mistakes from MCQ questions Flashcards

1
Q

types of G alpha s receptor

A

B1 B2 B3 adrenoreceptors

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

types of G alpha i receptor

A

M2, M4 ACh

a2 adrenoreceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

signalling pathway of M2 and M4 adrenoreceptors

A

G alpha i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

effect of alpha 2 adrenoreceptor

A

vasonconstriction

G alpah i signnlaing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

effect of B1 adrenoreceptors

A

increased heart rate and bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

effect of M2 Ach receptors

A

decreased heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

effect of BNP on GFR

A

increases GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

importance of neuropathic activity causing change in electrical activity of peripheral neurons

A

facilitates sub-threshold depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why are gamma waves used for radiotherapy

A

shortest

generate free-radical s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is flow cytometry commonly used for

A

identification of the presence of antigens either on the surface of or within cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where does M3 ACh receptor have its effects

A

bladder detrusor muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

M3 Ach receptor antagonist causes

A

relaxation of bladder detrusor muscle

storage of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is GLUT2 and where is it found

A

glucose transporter

found on membranes of pancreatic B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

role of GLUT2

A

uptake of glucose into pancreatic B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

hedgehog signalling is important for…

A

embryonic patterning

limb development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what releases CRP

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which phase of clincial trials checks safety of drug

A

phase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which cyclin activates CDK2

A

cyclin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

uptake of dye indicates which killing pathway

A

necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which currents explain difference in size and duration of skeletal and non-pacemaker APs in the heart

A

inward long-lasting Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ischaemia is caused by

A

decrease in oxygen therfore decrease in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which type of AP has very rapid depolarisation phase (phase 0)

A

non-pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which type of AP spontaneously depolarises

A

pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which artery is most frequently occluded in stroke patients

A

middle cerebral artery (MCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what increases stickiness of RBC
increase in fibrinogen conc
26
what increased ESR
increased rate of settlement of RBC due to increased stickiness fibrinogen
27
what brings about sweating in sympathetic response
muscarinic ACh receptors
28
role of N antigen
facilitates release of virions from infected cells
29
what initiates skeletal myofibre contraction
release of Ca2+ from SR
30
Ca2+ is released from SR to initiate contraction, what does it bind to
troponin C
31
classification for viruses
baltimore
32
how are viruses classified
according to their method of viral mRNA synthesis
33
which group of viruses mutates more frequently
group VI
34
describe features of pre-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
long | releases Ach
35
describes features or sympathetic post-ganglionic neuron
long releases NA
36
effect of K+ conc on aldosterone release
increase in K+ conc causes increase in aldosterone release
37
effect of aldosterone release on K+ excretion
increase of aldosterone (acts on DCT)causes increase in K+ excretion
38
effect of myostatin on sarcopenia
increased myostatin increases sarcopenia
39
define sarcopenia
skeletal muscle loss and weakness
40
effect of defects/blockade in tuberofundibular dopaminergic pathway
increase serum prolactin
41
what does ST phase represent
ECG | time between ventricle depolarisation and repolarisation
42
where do you see neuronal degeneration in parkinsons
substantia nigra
43
when type of infection would show low gluocose in CSF analysis
bacterial | fungal
44
increased lymphocytes in CSF shows
viral or fungal infection
45
bacterial infection CSF analysis
low glucose | high neutrophils
46
effect of inhibitiing thromboxane synthase
decrease risk of clotting
47
what is MMP
matrix metalloproteinase | allows migration through ECM into surrounding tissue
48
MMP inhibitors
reduce metastasis
49
where are drugs broken down/metabolised
liver
50
where are DHP receptors found
sarcolemma
51
what are DHP receptors
voltage-gated calcium channels
52
role of factor VIII
co-factor activates factor X allows entrance into common pathway
53
what is the last step of the intrinsic clotting cascade | before it becomes common
co-factor VIII activates factor X
54
role of CDK4 and CDK6
phosphorylates targets e.g. Rb that allow cell cycle progression
55
where is aldosterone produced
adrenal cortex
56
mechanism of B-lactam antibiotics
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
57
what drugs do drug-eluting stents release
immunosuppressants drugs released slowly that block cell proliferation
58
cause of ARVC
faulty gene expression in genes coding for desmosomes of cardiomyocytes
59
component of cardiomyocyte affected in ARVC
desmosomes
60
feature of macula lutea
part of retina | abundance of cone cells
61
lmitation of csf analysis
speed
62
role of DOPA-decarboxylase inhibitor
prevents breakdown of L-DOPA to dopamine in the periphery
63
role of waxy drug coating
reduces adverse side effects | delays drug release until reaches target site
64
where does protein folding occur
endoplasmic reticulum
65
role of renin
restores blood volume inreases blood pressure increases cardiac output
66
role of troponin I
cardiac biomarker | myocardial infarction
67
what stimulates angiogenesis
decrease in O2 conc.
68
role of angiogenesis
resotre lbood supply
69
B3 adrenergci agonist
relaxes bladder detrusor muscle
70
NAAPH oxidase
catalyses generation of superoxide anions in oxidative stress
71
iodine deficiency
causes elevated TSH levels | 'Derbyshire neck'
72
DNA methylation
epigenetic modification suppresses transcription switches off genes
73
pressure on medulla oblongata
depression of breathin
74
what makes tumours resistant to radiotherapy
hypoxia
75
CD28
naive t cell antigen | required for co-stimulation
76
what allows cardiomyocytes to contract as a synctium
intercalated disks gap junctions form pores cytoplasm is shared between cells
77
features of a drug suitable for transdermal (skin) absorption
small molecular size | high lipid solubility
78
what component of the acrdiomyocytes are affected in HCM
sarcomeres
79
why are nitrites found in urine of UTI patients
bacteria in urine converts nitrates to nitrites
80
damage to sacral nerve in spina bifida patietns causes
urinary incontinene
81
what type of receptor is EPO
JAK/STAT
82
feature of case-control study
cases and controls are matched in a demographic manneer
83
what causes L-type Ca2+ voltage gated DHP channels to open
depolarisation of the sarcolemma
84
what causes ryanodine receptors on sarcoplasmic reticulum to open
mechanical coupling of Ca2+ to DHP receptor s
85
why might someone not get HCM symptoms till later in life
incomplete penetrance | age-related
86
what is tPA
tissue plasminogen activator | treatment of ischaemia
87
use of tPA to treat ischaemia
administer 3 hours after symptoms show | promotes break down of clot
88
use of cheng prusoff equation
converts IC50 to Ki constant
89
cause of increased excretion and increased thirst
inadequate ADH secretion (not enough water reabsorption)
90
GAP
GTPase Activating Protein hydrolyses GTP to GDP switches Ras off
91
3 steps for t cell activation
1 - MHC II of APC binds to T cell receptor 2 - APC releases cytokines 3 - co-stimulation
92
what happens if no-costimualtion step in t cell activation
cell enters anergy
93
anergy
cell is alive but functionally incapable of responding to an antigen
94
horizontal cells
provide lateral signallig between cells to decrease the electrical activity of the retina
95
what connect photoreceptor cells to bipolar cells
horizontal cells
96
junctions important in BBB
tight junctions
97
tight junctions in BBB
link brain endothelial cells together | connect them to astrocytes
98
where are squamous cell carcinomas found
stratum spinosum
99
ECL cells
release histamine when stimulated by gastrin
100
pelvic nerve
spinal nerve responsible for emptying/voiding the bladder
101
free-radicals in ageing
cause oxidation of macro-molecules
102
cause of myasthenia gravis
depletion of nicotinic ACh receptors
103
singlet oxygen
cytotoxic agent generated in PDT using 5-ALA photosensitiser
104
how do tumour cells metastise
adhere to and invade basement membrane by increasing MMP activity