The ATX, MicroATX, and mini-ITX motherboard form factors can all be mounted inside a standard ATX case. The mini-ITX will have only three of the four mounting holes line up with the case, but the rear interfaces are placed in the same location as those on ATX motherboards.
Which RAM feature can detect and possibly fix errors within memory?
A.Parity
B.Non-parity
C.ECC
D.Non-ECC
C. If memory supports ECC, check bits are generated and stored with the data. If one of the eight memory bits is in error, ECC can correct the error. ECC tends to be more expensive than non-ECC memory, so it is more often found in servers than in workstations.
You have a client who needs a hot-swappable, nonvolatile, long-term storage technology that lets them conveniently carry data from one location to another in their pocket. Which technologies can you recommend? (Choose two.)
A.USB flash drive
B.Hybrid SSD
C.PATA
D.SD
A, D. USB flash drives and SD cards are hot swappable. (In the case of USB, be sure that the flash drive does not contain key file system files needed for the computer to run!) Hybrid SSDs might or might not be hot swappable and are larger than USB and SD drives. PATA devices are legacy technology and not hot swappable.
What type of expansion slots are the first, third, and fifth slots (from the top down) on the motherboard shown here?
A.PCIe x1
B.PCIe x8
C.PCIe x16
D.PCI
C. This SLI-ready motherboard has three PCIe x16 slots (every other slot, starting with the top one), one PCIe x1 slot (second slot from the top), and two PCI slots (first and third slots from the bottom). Notice the latch and tab that secures the x16 adapters in place by their hooks.
You have been asked to assemble 20 new desktop PCs for a client. When you look at the first motherboard, you see four memory slots. The one closest to the CPU is colored blue. Then in order they are white, blue, and white. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.This is a quad-channel motherboard.
B.This is a dual-channel motherboard.
C.For optimal performance, you should install RAM modules into the two slots closest to the CPU.
D.For optimal performance, you should install RAM modules into the two blue slots.
B, D. Dual-channel motherboards have two banks of two RAM slots. They are usually color-coded such that the two slots of the same color belong to different channels. For best performance, a RAM module needs to be installed into each channel, so two can be accessed at a time. It’s always best to refer to the motherboard manual for proper RAM placement. Some motherboards will revert to single-channel mode if, for example, three RAM modules were placed in a dual-channel motherboard with four slots. Channels are typically marked with letters.
You have a computer running Windows 10. Every time you boot, the computer insists on trying to boot from the USB drive. Where can you change the setting to have the system boot to the hard drive first?
A.BIOS/UEFI
B.Windows Configuration
C.System Manager
D.Device Manager
A. The boot sequence of a computer is changed in the BIOS/UEFI settings.
Which of the following types of connectors are generally found on the front or top panel of the computer? (Choose two.)
A.SATA
B.PCIe
C.Power button
D.USB
C, D. Typical front- or top-panel connectors include USB, audio, power button, power light, drive activity lights, and the reset button. SATA and PCIe connectors are found inside the case, on the motherboard.
Your manager is excited because they just purchased a fast USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 external hard drive for their work team. They want to set it in the middle of the cubicles and let everyone have access to it. Some of the cubicles are about 15 feet away from each other. What is the recommended maximum cable length for this type of device?
A.3 meters
B.5 meters
C.10 meters
D.15 meters
A. The USB 3.0 standard doesn’t specify a cable length limitation, but it does recommend a cable length of 3 meters or less. USB 2.0 cables can be up to 5 meters in length. USB4 cables should be only 0.8 meters. The manager will need a USB hub, and to extend the distance the manager could purchase active USB cables, some of which have an external power supply or extra USB A connector for extra power, or a Cat 5/Cat 6 USB extender.
A technician has just installed an automatic document feeder (ADF) on a laser printer. The ADF was sold by the manufacturer and is compatible with the printer. However, the printer doesn’t pull the papers from the feeder. What might resolve the issue?
A.Removing and reinstalling the duplexing assembly
B.Turning the printer off and back on
C.Upgrading the printer’s firmware
D.Stopping and restarting the spooler service
C. Depending on the printer, you may be able to update the printer’s information in Devices and Printers; otherwise, a firmware update may be needed. Firmware upgrades can offer newer features that are not available on previous versions.
A medical office needs to make all old records available electronically. What device can they install on their printer to make scanning hundreds of documents go more quickly?
A.High-capacity paper tray
B.Flatbed scanner
C.Duplexing assembly
D.Automatic document feeder
D. An automatic document feeder (ADF) is a device that sits on top of a flatbed scanner. It is used to pull a stack of papers through and scan them one at a time without user intervention. Some MFDs will scan the front and back of the paper at the same time.
You have a desktop computer with three PCI expansion slots. What will happen when you mix cards of different speeds on the same motherboard?
A.The cards will operate at their original speeds.
B.None of the cards will function.
C.The cards will all operate at the faster speed.
