MLS 313 IMMUNOLOGY AND SEROLOGY

Question 1

Inoculation with dried crusts of smallpox pustules

Answer 1

Variolation

Question 2

Inoculation with little amounts of snake venom on multiple instances

Answer 2

Mithridatism

Question 3

Father of Immunology

Answer 3

Edward Jenner

Question 4

He developed the first cellular theory

Answer 4

E. Mechnikov

Question 5

+HLVNQRZQIRUWKH´6LGH&KDLQ5HFHSWRU7KHRU\µ

Answer 5

Paul Ehrlich

Question 6

Introduced Complement Fixation Test

Answer 6

Bordet and Gengou

Question 7

Known as the first experimental immunologist.

Answer 7

Louis pasteur

Question 8

TRUE OR FALSE

The specific binding of an antigen to an antibody results to detectable immune response.

Answer 8

TRUE

Question 9

TRUE OR FALSE

Human RNA and DNA share the same immunogenic properties.

Answer 9

FALSE

Question 10

TRUE OR FALSE

The use of adjuvants lengthens contact between antigens and immunocompetent cells.

Answer 10

TRUE

Question 11

TRUE OR FALSE

Decreased immune response among children is generally attributed to degenerated immune system.

Answer 11

FALSE

Question 12

TRUE OR FALSE

Large sized molecules exhibit more antigenic sites than smaller ones.

Answer 12

TRUE

Question 13

Which fragments result from the treatment of IgG with the enzyme pepsin?

A. Two F(ab1)2 fragments
B. Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment
C. Two Fab fragments and two Fc fragments
D. None of the above.

Answer 13

D. None of the above.

Question 14

Which are considered basic functions of an antibody
A. Combine with an antigen
B. Neutralize toxic substances
C. Facilitate phagocytosis
D. All of the above.

Answer 14

D. All of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following describes an IgM antibody?
1. Contains five intrachain disulfide bonds.
2. First immunoglobulin class to be synthesized by neonates.
3. Major immunoglobulin in the prevention of bacterial colonization of
pathogens to mucosal cells.
4. Monomeric when bound to B cell surfaces.

A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 2,3 and 4

Answer 15

C. 1,2 and 4

Question 16

Which part of the immunoglobulin is responsible for its effector function?
A. Variable region
B. Hypervariable region
C. Constant region
D. All of the above.

Answer 16

C. Constant region

Question 17

Which of the following is/are true with regards to the variable region of the antiboy?
1. Both the heavy and light chain contains variable regions
2. Interaction with antigens occur more at the heavy chains variable region.
3. The variable regions are composed of hypervariable and less variable areas.
4. It is the attachment site for carbohydrates for the glycosylation of the antibody

A. 1,2,3 and 4 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 1,3 and 4 D. 1 and 3

Answer 17

B. 1,2 and 3

Question 18

Which group of complement receptors are not expressed by neutrophils?

Answer 18

Type 2

Question 19

What is responsible for the attachment of CD59, HRF and DF to RBC surfaces?

Answer 19

GPI

Question 20

Which part of the cleaved complement protein is left bound to the target cell?

Answer 20

Larger fragment with exception of C2

Question 21

What is the immunologic activator of the classic complement pathway?

Answer 21

Antigen-Antibody Complex

Question 22

What chemical element plays a significant role in the binding of C3i to factor B?

Answer 22

Magnesium ion

Question 23

TRUE OR FALSE

For C1q to initiate the complement cascade, it must attach to two Fab fragments

Answer 23

FALSE

Question 24

TRUE OR FALSE

The absence of C9 in the complement cascade results to a slower rate of cell lysis.

Answer 24

TRUE

Question 25

TRUE OR FALSE C2a binds to C4b in the presence of magnesium to form C3 convertase.

Answer 25

TRUE

Question 26

TRUE OR FALSE Cleavage of C3 produces C3b which mediates inflammatory reactions.

Answer 26

FALSE

Question 27

TRUE OR FALSE CD55 participates in the transport of C3b containing immune complexes to Kupffer cells of the liver.

Answer 27

FALSE

Question 28

1. MHC I Molecule component reacting with CD8

Answer 28

ALPHA 3

Question 29

3. Disease associated with B14 HLA allele expression

Answer 29

HEMOCHROMATOSIS

Question 30

4. Expresses MHC Class I molecules

Answer 30

NUCLEATED CELLS

Question 31

5. Non-specIfic binding by MHC Class I & II molecules

Answer 31

PROMISCOUSBINDING

Question 32

6. Uses specific HLA antibodies as reagent

Answer 32

TISSUE TYPING

Question 33

7. Uses one-way or two-way MLR and molecular method

Answer 33

TISSUE MATCHING

Question 34

9. Cell with highest expression of MHC Class I molecules

Answer 34

LYMPHOCYTES

Question 35

2. Associated with increased resistance to HIV infection

Answer 35

HLA-BW4

Question 36

3. Pretransplantahon testing

Answer 36

HISTOCOMPATIBILITY

Question 37

8. Expresses MHC Class Il molecules

Answer 37

APC

Question 38

Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is called a. opsonization. b. agglutination. c. solubilization. d. chemotaxis.

Answer 38

a. opsonization.

Question 39

Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, demonstrates which phenomenon? a. Natural immunity b. Attenuation of vaccines c. Phagocytosis d. Cross-immunity

Answer 39

d. Cross-immunity

Question 40

Which of the following can be attributed to Pasteur? a. Discovery of opsonins b. Research on haptens c. First attenuated vaccines d. Discovery of the ABO blood groups

Answer 40

c. First attenuated vaccines

Question 41

Which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites? a. Neutrophils b. Monocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Eosinophils

Answer 41

d. Eosinophils

Question 42

Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism? a. Phagocytosis b. C-reactive protein c. Lysozyme d. Complement

Answer 42

c. Lysozyme

Question 43

The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the following except a. increased blood supply to the area. b. migration of white blood cells. c. decreased capillary permeability. d. appearance of acute-phase reactants.

Answer 43

c. decreased capillary permeability.

Question 44

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity? a. Natural b. Acquired c. Adaptive d. Auto

Answer 44

a. Natural

Question 45

The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell is called a a. phagosome. b. lysosome. c. vacuole. d. phagolysosome.

Answer 45

d. phagolysosome.

Question 46

Which of the following white blood cells is capable of further differentiation in the tissues? a. Neutrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Monocyte

Answer 46

d. Monocyte

Question 47

The presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means? a. Maintaining an acid environment b. Competing with pathogens for nutrients c. Keeping phagocytes in the area d. Coating mucosal surfaces

Answer 47

b. Competing with pathogens for nutrients

Question 48

Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except a. monitoring drug therapy with anti-inflammatory agents. b. tracking the normal progress of surgery. c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection. d. determining active phases of rheumatoid arthritis.

Answer 48

c. diagnosis of a specific bacterial infection.

Question 49

Which of the following are characteristics of acutephase reactants? a. Rapid increase following infection b. Enhancement of phagocytosis c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation d. All of the above

Answer 49

c. Nonspecific indicators of inflammation

Question 50

A latex agglutination test for CRP is run on a 12-yearold girl who has been ill for the past 5 days with an undiagnosed disease. The results obtained are as follows: weakly reactive with the undiluted serum and negative for both the positive and negative controls. What should the technologist do next? a. Repeat the entire test b. Report the results as indeterminate c. Report the result as positive d. Obtain a new sample

Answer 50

a. Repeat the entire test

Question 51

Which is the most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms? a. Proteolytic enzymes b. Hydroxyl radicals c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Superoxides

Answer 51

c. Hydrogen peroxide

Question 52

The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways? a. CRP acts before the antibody appears. b. Only the antibody triggers the complement cascade. c. Binding of the antibody is calcium-dependent. d. Only CRP acts as an opsonin.

Answer 52

a. CRP acts before the antibody appears.

Question 53

1. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. Lymph node b. Spleen c. Thymus d. MALT

Answer 53

c. Thymus

Question 54

2. What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle? a. Unstimulated B cells b. Germinal centers c. Plasma cells d. Memory cells

Answer 54

a. Unstimulated B cells

Question 55

3. Which of the following is true of NK cells? a. They rely on memory for antigen recognition. b. They share antigens with B cells. c. They are found mainly in lymph nodes. d. They recognize a lack of MHC proteins.

Answer 55

d. They recognize a lack of MHC proteins.

Question 56

4. Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made? a. Bone marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes

Answer 56

a. Bone marrow

Question 57

In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is based upon recognition of which of the following? a. Self-antigens b. Stress proteins c. MHC antigens d. μ chains

Answer 57

c. MHC antigens

Question 58

6. Which of these are found on a mature B cell? a. IgG and IgD b. IgM and IgD c. Alpha and beta chains d. CD3

Answer 58

b. IgM and IgD

Question 59

7. Which receptor on T cells is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells? a. CD2 b. CD3 c. CD4 d. CD8

Answer 59

a. CD2

Question 60

8. Which of the following can be attributed to antigenstimulated T cells? a. Humoral response b. Plasma cells c. Cytokines d. Antibody

Answer 60

c. Cytokines

Question 61

9. Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? a. μ chains in the cytoplasm b. Complete IgM on the surface c. Presence of CD21 antigen d. Presence of CD25 antigen

Answer 61

a. μ chains in the cytoplasm

Question 62

10. When does genetic rearrangement for coding of light chains take place? a. Before the pre-B cell stage b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell c. Not until the cell becomes a mature B cell d. When the B cell becomes a plasma cell

Answer 62

b. As the cell becomes an immature B cell

Question 63

11. Which of the following antigens are found on the T cell subset known as helper/inducers? a. CD3 b CD4 c. CD8 d. CD11

Answer 63

b CD4

Question 64

12. Where does the major portion of antibody production occur? a. Peripheral blood b. Bone marrow c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes

Answer 64

d. Lymph nodes

Question 65

13. Which of the following would represent a doublenegative thymocyte? a. CD2–CD3CD4–CD8 b. CD2CD3–CD4–CD8– c. CD2–CD3CD4CD8– d. CD2CD3CD4CD8–

Answer 65

b. CD2CD3–CD4–CD8–

Question 66

14. Which of the following best describes the T-cell receptor for antigen? a. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules. b. It is the same for all T cells. c. It is present in the double-negative stage. d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.

Answer 66

d. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen.