Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 > Mixed 2 > Flashcards

Mixed 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Clinical features of somatic symptom disorder?

A

1+ somatic symptoms causing distress and functional impairment
Excessive thoughts or behaviors related to somatic symptoms
-Unwarranted, persistent thoughts about seriousness of symptoms
-Persistent anxiety about health or symptoms
-Excessive time and energy devoted to symptoms
For 6+ months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management of somatic symptom disorder?

A

Regularly scheduled visits with the same provider
Limit unnecessary work-up and specialist referrals
Legitimize symptoms but make functional improvement the goal
Focus on stress reduction and improving coping strategies
Mental health referral if patient will accept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the components of HELLP syndrome?

A

Clinical features: preeclampsia, N/V, RUQ pain

Lab findings:
Hemolysis (->microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)
Elevated liver enzymes
Low platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes HELLP syndrome?

A

Abnormal placentation triggers systemic inflammation and activation of the coagulation system and complement cascade

Circulating platelets are rapidly consumed and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is particularly detrimental to the liver, increases bilirubin production

Resulting hepatocellular necrosis and thrombi in the portal system cause elevated liver enzymes, liver swelling, and distention of the hepatic capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rx HELLP syndrome?

A

Stabilize the patient with magnesium for seizure prophylaxis and antihypertensive drugs
Delivery - only definitive treatment (should occur promptly at 34+ weeks or any gestational age with abnormal fetal testing or severe or worsening maternal status)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the most common intra-abdominal organ injuries due to blunt abdominal trauma (BAT)?

A

Hepatic and splenic lacerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presentation fo splenic injury?

A

Abdominal pain, tachycardia, left chest wall and shoulder pain without evidence of abnormalities of the shoulder (likely referred pain due to phrenic nerve irritation from splenic hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Next step in evaluation in the setting of suspected splenic injury from blunt trauma?

A

FAST (focused assessment with sonography for trauma) to identify signs of hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of trauma patients?

A

Evaluate for cardiorespiratory stability
Have the spine immobilized until spinal injury has been ruled out
Establish adequate peripheral IV access (additional IV access such as a femoral line is not required in hemodynamically stable patients)
Focused neuro exam
Urinary catheter (in the absence of obvious pelvic injury and blood at the urethral meatus)
Imaging
Surgical intervention if acute cord compression with neuro defects or unstable vertebral fracture/disolcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of placing a urinary catheter in patients with traumatic spinal cord injuries?

A

Assess for urinary retention and prevent acute bladder distention and damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ is indicated for symptomatic bradycardia (lightheadedness, presyncope, syncope).

A

IV atropine or external pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ is commonly used for antimicrobial prophylaxis before surgery to prevent wound infections and is usually given within 60 minutes of the procedure.

A

IV cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common behavioral risk factor for TB?

A

Substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Presentation of reactivation TB?

A

Slowly worsening subacute or chronic symptoms that may go unrecognized for months

Low-grade fever, fatigue, mild cough (prominent in the morning due to pooling of secretions overnight) - initial symptoms

Weight loss, chest pain, dyspnea - progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why does M. tuberculosis preferentially infect the lung apices?

A

High oxygen tensions and slower lymphatic elimination (allowing for organism accumulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cause of primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Excessive prostaglandin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risk factors for primary dysmenorrhea?

A 
<30 y/o
BMI <20
Tobacco use
Menarche at age <12
Heavy/long periods
Sexual abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Clinical features of primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Pain first 2-3 days of menses
N/V, diarrhea
Normal pelvic exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of primary dysmenorrhea?

A

NSAIDs

Combined OCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Presentation of endometriosis in adolescents?

A

Pain begins a few days prior and persists throughout the entire menstrual cycle

Uterosacral ligament tenderness
Cul-de-sac nodularity
Adnexal enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is salvage therapy?

A

Treatment for a disease when a standard treatment fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

___ therapy is defined as treatment given in addition to standard therapy.

A

Adjuvant (radiation therapy + radical prostatectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___ therapy is typically given after induction therapy with multidrug regimens to further reduce tumor burden.

