MLS 313 IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Inoculation with dried crusts of smallpox pustules

A

Variolation

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2
Q

Inoculation with little amounts of snake venom on multiple instances

A

Mithridatism

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3
Q

Father of Immunology

A

Edward Jenner

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4
Q

He developed the first cellular theory

A

E. Mechnikov

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5
Q

+HLVNQRZQIRUWKH´6LGH&KDLQ5HFHSWRU7KHRU\µ

A

Paul Ehrlich

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6
Q

Introduced Complement Fixation Test

A

Bordet and Gengou

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7
Q

Known as the first experimental immunologist.

A

Louis pasteur

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8
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The specific binding of an antigen to an antibody results to detectable immune response.

A

TRUE

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Human RNA and DNA share the same immunogenic properties.

A

FALSE

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10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The use of adjuvants lengthens contact between antigens and immunocompetent cells.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Decreased immune response among children is generally attributed to degenerated immune system.

A

FALSE

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12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Large sized molecules exhibit more antigenic sites than smaller ones.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

Which fragments result from the treatment of IgG with the enzyme pepsin?

A. Two F(ab1)2 fragments
B. Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment
C. Two Fab fragments and two Fc fragments
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above.

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14
Q

Which are considered basic functions of an antibody
A. Combine with an antigen
B. Neutralize toxic substances
C. Facilitate phagocytosis
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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15
Q

Which of the following describes an IgM antibody?
1. Contains five intrachain disulfide bonds.
2. First immunoglobulin class to be synthesized by neonates.
3. Major immunoglobulin in the prevention of bacterial colonization of
pathogens to mucosal cells.
4. Monomeric when bound to B cell surfaces.

A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 2,3 and 4

A

C. 1,2 and 4

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16
Q

Which part of the immunoglobulin is responsible for its effector function?
A. Variable region
B. Hypervariable region
C. Constant region
D. All of the above.

A

C. Constant region

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17
Q

Which of the following is/are true with regards to the variable region of the antiboy?
1. Both the heavy and light chain contains variable regions
2. Interaction with antigens occur more at the heavy chains variable region.
3. The variable regions are composed of hypervariable and less variable areas.
4. It is the attachment site for carbohydrates for the glycosylation of the antibody

A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 3

A

B. 1,2 and 3

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18
Q

Which group of complement receptors are not expressed by neutrophils?

A

Type 2

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19
Q

What is responsible for the attachment of CD59, HRF and DF to RBC surfaces?

A

GPI

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20
Q

Which part of the cleaved complement protein is left bound to the target cell?

A

Larger fragment with exception of C2

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21
Q

What is the immunologic activator of the classic complement pathway?

A

Antigen-Antibody Complex

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22
Q

What chemical element plays a significant role in the binding of C3i to factor B?

A

Magnesium ion

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23
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

For C1q to initiate the complement cascade, it must attach to two Fab fragments

A

FALSE

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The absence of C9 in the complement cascade results to a slower rate of cell lysis.

A

TRUE

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25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

C2a binds to C4b in the presence of magnesium to form C3 convertase.

A

TRUE

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26
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Cleavage of C3 produces C3b which mediates inflammatory reactions.

A

FALSE

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27
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

CD55 participates in the transport of C3b containing immune complexes to Kupffer cells of the liver.

A

FALSE

28
Q
  1. MHC I Molecule component reacting with CD8
A

ALPHA 3

29
Q
  1. Disease associated with B14 HLA allele expression
A

HEMOCHROMATOSIS

30
Q
  1. Expresses MHC Class I molecules
A

NUCLEATED CELLS

31
Q
  1. Non-specIfic binding by MHC Class I & II molecules
A

PROMISCOUSBINDING

32
Q
  1. Uses specific HLA antibodies as reagent
A

TISSUE TYPING

33
Q
  1. Uses one-way or two-way MLR and molecular method
A

TISSUE MATCHING

34
Q
  1. Cell with highest expression of MHC Class I molecules
A

LYMPHOCYTES

35
Q
  1. Associated with increased resistance to HIV infection
A

HLA-BW4

36
Q
  1. Pretransplantahon testing
A

HISTOCOMPATIBILITY

37
Q
  1. Expresses MHC Class Il molecules
A

APC

38
Q

Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is called
a. opsonization.
b. agglutination.
c. solubilization.
d. chemotaxis.

A

a. opsonization.

39
Q

Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity
against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon?
a. Natural immunity
b. Attenuation of vaccines
c. Phagocytosis
d. Cross-immunity

A

d. Cross-immunity

40
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur?

a. Discovery of opsonins
b. Research on haptens
c. First attenuated vaccines
d. Discovery of the ABO blood groups

A

c. First attenuated vaccines

41
Q

Which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key
role in killing of parasites?
a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils

A

d. Eosinophils

42
Q

Which of the following plays an important role as an
external defense mechanism?
a. Phagocytosis
b. C-reactive protein
c. Lysozyme
d. Complement

A

c. Lysozyme

43
Q

The process of inflammation is characterized by all of
the following except
a. increased blood supply to the area.
b. migration of white blood cells.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. appearance of acute-phase reactants.

A

c. decreased capillary permeability.

44
Q

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the
motion of cilia represent which type of immunity?
a. Natural
b. Acquired
c. Adaptive
d. Auto

A

a. Natural

45
Q

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and
enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a
a. phagosome.
b. lysosome.
c. vacuole.
d. phagolysosome.

A

d. phagolysosome.

46
Q

Which of the following white blood cells is capable of
further differentiation in the tissues?
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte

A

d. Monocyte

47
Q

The presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means?
a. Maintaining an acid environment
b. Competing with pathogens for nutrients
c. Keeping phagocytes in the area
d. Coating mucosal surfaces

A

b. Competing with pathogens for nutrients

48
Q

Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the
following except
a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory
agents.
b. tracking the normal progress of surgery.
c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.
d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.

A

c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.

49
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of acutephase reactants?
a. Rapid increase following infection
b. Enhancement of phagocytosis
c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation
d. All of the above

A

c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation

50
Q

A latex agglutination test for CRP is run on a 12-yearold girl who has been ill for the past 5 days with an
undiagnosed disease. The results obtained are as follows: weakly reactive with the undiluted serum and
negative for both the positive and negative controls.
What should the technologist do next?
a. Repeat the entire test
b. Report the results as indeterminate
c. Report the result as positive
d. Obtain a new sample

A

a. Repeat the entire test

51
Q

Which is the most significant agent formed in the
phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms?
a. Proteolytic enzymes
b. Hydroxyl radicals
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Superoxides

A

c. Hydrogen peroxide

52
Q

The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of
an antibody in which of the following ways?
a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.
b. Only the antibody triggers the complement cascade.
c. Binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent.
d. Only CRP acts as an opsonin.

A

a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
    a. Lymph node
    b. Spleen
    c. Thymus
    d. MALT
A

c. Thymus

54
Q
  1. What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
    a. Unstimulated B cells
    b. Germinal centers
    c. Plasma cells
    d. Memory cells
A

a. Unstimulated B cells

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of NK cells?
    a. They rely on memory for antigen recognition.
    b. They share antigens with B cells.
    c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes.
    d. They recognize a lack of MHC proteins.
A

d. They recognize a lack of MHC proteins.

56
Q
  1. Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?
    a. Bone marrow
    b. Thymus
    c. Spleen
    d. Lymph nodes
A

a. Bone marrow

57
Q

In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is
based upon recognition of which of the following?
a. Self-antigens
b. Stress proteins
c. MHC antigens
d. μ chains

A

c. MHC antigens

58
Q
  1. Which of these are found on a mature B cell?
    a. IgG and IgD
    b. IgM and IgD
    c. Alpha and beta chains
    d. CD3
A

b. IgM and IgD

59
Q
  1. Which receptor on T cells is responsible for rosetting
    with sheep red blood cells?
    a. CD2
    b. CD3
    c. CD4
    d. CD8
A

a. CD2

60
Q
  1. Which of the following can be attributed to antigenstimulated T cells?
    a. Humoral response
    b. Plasma cells
    c. Cytokines
    d. Antibody
A

c. Cytokines

61
Q
  1. Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?
    a. μ chains in the cytoplasm
    b. Complete IgM on the surface
    c. Presence of CD21 antigen
    d. Presence of CD25 antigen
A

a. μ chains in the cytoplasm

62
Q
  1. When does genetic rearrangement for coding of light
    chains take place?
    a. Before the pre-B cell stage
    b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell
    c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell
    d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell
A

b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell

63
Q
  1. Which of the following antigens are found on the
    T cell subset known as helper/inducers?
    a. CD3
    b CD4
    c. CD8
    d. CD11
A

b CD4

64
Q
  1. Where does the major portion of antibody production
    occur?
    a. Peripheral blood
    b. Bone marrow
    c. Thymus
    d. Lymph nodes
A

d. Lymph nodes

65
Q
  1. Which of the following would represent a doublenegative thymocyte?
    a. CD2–CD3CD4–CD8
    b. CD2CD3–CD4–CD8–
    c. CD2–CD3CD4CD8–
    d. CD2CD3CD4CD8–
A

b. CD2CD3–CD4–CD8–

66
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the T-cell receptor for antigen?
    a. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules.
    b. It is the same for all T cells.
    c. It is present in the double-negative stage.
    d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.
A

d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.