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Chemical Technician > Mixed Concepts > Flashcards

Mixed Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the heaviest?
A. proton
B. neutron
C. electron
D. nucleus

A

D. nucleus

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2
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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3
Q

Chlorine (35.45 g/mol) has two major naturally occurring isotopes Cl-35 and Cl- 37. What
is the abundance of the lighter isotope?
A. 22.5
B. 33.5

C. 66.5
D. 77.5

A

D. 77.5

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
A. n = 3 , l = 1, ml = -1 , ms -1/2
B. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = 0, ms -1/2

C. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = -1 , ms -1/2
D. n = 3 , l = 1, ml = 0 , ms -1/2

A

C. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = -1 , ms -1/2

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5
Q

Which of the following group is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group
is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
A. Alkali metals
B. Chalcogens

C. Halogens
D. Noble gases

A

C. Halogens

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6
Q

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?

A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
B. Na < K < Cl < Ne

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

A

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

A higher electron affinity indicates that an atom more easily accepts electrons.

Neon (Ne): As a noble gas, Neon has a full outer electron shell, making it highly stable and thus having very low electron affinity.

Potassium (K): An alkali metal, it has a relatively low electron affinity because it prefers to lose an electron rather than gain one.

Sodium (Na): Also an alkali metal but slightly smaller than potassium, so it has a slightly higher electron affinity than potassium.

Chlorine (Cl): A halogen, it has a high electron affinity because it readily gains an electron to complete its valence shell.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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8
Q

Which of the following is a polar molecule?
A. CO2
B. SF4

C. CCl4
D. XeF4

A

B. SF4

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9
Q

Which compound has the greatest intermolecular force of attraction?
A. CO
B. CH4

C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

A

C. CH3OH

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10
Q

What is the name of the compound PCl3?
A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride

C. Phosphorus chloride(lll)
D Phosphorus trichloride(lll)

A

B. Phosphorus trichloride

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11
Q

What is the chemical formula of plumbous oxide?
A. PbO
B. Pb2O2

C. PbO2
D. PbO4

A

A. PbO

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12
Q

Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCI
B. 3 HNO3 :1 HCI

C. 2 HNO3: 3HCl
D. 3 HNO3: 2HCl

A

A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCI

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13
Q

Sodium carbonate is also known as?
A. baking soda
B. soda ash

C. caustic potash
D. caustic soda

A

B. soda ash

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14
Q

What are the conditions to achieve the non-ideality of gases?
A. high T, low P
B. high T, high P

C. low T, low P
D. low T, high P

A

D. low T, high P

A gas behaves more like an ideal gas at higher temperatures and low pressure, as the potential energy due to intermolecular forces becomes less significant.

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15
Q

Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight?

A. 100 ppm
B. 10 ppt

C. 1 ppt
D. 1 ppb

A

A. 100 ppm

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16
Q

What is the indicator that turns the solution into colors blue, green, and yellow if it
becomes basic, neutral, and acidic, respectively?
A. methyl orange
B. phenolphthalein

C. bromthymol blue
D. Eriochrome black T

A

C. bromthymol blue

Bromthymol blue is an acid-base indicator that changes color based on the pH of the solution:
Yellow in acidic conditions (pH < 6.0)
Green at neutral pH (around pH 7.0)
Blue in basic conditions (pH > 7.6)

Methyl orange: Red in acidic, yellow in neutral to basic.
Phenolphthalein: Colorless in acidic, pink in basic.
Eriochrome black T: Used primarily as a complexometric indicator, changes color in the presence of certain metal ions.

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17
Q

What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid?
A. 2.5 N
B. 5.0 N

C. 7.5 N
D. 10.0 N

A

D. 10.0 N

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18
Q

What is the oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
A. +2
B. +3

C. +6
D. 0

A

C. +6

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19
Q

Consider the endothermic reaction A (g) ⇋ B (g) + C (g), which will cause a backward
shift?
A. removal of B
B. increasing the volume

C. addition of catalyst
D. decreasing the temperature

A

D. decreasing the temperature

Since the reaction is endothermic, decreasing the temperature will favor the exothermic direction (the backward reaction) to produce more A.

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

A. wearing of masks and gloves
B. drying of glassware after washing

C. tying or braiding long hairs
D. adding water to strong acid

A

D. adding water to strong acid

This is NOT a proper practice. The correct method is to add acid to water. Adding water to a strong acid can cause the acid to splatter and create hazardous conditions due to the exothermic reaction.

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21
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle

C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

A

B. amber bottle

Hexane is a volatile organic solvent that can degrade certain plastics over time, so plastic bottles are generally not recommended for storing hexane.

Glass bottles can be used, but they do not protect from light exposure, which can sometimes affect the stability of certain substances.

Amber bottles provide protection from light while being made of glass, making them a suitable choice for storing hexane safely.