A

Consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

___ therapy is an initial dose of treatment to rapidly kill tumor cells and send the patient into remission (<5% tumor burden).

A

Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

___ therapy is usually given after induction and consolidation therapies (or initial standard therapy) to kill any residual tumor cells and keep the patient in remission.

A

Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

___ therapy is defined as treatment given before the standard therapy for a pparticular disease.

A

Neoadjuvant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical presentation of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Temperature >100 F
Abdominal pain/tenderness
Altered mental status (abnormal connect-the-numbers test)
Hypotension, hypothermia, paralytic ileus with severe infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diagnosis of SBP from ascitic fluid?

A

PMNS 250/mm^3 or more
Positive culture (often GN like E. coli, Klebsiella)
Protein <1 g/dL
SAAG 1.1+ g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rx spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Empiric - third generation cephalosporins

FQs for prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Clinical features of acute post-streptococcal GN?

A 
Can be asymptomatic
If symptomatic:
-Gross hematuria (tea- or cola-colored urine)
-Edema (periorbital, generalized)
-HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Lab findings in acute post-streptococcal GN?

A 
UA: +protein, +blood, +/- RBC casts
Serum:
-Decreased C3, possible decreased C4
-Increased serum Cr
-Increased anti-DNase B and AHase
-Increased ASO and anti-NAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the pathophysiology of acute post-streptococcal GN?

A

Antigens on specific nephritogenic strains of GAS form immune complexes that are then deposited within the glomerular basement membrane. Following deposition, the complement system is activated, leading to accumulation of C3 in the glomerular deposits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Timing of acute post-streptococcal GN?

A

1-4 weeks after GAS impetigo or pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or false? Treatment of initial GAS infection prevents acute post-strep GN.

A

False - this does not appear to be the case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Rx APSGN?

A

Supportive (symptoms typically resolve within weeks, labs take months to normalize)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

___ typically presents with hematuria 1-2 days after the onset of a URI and serum complement levels are normal.

A

IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Clinical features of tardive dyskinesia?

A

Abnormal involuntary movements due to prolonged use of antipsychotics or metoclopramide

  • Orofacial dyskinesia (tongue protrusion, lip smacking, grimacing)
  • Limb dyskinesia (dystonic postures, foot tapping, chorea)
  • Trunk dyskinesia (rocking, thrusting, shoulder shrugging)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management of tardive dyskinesia?

A

Discontinue causative medication if feasible
Switch to 2nd generation antipsychotic (quetiapine, clozapine) if continued antipsychotic is required
Treat with valbenazine or deutetrabenazie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MOA of valbenazine/deutetrabenazie?

A

Reversible inhibitors of the vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2)

40
Q

Rx EPS (dystonia, parkinsonism, akathsia)?

A

Anticholinergics or (if akathisia) beta blockers

41
Q

Rx akathisia (subjective sense of restlessness)?

A

Propranolol (beta-blocker)

42
Q

DDx - stridor?

A

Acute:

  • Croup
  • Foreign body aspiration

Chronic:

  • Laryngomalacia
  • Vascular ring
43
Q

Presentation of croup?

A

Barky cough, inspiratory stridor, fever, rhinorrhea, congestion

44
Q

Presentation of foreign body aspiration?

A

Acute onset of inspiratory stridor and/or wheeze without infectious symptom

45
Q

Presentation of laryngomalacia?

A

Inspiratory stridor, worse when supine, improves when prone

46
Q

Presentation of vascular ring?

A

Biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension (decreases tracheal compression); may also present with esophageal symptoms

Patients <1 y/o

47
Q

Pathophysiology of vascular rings/slings?

A

Abnormal development of the aortic arch, causing tracheal, bronchial, and/or esophageal compression

Can be either complete or incomplete

48
Q

Up to 50% of patients with a vascular ring also have ___.

A

A cardiac anomaly (VSD, tetralogy, etc.)

49
Q

Pathophysiology of laryngomalacia?