D.The cards will all operate at the slower speed.
D. PCI is a shared-bus topology, so mixing 33 MHz and 66 MHz adapters in a 66 MHz system will slow all adapters to 33 MHz.
Which of the following statements accurately explains what happens during the exposing step in the laser printer imaging process?
A.A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight positive charge.
B.A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight negative charge.
C.A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight negative charge to a strong negative charge.
D.A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight positive charge to a strong positive charge.
B. In the exposing step, the image is written to the photosensitive imaging drum. Wherever the laser beam touches, the photosensitive drum’s charge is severely reduced from –600 VDC to a slight negative charge (around –100 VDC). As the drum rotates, a pattern of exposed areas is formed, representing the image to be printed.
Which of the following is the defining characteristic of a passive heatsink cooling system for a CPU?
A.It uses water.
B.It uses heat pipes.
C.It uses liquid nitrogen or helium.
D.It does not require a fan or power.
D. Passive cooling systems come in a variety of models, and some are very effective. The defining characteristic is that they do not use a fan or require a power source. Their advantage is that they are the ultimate in cooling system quiet because there is no fan or pump running.
Which of the following system settings are configurable in the UEFI? (Choose three.)
A.Date and time
B.Enabling and disabling services
C.CPU fan speeds
D.Power-on password
A, C, D. The UEFI configures many hardware components and settings, such as system date and time, boot sequence, enabling and disabling devices, clock speeds, virtualization support, fans, and UEFI/Boot security.
Which level of cache is typically the smallest and closest to the processor die in a computer?
A.L1
B.L2
C.L3
D.L4
A. The typical increasing order of capacity and distance from the processor die is L1 cache, L2 cache, L3 cache, RAM, and HDD/SSD. The closest caches are located on the processor die.
Which of the following are types of CPU sockets? (Choose two.)
A.LGA
B.CGA
C.IGA
D.PGA
A, D. A pin grid array (PGA) socket has holes to receive the pins that are on the CPU. The land grid array (LGA) is a newer technology that places the delicate pins on the motherboard instead of on the CPU.
Which component in a laser printer is responsible for converting AC current into usable energy for the logic circuitry and motors? (Choose two.)
A.LVPS
B.HVPS
C.DCPS
D.ACPS
A, C. The DC power supply (DCPS), also sometimes called the low voltage power supply (LVPS), provides power for the logic boards and motors, whereas the high voltage power supply (HVPS) provides higher voltages for the toner transfer process. The printer’s logic circuitry and motors require low voltages, between +5 VDC and +24 VDC. The DC power supply (DCPS) converts house current into three voltages: +5 VDC and –5 VDC for the logic circuitry and +24 VDC for the paper-transport motors. This component also runs the fan that cools the internal components of the printer.
What types of RAM modules are shown here, from top to bottom?
A.DDR3 and DDR4
B.DDR5 and DDR3
C.DDR4 and DDR3
D.DDR4 and DDR5
A. The top module is DDR3, and the bottom one is DDR4. DDR3 has 240 pins whereas DDR4 has 288 pins. DDR5 also has 288 pins, but the DDR5 key position may vary depending on whether it is UDIMM or RDIMM.
A client wants you to upgrade their desktop computer to have two video cards. You want to be sure that this computer can support the extra adapter. What type of open internal expansion slot should you look for?
A.PCIe
B.ISA
C.VGA
D.DVI
A. Most internal video adapters today are PCIe cards. You might still find PCI video cards available. ISA is a legacy expansion slot type not used today. VGA and DVI are types of display connectors, not expansion slot types.
Which step immediately precedes the cleaning step in the laser printer imaging process?
A.Processing
B.Transferring
C.Exposing
D.Fusing
D. The order of steps is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.
Which of the following are services created by Apple to allow for the automatic discovery of printers on local networks? (Choose two.)
A.Bonjour
B.AirPrint
C.TCP printing
D.Virtual printing
A, B. Apple created Bonjour and AirPrint. Bonjour helps many devices find each other on a network, not just printers.
You have a laser printer that is displaying the message “Perform user maintenance.” What should you do to resolve this situation?
A.Apply a maintenance kit and clear the message.
B.Use compressed air to blow out the inside of the printer and clear the message.
C.Turn the printer off and back on again to clear the message.
D.Replace the toner cartridge and clear the message.
A. When a laser printer requests maintenance, it’s because it has reached a certain page count. Apply a proper maintenance kit (one recommended by the manufacturer) and then clear the service message.
Identify the connector shown here.
A.ST
B.SC
C.LC
D.MFF
C. The connector shown is a type of mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector called a Lucent connector (LC). It’s especially popular for use with Fibre Channel adapters, fast storage area networks, and Gigabit Ethernet adapters.
You need to create several UTP cables from a roll of bulk cable. Your company uses the T568B standard. What is the correct order for wires in the connectors?
