Mixed Flashcards

1
Q

Elevation is which ECG leads indicates an MI on the anterior, septal, lateral or inferior surfaces of the heart?

A

Anterior: V1-6
Inferior: II, III, aVF
Lateral: I, aVL,
Septal: V2-4

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2
Q

Which medication improves survival in congestive heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitors (lisinopril)

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3
Q

What is the first assessment done of an acutely unwell patient?

A

ABCDE

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4
Q

What is the best blood to be given to increase clotting when the liver is damaged?

A

Fresh frozen plasma - contains all the clotting factors

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5
Q

What acutely reverses the effect of warfarin (when fit K ineffective)?

A

PCC (prothrombin clotting complex)

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6
Q

Which parts of the respiratory tree have no cartilage?

A

Bronchioles + alveoli

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7
Q

What are the palpable components of the larynx?

A

Hyoid, cricoid, thyroid

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8
Q

What is the blood supply to the diaphragm?

A

Branches of thoracic aorta

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9
Q

What is the management of oesophagitis?

A

PPI (omeprazole)

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10
Q

What is ranitidine used to treat?

A

Stomach/intestinal ulcers,

GORD

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11
Q

What is used to treat benign oesophageal strictures?

A

Dilation of oesophagus (prevent the symptom of dysphagia) - balloon dilation

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12
Q

What is the permanent treatment of achalasia if young and fit?

A

Myotomy (Hellers cardiomyotomy)

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13
Q

What is the first line management of ascites?

A

Paracentesis (first line relief), then medicinal management (spironolactone)

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14
Q

What is the treatment for primary biliary cirrhosis and auto-immune hepatitis?

A

PBC: urseodeoxycholic acid

Auto-immune: prednisolone

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15
Q

What investigation is done for norovirus?

A

PCR (as is a virus)

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16
Q

What investigation is done for diarrhoea of bacterial source (inc food poisoning)?

A

Stool culture

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17
Q

Which form on influenza causes pandemics?

A

Influenza A

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18
Q

How is coeliac screened for and diagnosed?

A

Screening: TTG (tissue transglutaminase)
Diagnosis: duodenal biopsy

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19
Q

What is macrocytic anaemia and what test is used to diagnose it?

A

Not enough haemoglobin in the blood due to decreased blood cells (large red blood cells)
Diagnosis: Schillings test

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20
Q

What antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Ciproflaxacin

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21
Q

What factor other than weight is a the best predictor of CVS risk?

A

Waist circumference

Indicates visceral fat

22
Q

What is the MUAC (mid upper arm circumference) used to indicate?

A

BMI (malnutrition)

23
Q

How many pulmonary arteries and veins are there passing through the hilum?

A

1 pulmonary artery

2 pulmonary veins

24
Q

What separates the lobes of the lungs?

A

Infolding of VISCERAL pleura

25
Q

What bones form the nasal septum?

A

Vomer bone + perpendicular bone of ethmoid

26
Q

Which bone of the skull do 2 of the muscles of mastication attach to?

A

Sphenoid bone

Lateral (open) and medial (close) pterygoid

27
Q

Which bacterium is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter

28
Q

What is meckels and how can it present?

A

Congenital diverticulum

Presents in young patients - can be as malaena

29
Q

Which blood test indicates sickle cell anaemia?

A

Full blood count

30
Q

What investigation shows emboli in intestinal arteries?

A

CT angiography

31
Q

What is the cause of most congenital abnormalities?

A

Unknown

32
Q

How is type 1 or type 2 respiratory failure identified?

A

ABGs

33
Q

What is the somatic sensory and the somatic motor innervation of the face?

A

Somatosensory: Trigeminal nerve
Somatomotor: Facial nerve

34
Q

What is the most inferior bilateral branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

Gonadal = L2

L1: SMA, L1-2: renal, L2: gonadal, L3: IMA, L4: aortic bifurcation

35
Q

What white blood cells are present in rash?

A

Is an allergic reaction so eosinophils/basophils

36
Q

What white blood cells are present in bacterial and viral infections?

A

Bacterial: neutrophils
Viral: lymphocytes

37
Q

What is the process for translation of an ECG?

A
  1. Name and DOB
  2. Time taken
  3. Calibration (25mm/sec, 1cm/mV)
  4. Axis
  5. Rhythm strip
    a) electrical activity present
    b) Regular/irregular
    c) HR
    d) P waves present
    e) PR interval 0.12-0.2ms
    f) QRS complexes present
    g) QRS <3 boxes
  6. ST elevation or T wave depression
38
Q

If Gamma GT is raised alone what can this be due to?

A

Alcohol

39
Q

What can raise ALP?

A

Vit D deficiency,
Bone disorders (mets),
Pregnancy,
Biliary tree damage

40
Q

Which clinical sign can pulmonary hypertension cause?

A

Elevated JVP

41
Q

What murmur is associated with a ventral septal defect?

A

Pansystolic murmur (the quieter the murmur the larger the defect)

42
Q

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome of adenocarcinoma in the lung?

A

Gynaecomastia

43
Q

What type of lung cancer causes hypercalcaemia?

A

SCC

44
Q

Which type of lung cancer causes Lambert-Eaton myasthenia syndrome?

A

Small cell carcinoma

45
Q

What symptoms (2) are associated with right sided heart failure?

A

JVP and ankle oedema

46
Q

What is the symptom of pulmonary oedema?

A

Breathlessness when lying flat

47
Q

What is the CXR sign of a pleural effusion?

A

Blunting of the costophrenic recess

48
Q

How is the axis determined from an ECG?

A

NORMAL: II is the most upright QRS
RIGHT: III = up, I = -ve (RVH)
LEFT: I = up, II/III = -ve

49
Q

What antibodies are detected in primary biliary cirrhosis and auto-immune hepatitis?

A

PBC: AMA (anti mitochondrial antibodies)
AIH: ASMA (anti smooth muscle antibodies)

50
Q

Heart failure on which side causes ankle oedema and which side causes pulmonary oedema?

A

Right heart failure = ankle oedema

Left heart failure = pulmonary oedema

51
Q

Of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation, which causes erection and which causes ejaculation?

A

Erection: parasympathetic
Ejaculation: sympathetic