A

Collapse of the supraglottic structures during inspiration

50
Q

The majority of clavicular fractures occur in what part of the bone? When does it classically occur?

A

Middle third; during athletic events, follows a fall on an outstretched arm or a direct blow to the shoulder

51
Q

Presentation of clavicular fracture?

A

Pain and immobility of the affected arm
Contralateral hand is used to support the weight of the affected arm
Affected shoulder is displaced inferiorly and posteriorly

52
Q

A careful neurovascular exam should accompany all fractures to the clavicle due to its proximity to the ___ and ___.

A

Subclavian artery; brachial plexus

53
Q

Management of fractures of the middle third of the clavicle?

A

Non-operative treatment with a brace, rest, and ice

54
Q

Management of fractures of the distal third of the clavicle?

A

Open reduction and internal fixation to prevent nonunion

55
Q

In treating SLE, cyclophosphamide is reserved for patients with what complications?

A

Significant renal or CNS problems

56
Q

Serious side effects of cyclophosphamide?

A

Acute hemorrhagic cystitis
Bladder carcinoma
Sterility
Myelosuppression

57
Q

Cause of hemorrhagic cystitis and bladder cancer 2/2 cyclophosphamide?

A

Acrolein, a bladder-toxic metabolite

58
Q

Prevent bladder-related complications of cyclophosphamide?

A

Fluids
Void frequently
Take MESNA

59
Q

Cochlear dysfunction is a side effect of what 3 medications (2 chemo, 1 antibiotic)?

A

Cisplatin and carboplatin

AGs

60
Q

What 2 medications have been implicated in causing optic neuritis?

A

Ethambutol

Hyroxychloroquine

61
Q

What are 5 toxic causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A 
Phenytoin
Isoniazid
Vincristine
Heavy metals
Chronic alcohol use
62
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon may be caused by what 2 medications?

A

Beta-blockers

Ergotamine

63
Q

What 2 medications are associated with thyroid dysfunction?

A

Amiodarone

Lithium

64
Q

Gout is a side effect of what 1 medication?

A

Cyclosporine

65
Q

Diagnostic procedure of choice for pregnant patients presenting with renal colic?

A

Renal and pelvic U/S

66
Q

First-line treatment for school-age children with ADHD?

A

Stimulant methylphenidate

67
Q

3 common side effects of methylphenidate?

A

Decreased appetite
Weight loss
Insomnia

68
Q

Manage mild reduction in appetite due to stimulants?

A

Encourage child to eat favorite nutrient-dense foods

Take medication after meals

Monitor weight

69
Q

What is the algorithm for work-up of a palpable breast mass in women <30?

A

U/S +/- mammogram

  • If simple cyst -> needle aspiration if the patient desires/if symptomatic -> return in 2-4 months for follow-up breast exam, as cystic fluid can reaccumulate
  • If complex cyst/mass (solid mass) -> image-guided core biopsy
70
Q

What is the algorithm for work-up of a palpable breast mass in women 30+?

A

Mammogram +/- U/S

If suspicious for malignancy -> core biopsy

71
Q

Posterior acoustic enhancement on U/S indicates ___.

A

Fluid

72
Q

When is breast MRI indicated?

A

In patients with known cancer to evaluate for disease recurrence and to screen for breast cancer in high-risk patients (BRCA carrier, first-degree relative of known BRCA carrier)

73
Q

Why is screening mammography in women <30 generally not recommended?

A

The relatively dense breast tissue may impede adequate visualization of any masses present. Radiation exposure from mammography is a potential risk factor for breast cancer in young women.

74
Q

What two general types of murmurs are usually due to an underlying pathologic cause?

A

Diastolic

Continuous

75
Q

Diastolic and continuous murmurs should prompt further evaluation with ___.

A

TTE (valvular regurgitation, associated structural abnormalities, hemodynamic consequences)

76
Q

Describe the murmur heard in aortic regurgitation (timing, quality, location, position)

A

Timing: early decrescendo diastolic murmur immediately after A2
Quality: high-pitched, blowing
Location: left sternal border at the 3rd and 4th spaces
Position: sitting up and leaning forward while holding breath in full expiration

77
Q

___ is a useful screening test in patients with an intermediate probability of coronary heart disease.

A

Exercise EKG

78
Q

___ is a non-invasive method to assess coronary artery calcification and intraluminal stenosis in patients with suspected coronary heart disease.

A

Coronary CT angiography

79
Q

What type of murmur can be detected occasionally in young, asymptomatic adults and is usually benign when asymptomatic/no other abnormal findings?

A

Midsystolic murmur

80
Q

Maternal risk factors for SIDS?

A

Smoking during or after pregnancy
Maternal age <20
Inconsistent prenatal care

81
Q

Infant risk factors for SIDS?

A 
Prone/side sleep position
Soft sleep surface, loose bedding
Bed-sharing
Prematurity
Sibling with SIDS
82
Q

Prevention of SIDS?

A 
Smoke avoidance during and after pregnancy
Routine prenatal care
Supine sleep position
Firm sleep surface
Room-sharing
Pacifier use
83
Q

In patients unable to maintain adequate oxygen saturations, ___ should be initiated.

A

Bag-valve-mask ventilation (BVM) with 100% oxygen (goal O2 sat 88+%)

84
Q

If BVM does not result in adequate oxygenation (i.e., oxygen saturation remains low), ___ should be attempted.

A

Endotracheal intubation using a video laryngoscope (to facilitate direct visualization of the peiglottis)

85
Q

Given the risk of rapid respiratory deterioration, failure of a single attempt at endotracheal intubation with a video laryngoscope should immediately prompt ___.

A

Establishment of a surgical cricothyrotomy by the most experienced provider available

86
Q

Patients with epiglottitis who develop rapid-onset respiratory failure (eg, tripod position, hypoxia, drooling, tachypnea) require urgent ___.

A

Airway management

87
Q

Presentation - recurrent PUD with multiple ulcers and jejunal ulceration

List some other presenting features

A

Gastrinoma aka Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

  • Age 20-50
  • Dyspepsia, reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, weight loss, diarrhea, frank GI bleeding
88
Q

ZES is usually sporadic, but may be found in conjunction with ___ in 20% of cases.

A

MEN1

89
Q

Endoscopy findings in ZES?

A

Thickened gastric folds
Multiple peptic ulcers
Refractory ulcers despite PPI use
Ulcers in the jejunum (suggesting excess gastric acid that cannot be fully neutralized in the duodenum)

90
Q

When gastrinoma is suspected, what is the first step in work-up?

A

Endoscopy

91
Q

If endoscopy suggests gastrinomy, what is the next step?

A

Check serum gastrin level off PPI therapy for 1 week

92
Q

Next steps based on various serum gastrin levels?

A

<110 pg/mL - no gastrinoma
>1000 pg/mL - check gastric pH off PPI therapy for 1 week - if >4, no gastrinoma. If 4 or less, further testing to localize gastrinoma
110-1000 pg/mL - secretin stimulation test - if positive -> further testing to localize. If negative - no gastrinoma

93
Q

Why should gastric pH also be checked if gastrin is elevated?

A

Could be elevated due to failure of gastric acid secretion (achlorhydria)

94
Q

What does a secretin stimulation test indicate?

A

Secretin stimulates the release of gastrin by gastrinoma cells. Normal gastric G cells are inhibited by secretin. Therefore, secretin administration should not cause a rise in serum gastrin concentrations in patients with other causes of hypergastrinemia

95
Q

Who should get a calcium infusion study?

A

Patients who have gastric acid hypersecretion and are strongly suspected of having gastrinoma despite a negative secretin test

96
Q

___ is a marker for well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumors and is elevated in several conditions such as carcinoid tumors, hyperthyroidism, chronic atrophic gastritis, and even chronic PPI therapy.

A

Serum chromogranin

97
Q

___ is an autoimmune disorder of childhood marked by symmetric arthritis of 5+ joints of the upper and lower extremities.

A

Polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Step 2 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions