mistakes from MCQ questions Flashcards
types of G alpha s receptor
B1 B2 B3 adrenoreceptors
glucagon
types of G alpha i receptor
M2, M4 ACh
a2 adrenoreceptor
signalling pathway of M2 and M4 adrenoreceptors
G alpha i
effect of alpha 2 adrenoreceptor
vasonconstriction
G alpah i signnlaing
effect of B1 adrenoreceptors
increased heart rate and bp
effect of M2 Ach receptors
decreased heart rate
effect of BNP on GFR
increases GFR
importance of neuropathic activity causing change in electrical activity of peripheral neurons
facilitates sub-threshold depolarisation
why are gamma waves used for radiotherapy
shortest
generate free-radical s
what is flow cytometry commonly used for
identification of the presence of antigens either on the surface of or within cells.
where does M3 ACh receptor have its effects
bladder detrusor muscle
M3 Ach receptor antagonist causes
relaxation of bladder detrusor muscle
storage of urine
what is GLUT2 and where is it found
glucose transporter
found on membranes of pancreatic B cells
role of GLUT2
uptake of glucose into pancreatic B cells
hedgehog signalling is important for…
embryonic patterning
limb development
what releases CRP
liver
which phase of clincial trials checks safety of drug
phase 1
which cyclin activates CDK2
cyclin E
uptake of dye indicates which killing pathway
necrosis
which currents explain difference in size and duration of skeletal and non-pacemaker APs in the heart
inward long-lasting Ca2+ channels
ischaemia is caused by
decrease in oxygen therfore decrease in ATP
which type of AP has very rapid depolarisation phase (phase 0)
non-pacemaker
which type of AP spontaneously depolarises
pacemaker
which artery is most frequently occluded in stroke patients
middle cerebral artery (MCA)
what increases stickiness of RBC
increase in fibrinogen conc
what increased ESR
increased rate of settlement of RBC due to increased stickiness
fibrinogen
what brings about sweating in sympathetic response
muscarinic ACh receptors
role of N antigen
facilitates release of virions from infected cells
what initiates skeletal myofibre contraction
release of Ca2+ from SR
Ca2+ is released from SR to initiate contraction, what does it bind to
troponin C
classification for viruses
baltimore
how are viruses classified
according to their method of viral mRNA synthesis
which group of viruses mutates more frequently
group VI
describe features of pre-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
long
releases Ach
describes features or sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron
long releases NA
effect of K+ conc on aldosterone release
increase in K+ conc causes increase in aldosterone release
effect of aldosterone release on K+ excretion
increase of aldosterone (acts on DCT)causes increase in K+ excretion
effect of myostatin on sarcopenia
increased myostatin increases sarcopenia
define sarcopenia
skeletal muscle loss and weakness
effect of defects/blockade in tuberofundibular dopaminergic pathway
increase serum prolactin
what does ST phase represent
ECG
time between ventricle depolarisation and repolarisation
where do you see neuronal degeneration in parkinsons
substantia nigra
when type of infection would show low gluocose in CSF analysis
bacterial
fungal
increased lymphocytes in CSF shows
viral or fungal infection
bacterial infection CSF analysis
low glucose
high neutrophils
effect of inhibitiing thromboxane synthase
decrease risk of clotting
what is MMP
matrix metalloproteinase
allows migration through ECM into surrounding tissue
MMP inhibitors
reduce metastasis
where are drugs broken down/metabolised
liver
where are DHP receptors found
sarcolemma
what are DHP receptors
voltage-gated calcium channels
role of factor VIII
co-factor
activates factor X
allows entrance into common pathway
what is the last step of the intrinsic clotting cascade
before it becomes common
co-factor VIII activates factor X
role of CDK4 and CDK6
phosphorylates targets e.g. Rb that allow cell cycle progression
where is aldosterone produced
adrenal cortex
mechanism of B-lactam antibiotics
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
what drugs do drug-eluting stents release
immunosuppressants
drugs released slowly that block cell proliferation
cause of ARVC
faulty gene expression in genes coding for desmosomes of cardiomyocytes
component of cardiomyocyte affected in ARVC
desmosomes
feature of macula lutea
part of retina
abundance of cone cells
lmitation of csf analysis
speed
role of DOPA-decarboxylase inhibitor
prevents breakdown of L-DOPA to dopamine in the periphery
role of waxy drug coating
reduces adverse side effects
delays drug release until reaches target site
where does protein folding occur
endoplasmic reticulum
role of renin
restores blood volume
inreases blood pressure
increases cardiac output
role of troponin I
cardiac biomarker
myocardial infarction
what stimulates angiogenesis
decrease in O2 conc.
role of angiogenesis
resotre lbood supply
B3 adrenergci agonist
relaxes bladder detrusor muscle
NAAPH oxidase
catalyses generation of superoxide anions in oxidative stress
iodine deficiency
causes elevated TSH levels
‘Derbyshire neck’
DNA methylation
epigenetic modification
suppresses transcription
switches off genes
pressure on medulla oblongata
depression of breathin
what makes tumours resistant to radiotherapy
hypoxia
CD28
naive t cell antigen
required for co-stimulation
what allows cardiomyocytes to contract as a synctium
intercalated disks
gap junctions form pores
cytoplasm is shared between cells
features of a drug suitable for transdermal (skin) absorption
small molecular size
high lipid solubility
what component of the acrdiomyocytes are affected in HCM
sarcomeres
why are nitrites found in urine of UTI patients
bacteria in urine converts nitrates to nitrites
damage to sacral nerve in spina bifida patietns causes
urinary incontinene
what type of receptor is EPO
JAK/STAT
feature of case-control study
cases and controls are matched in a demographic manneer
what causes L-type Ca2+ voltage gated DHP channels to open
depolarisation of the sarcolemma
what causes ryanodine receptors on sarcoplasmic reticulum to open
mechanical coupling of Ca2+ to DHP receptor s
why might someone not get HCM symptoms till later in life
incomplete penetrance
age-related
what is tPA
tissue plasminogen activator
treatment of ischaemia
use of tPA to treat ischaemia
administer 3 hours after symptoms show
promotes break down of clot
use of cheng prusoff equation
converts IC50 to Ki constant
cause of increased excretion and increased thirst
inadequate ADH secretion (not enough water reabsorption)
GAP
GTPase Activating Protein
hydrolyses GTP to GDP
switches Ras off
3 steps for t cell activation
1 - MHC II of APC binds to T cell receptor
2 - APC releases cytokines
3 - co-stimulation
what happens if no-costimualtion step in t cell activation
cell enters anergy
anergy
cell is alive but functionally incapable of responding to an antigen
horizontal cells
provide lateral signallig between cells to decrease the electrical activity of the retina
what connect photoreceptor cells to bipolar cells
horizontal cells
junctions important in BBB
tight junctions
tight junctions in BBB
link brain endothelial cells together
connect them to astrocytes
where are squamous cell carcinomas found
stratum spinosum
ECL cells
release histamine when stimulated by gastrin
pelvic nerve
spinal nerve responsible for emptying/voiding the bladder
free-radicals in ageing
cause oxidation of macro-molecules
cause of myasthenia gravis
depletion of nicotinic ACh receptors
singlet oxygen
cytotoxic agent generated in PDT using 5-ALA photosensitiser
how do tumour cells metastise
adhere to and invade basement membrane by increasing MMP activity