A.White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
B.White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown
C.White/orange, green, white/green, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
D.Orange, white/orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
A. The correct order for a T568B cable is white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown. In the T568A standard, the orange and green cables are swapped. The blue and brown wires don’t change position between the two standards.
You are installing network cable that will support digital cable television signals. What type of cable should you install?
A.RG-6
B.RG-8
C.RG-58 A/U
D.RG-59
A. Cable television installations typically use RG-6 but may also use RG-59 cable. RG-6 is slightly thicker, can run longer distances, and supports digital signals. RG-59 is suited only for analog TV signals and is used for some security cameras.
You need to replace a faulty 250-foot section of RG-6 cable, but all you have available is RG-59. Which of the following statements is true?
A.The replacement cable will not work because the distance exceeds RG-59 specifications.
B.The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 use different connectors.
C.The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 have different impedance.
D.If the replacement cable works, it won’t work as well. RG-6 should be purchased.
D. RG-6 is a better choice because it supports digital signals and has a longer range (304 meters, or 1,000 feet). RG-59 can run up to 228 meters (750 feet). Both have impedance of 75 ohms, and both use BNC connectors or F-type connectors. RG-6 is usually better insulated and will have less signal loss. While the RG-59 might work, if it doesn’t, would you want to do the job over?
You have been asked to design a new network that requires 10 Gbps transmission speeds. Which cable types will meet the minimum specifications? (Choose two.)
A.MMF
B.Cat 5
C.Cat 5e
D.Cat 6a
A, D. Multimode fiber (MMF) and unshielded twisted pair (UTP) Cat 6 and newer support 10 Gbps transmission speeds. Cat 5 supports up to 100 Mbps, and Cat 5e supports up to 1,000 Mbps.
What characteristic differentiates STP from UTP?
A.STP uses RJ-45s connectors instead of RJ-45.
B.STP follows the T568A wiring standard.
C.STP does not produce poisonous gas when burned.
D.STP has a layer of foil shielding inside the cable insulation.
D. Shielded twisted pair (STP) cabling has a foil shield surrounding the wire pairs to decrease electrical interference. Some STP cables also shield individual wire pairs. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) does not have the shielding. Both types use RJ-45 connectors, can follow the T568A wiring standard, and can be produced as plenum-rated cable that does not produce poisonous gas when burned.
You are investigating remnants of a network setup in an unused building. At the end of a conduit, all you see are the connectors shown here. What type of cable do you expect these connectors to be attached to?
A.Coaxial
B.STP
C.UTP
D.Fiber-optic
D. The connectors shown are ST connectors, which are used with fiber-optic cable. ST connectors attach with a BNC-like locking mechanism.
Identify the connector shown here.
Identify the connector shown here.
A.ST
B.SC
C.LC
D.MFF
B. The connector shown is a subscriber connector (SC), also known as a square connector because of its shape. It’s a fiber-optic cable connector. ST and LC are also types of fiber-optic connectors, and MFF is multimode fiber-optic cable.
While cleaning out a storage room, a technician finds several rolls of Cat 5e network cable. The technician thinks they might be able to use it to create replacement cables for their network. What is the maximum speed that this cable will support?
A.100 Mbps
B.1 Gbps
C.10 Gbps
D.20 Gbps
B. Cat 5e cable can support speeds of 1 Gbps. Cat 5 has a maximum of 100 Mbps. Cat 6 and newer can support 10 Gbps. Cat 8 cabling can support speeds around 40 Gbps, but only for short distances. To run at a given speed, all components of the network must support that speed, including NICs, cable, routers, and switches.
You are replacing cabling in a network. The existing cable was only capable of 100 Mbps maximum speed. What type of cable are you replacing?
A.Cat 5
B.Cat 5e
C.Cat 6a
D.Single mode
A. Cat 5 UTP can transmit data at speeds up to 100 Mbps, for a distance of 100 meters. Cat 5e is capable of 1 Gbps. Cat 6 and newer can support 10 Gbps. Single mode is a type of fiber-optic cable and is very fast.
You are trying to replace a hard drive in an older system. The connector has 68 pins, along two rows. You believe from the printing on the motherboard that it is a 16-bit connection. What type of drive do you have to replace?
A.SATA
B.ATA
C.SCSI
D.NVMe
C. The 16-bit SCSI drives were connected by a Molex type connector, two rows of pins, totaling 68 pins.
A technician has a tablet whose documentation says it can connect to an HDMI display. However, the tablet has a port far smaller than HDMI. What type of video connection would be typical for this small form factor device?
A.USB-C
B.RS-232
C.DB-9
D.Mini-HDMI
D. On small form factor devices like tablets, the video-out connector is the small version of HDMI: mini-HDMI. It resembles a USB-C but is still tapered on only one side. To connect to an HDMI display, you would need a mini-HDMI-to-HDMI adapter.
Which of the following connection types can be inserted or first flipped over and inserted?
A.DB9
B.RS232
C.Micro-USB
D.USB-C
D. USB-C is the only one of these that can be inserted correctly both as you try the first time or flip over and try again. Micro-USB resembles USB-C but it is not “flippable”—one edge is slightly tapered. DB9 and RS232 are legacy serial connectors.
What serial connector type was commonly used for communication, keyboards, mice, or game controllers before USB became popular?
A.SCSI
B.PS/2
C.DB9
D.Lightning
C. DB9 was the “D” format, 9-pin serial connector type that was the standard format for keyboards, mice, and other small peripherals. It was also used for communications between a PC and some managed switches. Small Computer Systems Interface (SCSI) is a type of drive connector and technology that would allow up to 15 drives on one daisy chain. The PS/2 connector, also called a mini-DIN, is newer than a DB9 connector but older than USB. It has 6 pins and was used for connecting mice (color-coded green) and keyboards (color-coded purple). Lightning connectors are used on Apple devices.
Which of the following does not apply with triple channel memory?
A.Triple the 64-bit communication path to the CPU
B.Triple the speed with which memory is accessed
C.Requires installation of three matched memory modules
D.Triple the memory access latency
D. Triple channel memory is achieved when three matching memory modules are installed, permitting data to be spread and memory accessed simultaneously. The effect is lower memory latency, triple the access speed (compared to single channel), and triple the 64-bit communication path.
What form factor for solid-state hard drives measures 22 mm wide with lengths varying between 30 mm, 42 mm, 60 mm, and longer?
A.NVMe
B.SATA
C.PCIe
D.M.2
D. M.2 is a solid-state hard drive form factor, measuring 22 mm wide. Its lengths vary between 30 mm, 42 mm, 60 mm, 80 mm, and 120 mm. NVMe is a storage protocol, not a form factor. Many M.2 drives use the NVMe protocol. SATA and PCIe are bus interface standards found on a motherboard.
What form factor for solid-state hard drives has dimensions that mirror the older, platter-type magnetic drives?
A.M.2
B.mSATA
C.2.5″
D.NVMe
C. Solid-state drives (SSDs) come in multiple form factors, such as a “stick” resembling a memory module (M.2) or a 2.5″ box housed in metal. SSDs also come in 3.5″ form factor. M.2 and mSATA are form factors for SSDs. NVMe is a protocol for storing data that is commonly used with M.2 drives, although M.2 drives can also use the older Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI).
You want to connect a 3.5″ external hard drive to your computer. What port is used to connect external drives to the SATA bus?
A.NVMe
B.eSATA
C.M.2
D.mSATA
B. eSATA is external SATA, a type of connector for external SATA drives. Nonvolatile Memory Express (NVMe) is a protocol and communications interface designed to connect small SSD storage to the PCIe bus of a motherboard. The Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) technology preceded NVMe, and was much slower. M.2 and mSATA are form factors for SSDs that connect directly to a motherboard. An mSATA drive looks similar to M.2, but the connectors are slightly different and mSATA only connects to the slower SATA bus using AHCI technology. M.2 drives can be either NVMe or AHCI, so checking documentation is important.
You wish to protect your system from someone not authorized to start the OS. What is your best option?
A.Password-protect the locked screen.
B.Password-protect in the BIOS/UEFI settings.
C.Encrypt the hard drive.
D.Use a 12-character login password.
B. The system BIOS/UEFI settings include password protection to not allow system bootup unless someone enters a password. This would prohibit the OS from loading upon boot.
What is used to ensure an efficient and effective heat exchange away from the CPU?
A.Thermal paste
B.High-tension clamps to heat sink
C.Dihydrogen monoxide coolant
D.Lower CPU speeds
A. Thermal paste is like a grease that ensures that the heat generated from the CPU is efficiently conducted away and into the heat sink. New coolers (fan/heat sink combinations) often come with thermal pads (paste) preinstalled. Lowering the CPU speed might result in less heat generated, but it would obviously also result in degraded performance.
If you require more USB ports than your system can provide, what is your most cost-effective option?
A.Install a USB expansion card.
B.Swap peripherals for those requiring different connectors.
C.Replace the motherboard for one with additional USB ports.
D.Swap out peripherals as you use them.
A. A USB expansion card would utilize an expansion slot on the motherboard to provide two to four additional USB ports. Not included as an option, but a USB hub is a cost-effective fix as well, and some will provide additional power for USB-powered devices.
What technology allows you to generate a tangible product from a computer-aided drafting application?
A.Smartcard reader
B.3D printer
C.Touchpad
D.VR headset
B. The 3D printer can be attached locally or, if allowed by the manufacturer, accessible by shared network. There are many different methods and materials used for 3D printing, but the CompTIA A+ objectives want you to know about the following two of them. 3D printers use either an extruder and filament to create a 3D object by heating the plastic filament and extruding one layer at a time through a nozzle as the nozzle and print bed move, or they use a vat of resin that is hardened with a laser, then the excess resin washed away leaving the 3D object. A smartcard reader is used to integrate smartcards as an authentication factor for your system. A touchpad coupled with finger movement on it can be used to replace mouse input. A VR headset is used for experiencing virtual reality.
You need to purchase RAM for a computer. Which factors determine the speed of memory you should purchase? (Choose two.)
A.CPU speed
B.RAM speed supported by the motherboard
C.RAM speed supported by the processor
D.RAM speed supported by the TPM chip
B, C. The speed of RAM that a computer can use is limited by the speed of the motherboard’s memory bus and the speed of RAM supported by the processor, especially now that the memory controller is part of the processor. Even if faster RAM is purchased, it will run at the slower speed of the memory bus or what the processor supports.
What type of printer will most likely have an extruder as one of its components?
A.3D printer
B.Impact
C.Thermal
D.Laser
A. There are several types of 3D printers. Material extrusion printers work by pushing material through a nozzle as the nozzle and possibly a print bed move to place the material. The materials used are as diverse as plastic, metal, and human tissue. Vat polymerization 3D printers use a light source to harden resin in a vat. When the liquid is drained away, the hardened product remains. Powder bed fusion types deposit one thin layer of material at a time that is hardened where needed. Each of these has subtypes, and this is not an exhaustive list of the types of 3D printers.
You’ve been asked to replace some UTP network cable with other UTP cable that is capable of 10 Gbps. The longest drop is 75 meters from the network rack. What is the lowest category of cable that can meet your needs?
A.Cat 5
B.Cat 5e
C.Cat 6
D.Cat 6a
D. Cat 6 and newer can support 10 Gbps, but Cat 6 can only go 55 meters at 10 Gbps. To go 100 meters you’ll need Cat 6a. Cat 5e’s top speed is 1 Gbps, and Cat 5 is only 100 Mbps.
You need to update a twisted pair cable that runs between two networking closets. The total distance is only 20 meters, and it needs to run at 10 Gbps. What is the lowest category of cable that you can replace it with?
A.Cat 6
B.Cat 6a
C.Cat 7
D.Cat 8
A. Category 6 cable will work for the implementation described. It is capable of 10 Gbps but only for a distance of 55 meters. Category 6a can go 100 meters at 10 Gbps. Cat 7 is not an IEEE standard, nor is it approved by TIA/EIA, and it doesn’t use a standard RJ45 connector. Cat 8 is IEEE approved; it can support 10 Gbps over 100 meters and can support 40 GBps, but only over very short distances (24 meters), which makes it good for things like a storage area network (SAN). Cat 7 and Cat 8 are not on the CompTIA A+ objectives this time, so don’t spend too much time on them right now.
Your friend wants to run cable for a PoE WAP in their workshop, which is about 100 feet from the network connection in their house. They’re not sure how to go about it, but they know that they don’t want to have wires overhead. They also want to make sure it is shielded. What type of cable can you suggest that can go that far and has superior insulation and a water blocking layer?
A.Cat 7
B.Direct burial STP
C.UTP Cat 10
D.Cat 6e
B. Direct burial cable is made to go underground without any kind of conduit around it. The coating is made to be waterproof and block moisture vapor as well. A good cable will also protect against degradation from sunlight.
What are advantages of UTP over STP? (Choose two.)
A.UTP is more flexible.
B.UTP can run faster.
C.UTP can be buried.
D.UTP is less expensive.
A, D. Shielded twisted pair (STP) has at least one extra layer of shielding to protect the cable from crosstalk and interference. Some types of STP have shielding around each wire. With all the extra material, STP tends to be less flexible and more expensive than unshielded twisted pair (UTP). Being shielded or unshielded doesn’t affect the maximum transmission speed of a cable, and UTP is not suitable for direct burial.
What type of data cable transmits data only one bit at a time, but very fast?
A.Plenum
B.Serial
C.Parallel
D.Ethereal
B. Data transmissions can be parallel, meaning multiple bits at the same time in parallel with each other, or they can be serial, meaning only one bit at a time. It would seem that parallel transmissions should be faster, but they aren’t. In fact, modern peripheral and hard drive cables all send data in series.
What type of connector is the one shown?
A.SATA
B.eSATA
C.HDMI
D.SATAe
B. eSATA connectors provide a way to access the SATA bus via an external connector. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a type of internal drive connection and bus that replaced the older parallel ATA (PATA). SATAe is a motherboard bus that supports both SATA and PCIe. HDMI is an audio/video interface.
What type of data cable shown here was a parallel standard for connecting multiple hard drives to the motherboard?
A.UPS
B.SATA
C.IDE
D.eSATA
C. Integrated Device Electronics (IDE) cables were used to connect parallel ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment) drives to a motherboard. PATA cables had 40 connector pins and could connect two hard drives per cable. Most motherboards at the time had two IDE connectors, so they were capable of connecting four IDE hard drives. PATA were replaced by serial ATA (SATA) drives and cables, which are much faster and only connect one drive per cable, simplifying installation. Several SATA connectors can be on a single motherboard. IDE and ATA are often used interchangeably, although they aren’t exactly the same. IDE was the parallel interface that used an ATA protocol. SATA is a serial, as opposed to a parallel, ATA connection. A UPS is an uninterruptible power supply, and eSATA is external SATA.
You have a motherboard that has 16 RAM slots. It is a quad-channel, with four RAM slots for each channel. The slots are all black, but they are labeled A1, A2, A3, A4, B1, B2, B3, B4, and so on. To take advantage of the quad-channel feature, how will you install the RAM modules?
A.Any four slots will work for quad channel.
B.Install them all in the “A” slots.
C.Install them in A1, B2, C3, and D4.
D.Install them in A1, B1, C1, and D1.
D. Typically in a motherboard with multichannel support, the channels will be labeled with a letter (A, B, C, D). To take advantage of the multichannel capabilities, you would install one RAM module in each channel. Lowest numbered slots are usually filled first, so you would use slot 1 (or zero, if numbering started there) of each channel. You should, of course, always consult the motherboard documentation.
You’ve maxed out the physical RAM on a motherboard but need more to run a particular app. The operating system will let you adjust a setting so that you can use some of the hard drive as if it were physical RAM, and the OS will swap data between RAM and the hard drive in a unit called a page. What type of memory are you using?
A.Virtual
B.DIMM
C.SODIMM
D.Cache
A. A part of the hard disk drive (or SDD) being used as if it was RAM is known as virtual memory. Virtual memory works by moving a chunk of information, called a page, to a file named pagefile.sys. pagefile.sys is literally the file on the hard drive where information in virtual memory is stored. Because of this, virtual memory is sometimes called the page file or paging file. It isn’t as fast to access as actual RAM, but it will allow some programs to run that wouldn’t otherwise. DIMMs and SODIMMs and Cache are types of physical memory. DIMMs are used in desktop computers, SODIMMs are used in laptops, and cache resides on the processor die.
What network connectivity device is shown here?
A.Hub
B.Switch
C.Router
D.Punchdown block
D. This is a punchdown block. It can be found in a telecommunications closet mounted on a networking rack. Network drops from work areas are terminated (punched down) in the back, and cables with RJ-45 connectors connect the front to a switch or router.
What is the purpose of a Molex connector?
A.Parallel data communications
B.Serial data communications
C.Power connections
D.Fan connectors on the motherboard
C. Molex connectors have a metal sleeve inside a plastic housing. Technically they can come in any number of connections but those used most often in computer systems are 4 pin, 6 pin, 8 pin, and 20/24 pin. They are used to provide power to various devices and the motherboard.
You have an extruder type 3D printer. What two components of the printer are likely to move as the print job progresses? (Choose two.)
A.Extruder nozzle
B.Print bed
C.Platform
D.Resin tray
A, B. In many extruder type 3D printers, the print bed will move down as the print job progresses and may move front to back during the printing of each layer, while the extruder nozzle moves left to right, building the 3D object one layer at a time.
What are the two types of connectors shown here, left to right?
A.MicroUSB, miniUSB
B.MiniUSB, microUSB
C.USB-A, USB-B
D.USB-C, USB4
B. The connector on the left is a miniUSB, and on the right is a microUSB.
What type of drive is likely to be a 15,000 rpm drive?
A.NVMe
B.SSD
C.Blu-ray
D.Magnetic
D. NVMe and SSD drives don’t have platters that spin. Blu-ray optical discs spin, but their spin speed is not how they are measured. Only magnetic drives are measured in rpms, and 15,000 would be a very fast magnetic drive.
What type of hard drives are not available in a 3.5″ form factor?
A.SSD
B.mSATA
C.SATA
D.Magnetic
B. SSDs and magnetic drives can both be found in the 3.5″ form factor that is used in desktop computers, and often they connect via a SATA interface. mSATA and M.2 are solid-state drives consisting of a very small circuit board that connects directly to the motherboard via a slot with a screw or connector to hold it in place.
What keys are used for M.2 slots? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.E
D.M
B, D. M.2 drives are keyed with B or M or B+M keys. A and E keys are for Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or cellular devices such as networking cards found in laptops. In computers, a key is a device such as a notch, an indent on a circuit board, that ensures you can’t plug the wrong type of device into something. Power connectors are keyed by shape, RAM modules are keyed with notches in different places, CPUs will have keys, SATA connectors have an L shape for a key, and M.2 drives are keyed as well. In an M.2, a B key is for PCIe x 2/SATA/USB and so on, and an M key is PCIe x4/SATA.
Which version of SATA ties SATA drives into the PCIe bus on the motherboard, boosting the data throughput far beyond 600 MBps?
A.SATA 1
B.SATA 2
C.SATA 3.2
D.SATA 4
C. SATA 3 had a speed of 6 Gbps and a data throughput of 600 MBps, but SATA 3.2 (also called SATAe) ties compatible drives into the PCIe bus on the motherboard, decreasing overhead and taking advantage of the PCIe bus speeds which makes the data throughput multiple times better.
Which of the following are AMD socket types? (Choose two.)
A.Socket AM4
B.LGA 1200
C.Socket TR4
D.LGA 2066 Socket R4
A, C. Socket AM4 and Socket TR4 are only compatible with AMD processors. The two LGA sockets listed are for use with Intel processors only.
What connects in the motherboard socket shown here?
A.Network card
B.Hard drive
C.RAM
D.TPM
B. This socket is for an M.2 drive. Notice the holes for a screw to hold the different drive lengths.
What type of motherboard may have multiple processors and plenty of RAM, and can sometimes be found mounted in a networking rack?
A.Server
B.Workstation
C.Desktop
D.Mobile
A. Servers often perform more work than any other computer on a network, especially in a virtualization environment. A server could be as simple as an ordinary desktop computer, but more often the server will have extra processing power and loads of RAM, and be rack-mounted for easy access by technicians in a corporate environment.
Which of the following processors are you more likely to find in a server than a workstation? (Choose two.)
A.Intel Atom
B.Intel Xeon
C.AMD EPYC
D.AMD Ryzen 3
B, C. Intel Xeon and AMD EPYC processors are designed to be high-end server processors. The Atom processor is a small form factor processor, and the Ryzen 3 is a desktop processor.
What type of motherboard is designed to be very compact and is generally proprietary?
A.Server
B.Workstation
C.Desktop
D.Mobile
D. Motherboards found in smaller devices such as laptops and cell phones tend to be very proprietary, meaning that if you can replace them, you must replace them with a board made by the same manufacturer for that precise device.
Which of the following are true about ARM architecture? (Choose two.)
A.It’s licensed by ARM Holdings to many chip manufacturers.
B.It uses Complex Instruction Set Computing (CISC).
C.It uses Reduced Instruction Set Computing (RISC).
D.It is only found in smartphones.
A, C. Arm Holdings, LTD. is the company that has developed the nine iterations of ARM processors. ARM is famous for developing Reduced Instruction Set Computing (RISC), and their intellectual property can be found in everything from embedded systems and smartphones all the way up to servers. An ARM processor is considered a SoC (system-on-a-chip) rather than a CPU because processors are built with various features around the ARM processor.
You work in a secure environment and it’s your responsibility to ensure that no data leaves the network. You’ve just received a batch of new computers in. What can you do in the UEFI to help ensure users can’t copy data to a USB drive?
A.Look for a setting to disable USB ports and disable them.
B.Put USB ports first in the boot options.
C.Remove USB from the boot options.
D.Look for a setting to enable USB ports and enable them.
A. If you disable the USB ports, a user won’t be able to attach a USB drive to copy files. Removing USB from the boot options will keep them from booting to it, but it won’t prohibit someone from using a USB drive. You can also purchase USB drive locks, which are little plugs for the USB ports. Just don’t lose your key!
You’re building a SAN for your company. Which of the following will you most likely need to install in your server to attach the server to the SAN?
A.NIC
B.Modem
C.Fibre Channel HBA
D.WAP
C. A SAN (storage area network) is a separate network that has only storage devices on it, but you still need a way to connect to that storage. Connecting can be done through a host bus adapter (HBA) connected through the PCIe bus on a network server’s motherboard. Since Fibre Channel (FC) networks are so fast, they are often used for SANs.
Your friend is looking over your shoulder as you work on a computer. They ask what all the pins sticking up are. Some are labeled USB1, some USB2, and others are labeled front panel. What is the generic term for these pins on the motherboard?
A.Ports
B.Pins
C.Standoffs
D.Headers
D. These pins are called headers. The ones mentioned connect the motherboard to the case front, where you will find USB ports, power buttons, HDD status lights, and reset switches.
What is the purpose of the connector shown here in white?
A.PCIe
B.ATX motherboard power
C.ATX12V motherboard power
D.RAID drive
C. The image shown is a 24 pin ATX12V motherboard power connector. Original ATX motherboard power connectors were 20 pin. The color doesn’t matter, but the number and shape of pins does. Technically this is a type of Molex connector, but it is commonly called P1. In addition, motherboards may use a 4-pin, 12V connector or an 8-pin power connector to supply additional power for the CPU.
You need a PC solution that is capable of accepting video footage from a gaming console or video camera and saving it in a file. You also want to ensure that it won’t skip, lag, or freeze. Which of the following would be the best solution?
A.Webcam
B.FireWire card
C.Capture card
D.Screen-capture software
C. A webcam would be very inefficient and difficult solution at best, and FireWire would not be fast enough for today’s systems. While screen-capture software might work, the best solution would be to install a capture card either as a discrete (external) unit or in a PCIe slot on a motherboard. The capture card can take some of the workload off the processor, making the video less likely to skip, lag, or freeze.
A business has a PC that a user needs to work with in a room that is not air-conditioned, but the computer keeps shutting down because the processor is overheating. You’ve checked the cooler and thermal paste and it’s fine. What can you do in this PC to help it run cool enough?
A.Add case fans.
B.Add heat monitoring software.
C.Remove the chassis cover.
D.Set it inside a refrigerator.
A. Adding case fans can draw excess heat out of a case, and cooler air into the case. Most processors won’t shut down until they reach 70 to 100 degrees Celsius (158 to 212 degrees Fahrenheit), so if a person is working in that room, the ambient temperature won’t be that high. Heat monitoring software lets you see what’s going on but won’t help cool the case. Removing the chassis cover subjects the computer to debris and dust that can cause other problems, and a refrigerator is likely to cause condensation, which can short out electrical systems. Adding case fans is the best choice given. Using a water-cooled system or adding a bigger heat sink to the processor might also help.
You are replacing the power supply in a computer system that uses a 24-pin P1 connector. You have a few power supplies in the closet to choose from. Which one with the following connections will work? (Choose two.)
A.20-pin P1 connector and P4 connector
B.20-pin+4-pin P1 connector
C.An ATX12V PSU
D.An ATX12VO power supply
B, C. Some power supplies will have a 20-pin+4-pin connector designed to connect to a 24-pin P1 motherboard connector. An ATX12V PSU is the perfect solution. A 20-pin P1 connector plus a P4 connector is the right number of pins, but the P4 connector is not compatible with the main motherboard power. ATX12VO is a 12 volt only connector that has only 10 pins and that would not be compatible with this motherboard, unless it had other connections.
You’re considering a power supply that has interchangeable cables that plug into and out of the power supply so that you can have exactly the connectors you need and not have extra cables taking up space in the case. What type of power supply is this?
A.ATX
B.ATX12V
C.Molex
D.Modular
D. A modular power supply allows you to use only the connectors you need by plugging and unplugging compatible cables into the PSU.
You’re setting up a server that can’t possibly have downtime. Which of the items below do you need to make sure you have connected to it?
A.HBA
B.Redundant power supply
C.Display
D.Dual rail power supply
B. If you have a system that can’t have any downtime, then you need to have redundant everything. An HBA is a host bus adapter, which you only need if connecting external devices. A display doesn’t have anything to do with redundancy. A dual rail power supply can still fail. For this situation you would want redundant power supplies that are hot-swappable.
You just purchased a network-enabled multifunction device. Which one of the following connection types are likely not built into it?
A.Bluetooth
B.Wi-Fi
C.Ethernet
D.RFID
D. Most modern network-enabled multifunction devices will have Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, and Ethernet connections. They may also have AirPrint support for Apple devices. They are not likely to have RFID as a connection type, although they may have an RFID reader for secure print job authentication.
The administrative assistant at your company needs to be able to choose between printing on letterhead or plain paper for each print job. You’re training them how to do this. What settings will you be showing them?
A.Orientation
B.Duplexing
C.Quality
D.Tray settings
D. If you have a printer with multiple trays, normally when you print there will be a setting that allows you to choose which tray to print from. Letterhead can be in one tray and plain paper in another. Orientation is whether the paper is printed in the taller or wider direction. Duplexing means printing on both sides, and quality settings let the user choose either faster or better printing.
Which types of printers require calibration as a part of maintenance? (Choose two.)
A.Laser
B.Thermal
C.Impact
D.Inkjet
A, D. Both laser and inkjet printers occasionally need to be calibrated. Exactly when depends on the printer, but often for inkjet printers it’s after installing a new ink cartridge, and for laser printers, when you need to adjust colors.
What are three communication interfaces that are used by SSDs to send data across a motherboard? (Choose three.)
A.NVMe
B.SATA
C.PCIe
D.IDE
A, B, C. Nonvolatile Memory Express (NVMe), SATA, and PCIe are all communication methods used by solid-state drives to connect to the motherboard for transferring data between the drive and CPU. IDE is a legacy connection technology that was used with the original ATA drives, parallel ATA (PATA).
What is the (approximate) maximum theoretical bandwidth of a PCIe x16 slot, version 5.0?
A.500 MBps
B.1,000 MBps
C.64 GBps
D.128 GBps
C. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0 and 5.0. For the five versions, a single bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps, approximately 1 GBps, roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps respectively. Each PCIe slot can have up to 16 lanes, the number of lanes being indicated by x1, x4, x8, x16. (The x is pronounced as by.) Therefore, a PCIe 5.0 x16 slot can support up to 64 GBps of bandwidth. (16 x 4 = 64).