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22
Q

Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer?
A. monochromator — source — sample — detector
B. source — monochromator — sample — detector
C. monochromator — source — detector — sample
D. source — monochromator — detector — sample

A

B. source — monochromator — sample — detector

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23
Q

Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm
where other materials show a significant absorption.
A. quartz
B. plastic

C. sodium chloride
D. potassium bromide

A

A. quartz

Quartz cuvettes are ideal for use in the ultraviolet (UV) range, particularly below 300 nm, because they have low absorbance in this region and do not interfere with the measurements.

Plastic cuvettes can absorb UV light and are typically not suitable for wavelengths below 300 nm.

Sodium chloride and potassium bromide are used for specific applications (like in solid-state spectroscopy) but are not common for general UV spectroscopy in cuvette form.

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24
Q

A blank that contains the solvent plus all the reagents used in sample preparation.
A. field blank
B. method blank

C. solvent blank
D. reagent blank

A

D. reagent blank

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25
Q

A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
A. Calibration curve
B. Quality Control Chart

C. Absorbance Chart
D. None of the above

A

A. Calibration curve

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26
Q

HOW many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell?
A. 4
B. 8

C. 16
D. 32

A

D. 32

Maximumnumberofelectrons=2n^2

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27
Q

What is the name of the compound indicated below? Pb(ClO)4

A. plumbous perchlorate
B. plumbic perchlorate

C. plumbous hypochlorite
D. plumbic hypochlorite

A

D. plumbic hypochlorite

perchlorate - ClO4

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28
Q

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
A. HN3
B. HNO2

C. HNO3
D. H2NO3

A

B. HNO2

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29
Q

In order to ensure an accurate weighing when using the balances, one should
A. leave the object on the balance for several minutes to ensure a stable reading
B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing
C. turn the balance off to clear any previous weighing from its memory
D. weigh the object many times on different balances and take the average of these weighing

A

B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing

To ensure accuracy, external factors like air drafts and vibrations must be minimized, and the balance must be properly zeroed before weighing.

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance
B. Weight of the liquid is approximately equal to its density
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction flask by using a metal spatula
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first

A

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first

This method, known as “weighing by difference,” ensures that the volatile liquid’s mass can be determined accurately, since the liquid may evaporate during the weighing process if left open.

C is incorrect: Using a metal spatula to transfer solid reactants is generally discouraged, especially in analytical chemistry. Metal spatulas can react with certain chemicals or cause contamination. Instead, non-reactive materials like plastic or ceramic spatulas are recommended for transferring solid reactants.

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31
Q

Which procedure is recommended for reading the level of an aqueous solution in a buret or graduated cylinder?
A. Keep the eye level with the top of the meniscus and record that reading
B. Read both the bottom and top of the meniscus and average those readings
C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading
D. Look down at the meniscus at an angle to obtain the average reading directly

A

C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading

For accurate readings, the eye should be level with the bottom of the meniscus (the curve formed at the surface of the liquid). This minimizes parallax error and is the standard procedure for reading liquid levels in volumetric glassware.

Parallax error refers to the difference in the apparent position of an object viewed along two different lines of sight.

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32
Q

Which of the following is a mark of blow out pipets?
A. Frosted band
B. Colored band
C. TC
D. TD

A

A. Frosted band

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33
Q

In purifying a material by crystallization choose the solvent according to the following EXCEPT
A. solubility
B. vapor pressure
C. reactivity
D. polarity

A

B. vapor pressure

When choosing a solvent for crystallization, factors like solubility (how well the material dissolves), reactivity (whether the solvent reacts with the material), and polarity (which affects solubility) are important. Vapor pressure is not typically a key factor in selecting a crystallization solvent, so it’s the exception here.

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34
Q

In crystallization, the solution which is obtained after filtration is a
A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. none of the given answers

A

A. clear solution

After filtration in a crystallization process, any impurities or undissolved solids are removed, leaving behind a clear solution that contains the dissolved material. This solution is then cooled to allow the material to crystallize out.

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35
Q

What is the key step in a recrystallization process?
A. Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

A

C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow

The key step in recrystallization is the slow cooling of the hot solution, which allows the dissolved solid to form pure crystals. During slow cooling, impurities remain in the solution while the purified substance crystallizes out. This step is crucial for obtaining high-quality crystals.

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36
Q

Which of the following is the example of the crystallization process?
A. Purification of alum
B. None of the given answers
C. Separation of gases from air
D. Purification of seawater

A

A. Purification of alum

A. Purification of alum: This is an example of crystallization. The impure alum is dissolved in water, and then pure alum crystals form as the solution cools.

B. None of the given answers: This option suggests no correct answer, but in this case, A is the correct one.

C. Separation of gases from air: This is done by distillation or fractional distillation, not crystallization. Different gases are separated based on their boiling points.

D. Purification of seawater: This is usually done by distillation or reverse osmosis, which removes salt and impurities from water, not by crystallization.

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37
Q

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?
A. Thermal
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Chemical

A

A. Thermal

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38
Q

A mobile phase can be classified as
I. Solid
II. Liquid
III. Gas

A. II only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I only

A

C. II and III only

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39
Q

What is the mobile phase in thin layer chromatography?
A. liquid solvent such as isopropanol
B. A smooth solid surface such as a glass plate
C. A coating on a solid surface such as silica gel
D. A chamber such as a glass jar

A

A. liquid solvent such as isopropanol

In thin layer chromatography (TLC), the mobile phase is the liquid solvent that travels up the thin layer of stationary phase (which is often a coating of silica gel on a plate). The solvent carries the sample along the plate, allowing for the separation of different components based on their affinities to the stationary and mobile phases.

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40
Q

In TLC, the relative adsorption of components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its
A. Retardation factor
B. Solubility factor
C. Acceleration factor
D. Acceleration and retardation factor

A

A. Retardation factor

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41
Q

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of
A. Wood
B. Fibro
C. Metal
D. Glass

A

D. Glass

Thin layer chromatography (TLC) plates, also known as chromatoplates, are typically made of glass. The glass plates are coated with a thin layer of stationary phase material, such as silica gel or alumina, which facilitates the separation of components during the chromatography process.

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42
Q

In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the
A. rate of disappearance of solute
B. rate of movement of solvent
C. rate of disappearance of solvent
D. rate of movement of solute

A

D. rate of movement of solute

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43
Q

The elution power of a solvent is determined by
A. its overall polarity
B. polarity of the stationary phase
C. all of the given answers
D. nature of the sample components

A

C. all of the given answers

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44
Q

The components of a sample in column chromatography are eluted in order of

A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

C. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

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45
Q

Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D. In squalene than cyclohexane. Squalene is an aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from a gas chromatographic column?

A. Benzene will be eluted first
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first
C. order of elution cannot be determined
D. The two peaks will overlap

A

A. Benzene will be eluted first

Large value of D = solute has a higher affinity for the stationary phase (gamay ang value sa denominator-concentration sa mobile phase)

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46
Q

Which would be most appropriate for determining the number of components in a nail polish remover?
A. Gas chromatography
B. Paper chromatography
C. Boiling point determination
D. Combustion analysis

A

A. Gas chromatography

GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY
separate and analyze compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition. It’s often used for volatile mixtures.

PAPER CHROMATOGRAPHY
A sample is separated on paper using a liquid solvent (mobile phase).
For non-volatile mixtures (like inks or dyes)

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47
Q

What is the principle involved in gas-solid chromatography?
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Ion-exchange
D. Exclusion

A

B. Adsorption

In gas-solid chromatography, the stationary phase is a solid material that adsorbs the components of the gas mixture onto its surface. The separation occurs based on the different affinities of the components for the solid phase. Compounds that are more strongly adsorbed will take longer to pass through the column, while those that are less strongly adsorbed will elute faster.

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48
Q

Which of the following chromatographic method methods is most suitable for the analysis of high molecular weight compounds that are soluble in nonpolar solvents?
A. Gas-liquid
B. Gel filtration
C. lon-exchange
D. Gel permeation

A

D. Gel permeation

Why the other options are less suitable:

A. Gas-liquid chromatography: This is used for volatile, low molecular weight compounds, not high molecular weight substances.

B. Gel filtration: This is also a form of size-exclusion chromatography, but it is typically used for water-soluble compounds, not for those soluble in nonpolar solvents.

C. Ion-exchange chromatography: This is used for separating charged molecules based on their affinity to a charged stationary phase, and is not ideal for nonpolar, high molecular weight compounds.

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49
Q

he different types of energies associated with a molecule are
A. electronic energy
B. rotational energy
C. all of the given answers
D. vibrational energy

A

C. all of the given answers

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50
Q

Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?
A. study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. control of purification
C. all of the given answers
D. detection of impurities

A

C. all of the given answers

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51
Q

Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?
A. all of the given answers
B. basis of understanding of colors
C. structural investigation
D. study of excited reaction products

A

A. all of the given answers

Molecular spectroscopy has several applications, including:

Basis of understanding of colors: It helps explain how molecules absorb and emit light, which is related to color.

Structural investigation: Spectroscopy is used to determine the structure of molecules by analyzing how they interact with electromagnetic radiation.

Study of excited reaction products: It allows the study of molecules in excited states and how they behave in chemical reactions.

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52
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra. B. Molecular spectra arise from the transition of an electron between molecular energy levels.
C. In molecular transitions. electronic, rotational and vibrational transitions occur.
D. All of the given choices.

A

D. All of the given choices.

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53
Q

What is the wavelength range of UV in the electromagnetic spectrum?
A. 400 nm to 700 nm
B. 10 to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 mm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

A

B. 10 to 400 nm

A. 400 nm to 700 nm- visible light spectrum

B. 10 to 400 nm- This is the correct range for ultraviolet (UV) radiation.

C. 700 nm to 1 mm- This range falls within the infrared (IR) spectrum

D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm- This range corresponds to X-rays and part of the gamma-ray spectrum.

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54
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chromophores?
A. They may contain extensive conjugated double bonds.
B. They contain unsaturated functional groups.
C. They are added to ions that do not strongly absorb light UV-Visible region
D. They absorb strongly at 800 nm.

A

D. They absorb strongly at 800 nm.

Explanation:
A. They may contain extensive conjugated double bonds.: This is true. Chromophores often have conjugated systems that allow them to absorb light.

