HEMATOLOGY 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Erythropoietin

A
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2
Q

Hematopoiesis

A
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3
Q

Polychromia

A
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4
Q

Megaloblast

A
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5
Q

Microcyte

A
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6
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A
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7
Q

Dyscrasia

A
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8
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A
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9
Q

Leukoerythroblastosis

A
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10
Q

Megakaryocytic Leukemia

A
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11
Q

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A
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12
Q

Thrombocytopathy

A
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13
Q

Megaloblastic Anemia

A
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14
Q

Hematoma

A
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15
Q

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia

A
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16
Q

Erythroleukemia

A
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17
Q

Coagulopathy

A
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18
Q

Hemophilia

A
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19
Q

Thrombopoietin

A
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20
Q

Pure Red Cell Aplasia

A
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21
Q
  1. Nucleated RBCs in neonates’ peripheral blood are presumed to come from what
    hematopoietic development stage?
    A. Mesoblastic
    B. Hepatic
    C. Myeloid
    D. Spleen, Thymus, Lymph nodes
A
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22
Q
  1. During the first trimester of fetal development, the primary site of blood cell production
    is the:
    A. Bone marrow
    B. Spleen
    C. Yolk sac
    D. Liver
A
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23
Q
  1. As most blood cells mature, which of the following is characteristic?
    A. Cell diameter increases
    B. Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio (N:C) decreases
    C. Nuclear chromatin becomes less condensed
    D. Basophilia of the cytoplasm increases
A
24
Q
  1. Which one of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and
    regulation of their expression of CD4 and CD8?
    A. Thymus
    B. Liver
    C. Spleen
    D. Lymph nodes
A
25
Q
  1. Myeloproliferative red cell population in the bone marrow of uremic patients is caused
    by:
    A. infiltration of bone marrow by toxic waste products
    B. decreased levels of circulating erythropoietin
    C. defective globin synthesis
    D. overcrowding of bone marrow space by increased myeloid precursors
A
26
Q
  1. Megaloblastic asynchronous development in the bone marrow indicates which one of
    the following?
    A. Proliferation of erythrocyte precursors
    B. Impaired synthesis of DNA
    C. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
    D. Immature release of reticulocytes
A
27
Q
  1. For neutrophils to defend against infection, they must be capable of all of the following,
    except:
    A. mobility
    B. cell division
    C. chemotaxis
    D. adhesion
A
28
Q
  1. What is the expected response of the body of a patient suffering from severe anemia
    due to myelofibrosis?
    A. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen
    B. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney
    C. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells
    D. Increase the proportion of yellow marrow in the long bones
A
29
Q
  1. Vasoactive compounds are principal components of the granules of:
    A. monocytes
    B. basophils
    C. eosinophils
    D. neutrophils
A
30
Q
  1. The metabolic pathway that facilitates the release of oxygen from hemoglobin to the
    tissues is:
    A. Methemoglobin reductase.
    B. Rapoport-Luebering shunt.
    C. Hexose-monophosphate shunt.
    D. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
A
31
Q
  1. The best source of active bone marrow from a 25-year-old male patient would be:
    A. Iliac crest
    B. Femur
    C. Distal radius
    D. Tibia
A
32
Q
  1. Which of the following hemokines is involved in the early phases of differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells?
    A. IL-2
    B. IL-8
    C. EPO
    D. FLT3 ligand
A
33
Q

A. In the red cell maturation sequence, the acidophilic erythroblast is the last cell
capable of mitosis.
B. It is also in this stage that the highly-condensed nucleus is ejected

A
34
Q

A. Mesenchymal hematopoiesis ends 6 months after conception.
B. Hepatic hematopoiesis begins on the third month following conception

A
35
Q

A. In granulocyte production, mitosis occurs in the proliferative pool
B. Differentiation of granulocytes occur in the post-mitotic pool

A
36
Q

A. In granulocyte production, mitosis occurs in the proliferative pool
B. Differentiation of granulocytes occur in the post-mitotic pool.

A
37
Q
  1. G-CSF - D
A
38
Q
  1. Il-5 - G
A
39
Q
  1. Transforming Growth Factor B -A
A
40
Q
  1. IL-6 - I
A
41
Q
  1. IL-11 - B
A
42
Q
  1. TPO - B
A
43
Q
  1. Kit-Ligand - E
A
44
Q
  1. IL-9 –G
A
45
Q
  1. FL –E
A
46
Q
  1. EPO - C
A
47
Q
  1. This form of hemoglobin is not detected by the cyanmethemoglobin method:
    a. Methemoglobin
    b. Sulfhemoglobin
    c. Carboxyhemoglobin
    d. Oxyhemoglobin
A

b. Sulfhemoglobin

48
Q
  1. The dithionate solubility test is positive as manifested by turbidity when this type of hemoglobin is present:
    a. HgbSC
    b. HgbSS
    c. HgbCC
    d. None of the choices
A

a. HgbSC

49
Q
  1. Which Hemoglobin variant, often found among South East Asians, causes microcytic
    blood smears, and migrates with Hgb C at an alkaline pH?
    a. Barts Hgb
    b. Portland Hgb
    c. Hgb H
    d. Hgb E
    e. Hgb Cziguinchor
A

d. Hgb E

50
Q
  1. Thalassemias are characterized by:
    a. decreased globin synthesis rate
    b. decreased heme synthesis rate
    c. structural abnormalities in the Hgb molecule
    d. absence of iron in Hgb
A
51
Q
  1. The hemoglobin that cannot be separated from Hemoglobin S by electrophoresis at
    pH 8.6 is:
    A. A
    B. D
    C. F
    D. C
A
52
Q
  1. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
    A. A false increase in hematocrit value
    B. A false decrease in hematocrit value
    C. No effect on Hematocrit value
    D. All of these options
A

A. A false increase in hematocrit value

53
Q
  1. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected in a falsely elevated Hematocrit?
    A. MCV
    B. MCH
    C. MCHC
    D. Red cell distribution width (RDW
A

B. MCH

54
Q
  1. Hematocrit Determination refers to:
    A. the percentage of white blood cells in a sample of whole blood.
    B. the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood.
    C. the percentage of platelets in a sample of whole blood.
    D. the volume of plasma in a given blood sample
A

B. the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of whole blood.

55
Q
  1. If your bone marrow is producing an elevated number of red blood cells, what happens to your hematocrit?
    A. The hematocrit value remains constant. B. The hematocrit value decreases.
    C. The hematocrit value increases.
    D. The hematocrit value will fluctuate as a function of the white blood cell count
A

C. The hematocrit value increases.

56
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is Incorrect?
    A. The amount of plasma that still remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has been spun should be taken into consideration.
    B. Poor technique in collecting the blood specimen is the most frequent cause of hemolysis.
    C. Greater amounts of trapped plasma are noted in the Hematocrits of patients with sickle cell anemia
    D. The red-gray layer between the red cells and the plasma; This is the layer that includes platelets and leukocytes is known as the Trapped Plasma
A

A. The amount of plasma that still remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has been spun should be taken into consideration.