B. They contain unsaturated functional groups.: This is also true. Chromophores typically include unsaturated bonds (like double or triple bonds) that contribute to their ability to absorb light.

C. They are added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in the UV-Visible region.: This statement is true as well. Chromophores can be used to enhance the light absorption properties of certain ions or compounds.

D. They absorb strongly at 800 nm.: This is generally NOT true for most chromophores. The absorption of light typically occurs in the UV-Visible region (approximately 200-700 nm), and while some chromophores can absorb in the near-infrared region, strong absorption at 800 nm is not a common characteristic.

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55
Q

Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents. What is the disadvantage of using these compounds to dissolve analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-Visible region?
A. They react with the analyte given the energy at this region. B. The solvents prevent the analyte from absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light in the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

A

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

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56
Q

A student performs an experiment to determine the concentration of a colored salt solution by measuring the absorbance of the solution at the wavelength of maximum absorbance (max) of the salt and using Beer’s Law to calculate the concentration. Which of the following could cause the measured concentration to be higher than the actual concentration?

A. The cuvette is not rinsed with the salt solution after being washed.
B. The cuvette is not wiped off before it is inserted into the spectrophotometer.
C. Less than the recommended volume of salt solution is added to the cuvette.
D. The spectrometer is set to a wavelength different from lambda (max)

A

B. The cuvette is not wiped off before it is inserted into the spectrophotometer.

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57
Q

The most appropriate technique to determine levels or the Pb2* ion in blood is
A. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
B. Mass Spectrometry
C. Infrared Spectroscopy
D. High Performance Liquid Chromatography

A

A. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy

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58
Q

For the reaction Fe2+ + SCN= FeSCN2+, the equilibrium constant can be best determined by means of
A. ion-exchange
B. conductance
C. spectroscopy
D. chromatography

A

C. spectroscopy

The equilibrium constant for the reaction can be best determined using spectroscopy, particularly UV-Vis spectroscopy. The formation of the complex ion produces a colored solution that can be quantitatively measured. By measuring the absorbance of the solution at the specific wavelength where the complex absorbs light, you can determine the concentration of the complex and, thus, the equilibrium constant.

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3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A food scientist has a sample of a plant oil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty acids. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for this purpose?
A. Mass Spectroscopy
B. Ultraviolet Spectroscopy
C. Infrared Spectroscopy
D. Visible Spectroscopy

A

C. Infrared Spectroscopy

60
Q

At which region will the infrared bands of N-H, C-H and O-H stretching and bending motions be found?
A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1
B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1

A

C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1

Summary of the Regions:
4000 to 2500 cm⁻¹: Stretches of N-H, O-H, and C-H.
2500 to 2000 cm⁻¹: Generally less relevant for these functional groups.
2000 to 1500 cm⁻¹: Typically contains the region for C≡C or C=O stretching, but not for N-H, O-H, or C-H stretching.
1500 to 1000 cm⁻¹: This is primarily where bending motions occur but is not where the stretching motions for these groups are primarily found.

61
Q

A C7H140 compound exhibits an IR peak at 1715 cm. The compound could be a(an).
A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol

A

A. ketone

62
Q

How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of propene?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

63
Q

How many isomers does the formula C2H3Cl3 have?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A. 2

64
Q

The following compounds have very similar molar masses. What would be the correct order When they are arranged in order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces?

I. C3H8
II. CH3OCH3
III. CH3CH2OH

A. || < | < |||
B. ||| < | < ||
C. | < || < |||
D. III < || < |

A

C. | < || < |||

65
Q

Which of the following compounds has an ionic bond?
I. H2O
II. NH4CI
III. CH3Cl
IV. CHзLi

II
IV
I
III

A

II

66
Q

In the reaction of cyanide with 1-bromobutane in methanol, what is the role of cyanide?
A. a Brønsted base
B. a nucleophile
C. an oxidant
D. a solvent

A

B. a nucleophile

Cyanide (CN⁻) has a lone pair of electrons and attacks the electrophilic carbon in 1-bromobutane, leading to the substitution reaction. This is the correct role of cyanide in this reaction.

67
Q

A molecule has the formula C5H10O. Which functional groups might it contain?
I. Alcohol
II. Ketone

A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Neither I nor II

A

C. Either I or II

The molecule with the formula C₅H₁₀O can contain:

Alcohol (I): This functional group has an -OH (hydroxyl) group. The presence of an -OH is possible in compounds with this formula.

Ketone (II): This functional group has a carbonyl group (C=O) between two carbon atoms. A ketone is also compatible with the formula C₅H₁₀O.

68
Q

Aldehydes and ketones generally react by
A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic addition
D. electrophilic substitution

A

B. nucleophilic addition

69
Q

AlCl3 is a catalyst used in the alkylation of aromatic compounds. It is a/an
A. Lewis acid
B. Lowry-Bronsted acid
C. Arrhenius acid
D. Lewis base

A

A. Lewis acid

A Lewis acid is a substance that can accept an electron pair. AlCl₃ can accept electron pairs from aromatic compounds, facilitating the alkylation reaction. This is the correct answer.

70
Q

What is produced when a primary alcohol reacts with a mild/weak oxidizing agent?
A. ketone
B. acetaldehyde
C. carboxylic acid
D. carbon dioxide

A

B. acetaldehyde

When a primary alcohol reacts with a mild or weak oxidizing agent, it is typically oxidized to an aldehyde. For example, ethanol (a primary alcohol) will oxidize to acetaldehyde when treated with a mild oxidizing agent.

71
Q

What is the product of the reaction of benzyl alcohol with KMnO4/H3O+?
A. benzoic acid
B. benzaldehyde
C. benzyl chloride
D. benzophenone

A

A. benzoic acid

KMnO₄/H₃O⁺ is a strong oxidizing agent that can oxidize benzyl alcohol (C₆H₅CH₂OH) to benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH).
The oxidation process involves converting the primary alcohol group (-OH) into a carboxylic acid group (-COOH).

72
Q

Which of the following reactions is specific for phenols?
A. reaction with FeCl3
B. reaction with KMnO4
C. reaction with Jones reagent
D. reaction with Lucas reagent

A

A. reaction with FeCl3

Phenols react with ferric chloride (FeCl₃) to form a colored complex, usually purple or violet. This test is specific for phenols and is often used as a qualitative test to identify them.

73
Q

Which of the following is the most volatile?
A. carboxylic acid
B. alcohol
C. ether
D. aldehyde

A

C. Ether:

A. Carboxylic acid:
Carboxylic acids have strong hydrogen bonding due to the -COOH group, which makes them less volatile.

B. Alcohol:
Alcohols also have hydrogen bonding, which decreases their volatility compared to ethers.

C. Ether:
Ethers have weaker intermolecular forces (mainly Van der Waals forces) and do not form strong hydrogen bonds like alcohols or carboxylic acids. This makes them more volatile.

D. Aldehyde:
Aldehydes have moderate volatility, but they also have dipole-dipole interactions and some hydrogen bonding, making them less volatile than ethers.

74
Q

Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
A. 2-hexanone
B. 2-pentanone
C. butanoic acid
D. 3-methyl-2-butanone

A

C. butanoic acid

Among the given options, butanoic acid has the highest boiling point due to the presence of a carboxylic acid functional group. Carboxylic acids can form strong hydrogen bonds between molecules, which significantly increases their boiling point compared to ketones.

75
Q

An amine with the formula C4H11N will have which of these properties?
A. unpleasant odor odor
B. boiling point greater than 100°C
C. absorption of light with λ>450 nm
D. water solubility less than 10 g/L

A

A. unpleasant odor

Amines are known for having strong, often unpleasant odors (like fishy smells), so this property is true for many amines, including those with the formula C₄H₁₁N.

76
Q

Water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization of benzoic acid. How should it be added?
A. Add benzoic acid to a minimum amount of hot water with stirring.
B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
C. Add maximum amount of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring.
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

A

D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

77
Q

A simple fractional tube is packed with which of the following?
A. wooden beads
B. plastic beads
C. metal beads
D. glass beads

A

D. glass beads

78
Q

The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at
A. a lower temp than its boiling point
B. a higher temp than its boiling point
C. its boiling point
D. none of the above

A

A. a lower temp than its boiling point

When steam is introduced, it lowers the partial pressure of the organic liquid, allowing it to vaporize at a lower temperature than its normal boiling point.

79
Q

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of
A. glass
B. wood
C. fiber
D. metal

A

A. glass

80
Q

Retardation factor is the ratio of distance moved by
A. substance from baseline to distance moved by solvent from baseline
B. solvent from baseline to distance moved by substance from baseline
C. substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line

A

A. substance from baseline to distance moved by solvent from baseline

81
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding galvanic cells?
A. To set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are different.

A

B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

In galvanic cells, the reactions are spontaneous. They convert chemical energy from the spontaneous redox reactions into electrical energy.

82
Q

A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1M CUSO4 solution and an iron rod in 2M FeSO4 solution. Identify the anode and cathode.
A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
D. anode-iron; cathode-iron

A

B. anode-iron; cathode-copper

83
Q

Beer’s Law states that
A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing species
B. absorbance is proportional to the log of concentration of the absorbing species
C. absorbance is equal to Po/P
D. none of the above

A

A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing species

84
Q

Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)?

A. Color is measured.
B. Color is simply observed.
C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured.
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

A

D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

A. Color is measured: This is not accurate for AAS, as it does not measure color but rather specific absorption at certain wavelengths.

B. Color is simply observed: This option does not describe the quantitative nature of AAS.

C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured: This statement is more relevant to techniques like UV-Vis spectroscopy, not AAS.

85
Q

Which of the following statement(s) about mass spectroscopy is (are) correct?
I. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
II. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio.
lll. The addition of compound identification mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
A. II only
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

I. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions: True. In mass spectrometry, the substances being analyzed are turned into ions that are in gas form.

II. The ions are separated according to their mass-to-charge ratio: True. Ions are sorted based on how much they weigh compared to their charge.

III. Mass spectra can be used to find precise isotopic masses and ratios: True. Mass spectrometry can identify different isotopes and their amounts in a sample.

86
Q

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for NMR is
A. IR
B. UV-Vis
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency

A

D. Radio frequency

87
Q

Which of the following is (are) application(s) of ion exchange chromatography?
A. Softening of hard water
B. Demineralization of water
C. Separation of anions
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

88
Q

Which of the following is widely used for the separation/purification of specific biomolecules? This relies on the highly specific binding between an analyte and its counterpart.
A. Chiral chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. Ion exchange chromatography
D. Ion exclusion chromatography

A

B. Affinity chromatography

89
Q

What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using solid injection syringes in gas chromatography?
A. dissolved in volatile liquids
B. introduced using sampling loops
C. introduced using rotary sample valve
D. introduced in hot-zone of the column

A

A. dissolved in volatile liquids

In gas chromatography (GC), solid samples must be in a suitable state for them to be effectively analyzed. Since solid samples cannot be directly injected into the GC column, they need to be converted into a volatile form.

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of a detector used in gas chromatography?
A. high reliability
B. short response time
C. linear response to the solutes
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

A

D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

91
Q

Which of the following detectors is widely used to detect environmental samples like chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls ?

A. Flame ionization detector
B. Electron capture detector
C. Thermionic specific detector
D. Thermal conductivity detector

A

B. Electron capture detector

This type of detector is highly sensitive to electronegative compounds, such as chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs). It operates by capturing electrons from a radioactive source, and when an analyte with an electronegative atom passes through, it captures some of those electrons, resulting in a measurable current. This makes ECD particularly effective for detecting halogenated compounds.

92
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the guard column used in liquid chromatography?
A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
C. The size of packing varies with the type of protection needed.
D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

A

D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

93
Q

Which column is NOT used in liquid or high performance liquid chromatography?
A. guard column
B. capillary column
C. analytical column
D. separation column

A

B. capillary column

While capillary columns are commonly used in gas chromatography (GC) due to their narrow diameter and efficiency in separating volatile compounds, they are not typically used in liquid chromatography (LC) or high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC). In liquid chromatography, the columns are generally larger in diameter to accommodate liquid mobile phases.

94
Q

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?
A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemical

A

A. Thermal

95
Q

Segregation of waste organic solvents is very important because
A. Costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

96
Q

Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste?
A. All methods given are unacceptable.
B. Pouring down the sink.
C. Placing it in the regular trash.
D. Pouring down the drainage canal.

A

A. All methods given are unacceptable.

97
Q

Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water
A. Pour acid into water.
B. Pour them at the same time.
C. Pour water into acid.
D. Let the supervisor mix them.

A

A. Pour acid into water.

This is the correct procedure because it minimizes the risk of an exothermic reaction that can occur when acid is mixed with water. When acid is added to water, it dilutes gradually, reducing the heat generated and preventing splattering. Pouring water into acid can cause the acid to splash due to the rapid heat release, which can lead to dangerous situations.

98
Q

Which colors used in the NFPA diamond chemical hazard warning represents health hazards?
A. red
B. blue
C. yellow
D. white

A

B. blue

99
Q

Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when
A. concentrated
B. all of the given answers
C. ether is allowed to evaporate
D. heated

A

B. all of the given answers

100
Q

Electrophiles are
A. electron-poor species
B. electron-rich
C. positively charged ions
D. electrically neutral species

A

A. electron-poor species

101
Q

Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?
A. elimination
B. rearrangement
C. electrophilic addition
D. free-radical substitution

A

D. free-radical substitution

102
Q

Which of these compounds exist as cis and trans isomers?
A. dichlorobenzene
B. 1-chloropropene
C. dichloroethyne
D. 1,2-dichloropropane

A

B. 1-chloropropene

103
Q

Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?
A. neutral solution of HCI
B. alcoholic solution of Carbonate
C. ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
D. aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

A

D. aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

C. Ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate: This is used for other reactions, like testing for alkynes, but not for alkenes.

D. Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate: This is Baeyer’s reagent. It is used to oxidize alkenes and can help identify them by causing a color change (purple to colorless).

104
Q

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CH2Cl2?
A. hexane
B. benzene
C. 1-hexene
D. cyclohexane

A

C. 1-hexene

The ability of a compound to decolorize bromine (Br₂) in a solvent like dichloromethane (CH₂Cl₂) typically indicates the presence of unsaturation (double or triple bonds). Unsaturated compounds react with bromine in an electrophilic addition reaction, leading to the formation of dibrominated products and resulting in the loss of the characteristic reddish-brown color of bromine.

105
Q

In what way does the reactivity of CHC(triple bond)CH differ from CH,CH=CH2?
A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.
B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine.
C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does not.
D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.

A

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.

Propyne (which has a triple bond) has an acidic hydrogen that can be removed by sodium amide (NaNH₂), whereas propene (with a double bond) does not have such an acidic hydrogen.

106
Q

Which of the following is an aromatic compound?
A. acetylene
B. acetone
C. styrene
D. polyethylene

A

C. styrene

107
Q

How many σ and π bonds are present in benzene?
A. 6σ and 3π
B. 3σ and 6π
C. 3σ and 12π
D. 12σ and 3π

A

D. 12σ and 3π

108
Q

The most activating substituent in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is
A. -NO2
B. -OH
C. -CN
D. -NH2

A

D. -NH2

In electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS), substituents on the benzene ring can either activate or deactivate the ring towards further substitution reactions. Activating groups increase the electron density on the ring, making it more reactive toward electrophiles.

Activating Groups:
D. -NH2 (Amino group): This group is a strong activating substituent due to its ability to donate electron density to the benzene ring through resonance, significantly increasing the reactivity of the ring towards electrophiles.

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of the reaction of benzene with CH3CI and AICI3?
A. toluene
B. isopropyl benzene
C. o-xylene
D. p-xylene

A

B. isopropyl benzene

This compound (also known as cumene) cannot be formed from the reaction of benzene with CH₃Cl and AlCl₃ because it would require the introduction of a propyl group rather than a methyl group.

110
Q

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because they have a/an
A. nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group
B. nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group
C. electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group
D. electrophilic carbon and a poor leaving group

A

C. electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group

111
Q

SN2 means
A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide
D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile

A

B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

112
Q

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions?
A. CH3X
B. (CH3)2CHX
C. (CH3)3CX
D. (CH3)3CCH2X

A

B. (CH3)2CHX

A. CH₃X: This is a primary alkyl halide, which can undergo SN2 but not SN1 due to lack of carbocation stability.
C. (CH₃)₃CX: This is a tertiary alkyl halide that primarily undergoes SN1 and does not undergo SN2 due to steric hindrance.
D. (CH₃)₃CCH₂X: This secondary alkyl halide can also undergo both mechanisms but is less common as the carbocation is stabilized by the tertiary group.

113
Q

What of the following reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent?
A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
B. SN1 reactions
C. None of the given choices
D. SN2 reactions

A

D. SN2 reactions

114
Q

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
A. CH3CH2CH3
B. CH3OCH2CH3
C. CH3COCH3
D. CHCH2CH2OH

A

D. CHCH2CH2OH

The correct answer should actually be D. CH₃CH₂CH₂OH (1-Propanol) due to the strong hydrogen bonding it can form, which is generally stronger than the dipole-dipole interactions in acetone (letter C)

115
Q

Which of the following reactions will NOT produce aldehydes?
A. ozonolysis of alkenes
B. hydration of alkynes
C. oxidation of primary alcohols
D. oxidation of secondary alcohols

A

D. oxidation of secondary alcohols

This will produce ketones.

116
Q

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which class of organic compounds?
A. alkynes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. carboxylic acids

A

D. carboxylic acids

117
Q

Which reaction could occur between acetic acid and ethanol?
A. addition
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. oxidation

A

B. esterification

118
Q

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between phenol and carboxylic acid?
A. aqueous NaCl
B. aqueous NaOH
C. aqueous FeCl3
D. Tollens reagent

A

C. aqueous FeCl3

119
Q

A series of reference standards solutions that have known and accurate pH values at different
temperatures used for pH meter calibration.
a. Buffer Solutions
b. QC Solutions
c. pH solutions
d. None of the above.

A

a. Buffer Solutions

120
Q

Type of quality-control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the
performance of an analytical method
a. Matrix Duplicate
b. Matrix Spike
c. Method Blank
d. Reagent Blank

A

b. Matrix Spike

121
Q

Component of error which, in the course of a number of analyses of the same measurand, remains
constant or varies in a predictable way.
a. Random Error
b. Analyst’s Error
c. Systematic Error
d. Uncertainty

A

c. Systematic Error

122
Q

Reliability of the results decreases with a decrease in the level or concentration of the:
a. matrix
b. analyte
c. reactant
d. product

A

b. analyte

123
Q

Properties of nitric acid making it the preferred acid for digesting samples for the analysis of
metals.
a. acts as a strong acid
b. as an oxidizing agent
c. does not form insoluble compounds with metals/nonmetals
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

124
Q

Requirements of a primary standard.
a. High Purity, 99.9% or better
b. Stability in air
c. Absence of hydrate water
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

125
Q

Which of the following is not a common method used for purification?
a. Sublimation
b. Crystallisation
c. Electrolysis
d. Chromatography

A

c. Electrolysis

126
Q

The solution of impure compound and solvent is concentrated to get ____________
a. Unsaturated solution
b. Undersaturated solution
c. Saturated solution
d. Oversaturated solution

A

c. Saturated solution

127
Q

Which of the following is not separated through distillation process?
a. Acetone and water
b. Aniline and chloroform
c. Impurities in seawater
d. Milk and water

A

d. Milk and water

Distillation is a process that separates components in a mixture based on their different boiling points. It works well for substances that are miscible liquids or liquid mixtures containing volatile and non-volatile components.

a. Acetone and water: Can be separated by distillation because acetone has a much lower boiling point (56°C) than water (100°C).

b. Aniline and chloroform: Can be separated by distillation as they have significantly different boiling points (aniline: 184°C, chloroform: 61°C).

c. Impurities in seawater: Distillation can be used to separate water from dissolved salts and impurities by vaporizing the water and condensing it, leaving the impurities behind.

d. Milk and water: Cannot be separated by distillation because milk is not a simple liquid mixture; it is an emulsion containing fats, proteins, and water. When heated, milk components would break down, and separation via distillation would not be feasible.

128
Q

Column chromatography is based on the principle of _______________ (this question appeared
twice)
a. Ion-exchange
b. Exclusion principle
c. Differential adsorption
d. Absorption

A

c. Differential adsorption

129
Q

Select the correct statement from the following options.
a. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
b. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
d. All of the mentioned option

A

c. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

130
Q

The principle on which thin layer chromatography is based is that the ____________
a. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees
b. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees
c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees
d. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees

A

c. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees

131
Q

Which type of chromatography is used for the structural analysis?
a. Column chromatography
b. Paper chromatography
c. Partition chromatography
d. Affinity chromatography

A

b. Paper chromatography

132
Q

The quantitative analysis is done using ____________
a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. Thin layer chromatography
c. Gas chromatography
d. Liquid chromatography

A

c. Gas chromatography

a. Ion exchange chromatography: Primarily used for separating and purifying ions and polar molecules based on their affinity to the ion exchange resin. It’s not typically used for quantitative analysis.

b. Thin layer chromatography (TLC): A qualitative technique used for separating mixtures, but it can also be used for semi-quantitative analysis. However, it’s less precise than other methods for quantitative analysis.

c. Gas chromatography (GC): Highly suitable for quantitative analysis because it allows for precise measurement of the concentration of volatile compounds in a sample. It provides high resolution and sensitivity, making it ideal for determining the amounts of components in a mixture.

d. Liquid chromatography (LC): While also capable of quantitative analysis, it can be less effective for certain applications compared to gas chromatography, particularly for volatile substances.

133
Q

The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is called ____________
a. Melting point of liquid
b. Freezing point of liquid
c. Freezing point of solid
d. All of the mentioned

A

b. Freezing point of liquid

134
Q

Select the correct statement from the following option.

a. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods
b. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods
c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods
d. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods

A

c. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods

135
Q

This type of glass is commonly used for laboratory glassware.
a. Amber
b. Quartz
c. Fused silica
d. Borosilicate

A

d. Borosilicate

136
Q

Why is there a need to separate halogenated waste from non-halogenated waste?

a. Halogenated waste disposal is more costly.
b. Non-halogenated wastes are more toxic.
c. They are not compatible.
d. They will react

A

a. Halogenated waste disposal is more costly.

137
Q

Which of the following can be disposed down the drain?
a. 1 g/L PCl5
b. 1 M H2SO4
c. 200 g/L PCl5
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

a. 1 g/L PCl5 (Phosphorus pentachloride): This compound is a hazardous material and can produce toxic gases when reacting with water. Therefore, it should not be disposed of down the drain.

b. 1 M H2SO4 (Sulfuric acid): This is a strong acid and poses significant hazards, including corrosivity and the potential to cause damage to plumbing and the environment. It should not be disposed of down the drain.

c. 200 g/L PCl5: This concentration of phosphorus pentachloride is even more hazardous than the 1 g/L solution and should not be disposed of down the drain for the same reasons.

138
Q

As P increase while T drops, intermolecular forces are evident, what is applicable?

a. Ideal gas is still in effect
b. Ideal gas must be replaced by van der waals
c. No change

A

b. Ideal gas must be replaced by van der waals

139
Q

What compound is possibly shown in an infrared spectrum which has peaks of 3000 cm-1
and
1650 cm-1
a. Cyclohexane
b. Benzene
c. Acetone
d. Cyclohexene

A

d. Cyclohexene

140
Q

Solutions of metals and salts are ______
a. Insulator
b. Conductor
c. Polar
d. Negative

A

b. Conductor

141
Q

Which of the ff requires the most energy for electronic transition?
A. Alkyl halides
B. Alkanes
C. Carbonyl compounds
D. Carboxylic compounds

A

C. Carbonyl compounds

142
Q

The gas-solid chromatography is ____________ chromatography as per basic principle involved
a. Exclusion
b. Ion exchange
c. Adsorption
d. Absorption

A

c. Adsorption

143
Q
  1. Dipole–dipole interactions are present in _____.
    A. HCl B. C6H6 C. CH4 D. NaCl
A

A. HCl

HCl is a polar molecule, which means it has a positive and a negative end, allowing for dipole–dipole interactions. The other options are either nonpolar (C6H6, CH4) or ionic (NaCl), which does not exhibit dipole–dipole interactions in the same way.

144
Q

A compound having a permanent dipole moment is _____.
A. CO2 B. H2 C. CH4 D. CO

A

D. CO

145
Q
A

Chemical Technician (5 decks)

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