Mission MQF

Question 1

The flight duty period (FDP) begins when an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission.
a. True
b. False

Answer 1

a. True (Reference: AFMAN 11-202 Vol. 3, Chapter 3.2.1)

Question 2

Electronic Flight Bags (EFB) are authorized for use in classified processing areas (CPA) of AFSOC buildings where classified or controlled unclassified information is processed stored, discussed or transmitted. Before entering and at all times while within a CPA, EFB users will:

Answer 2

a. Strictly comply with TEMPEST policies and guidelines as prescribed for that area
b. Set all wireless capabilities (e.g. Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, 3G/4G…etc) to the OFF position
c. The microphone and both front and back video cameras will remain turned OFF and physically covered at all times.
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above (Reference: Reference AFMAN 11-202 Vol. 3, AFSOC SUP, Attachment 12.4.2)

Question 3

Operations above ____ pounds require AFSOC/A3 approval.

Answer 3

c. 10,935 (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 5.1)

Question 4

During the preflight briefing, aircrew will determine communication requirements during mission planning to include:

Answer 4

a. Mission frequencies
b. Cryptological data
c. Mission radio configuration
d. Mission radio monitoring responsibilities
e. All of the above
Answer: e. All of the above (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 5.6)

Question 5

U-28s require an STS controller, LZSO, LZC, or an active control tower to conduct NVG landings at unlit or covertly marked landing zones or airfields.
a. True
b. False

Answer 5

a. True (Reference: AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol. 3, Chapter 5.7.7)

Question 6

Pilots will only conduct what type of landings on a semi-prepared surface?
a. Touch and Go
b. Stop and Go
c. Full Stop
d. A and C
e. B and C

Answer 6

e. B and C (Reference: AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol. 3, Chapter 5.7.8.2)

Question 7

Tactical LZ surveys may be used during exercises and operational missions when a full LZ survey is unavailable due to the situation.
a. True
b. False

Answer 7

a. True (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 5.9.4)

Question 8

When required for mission or operational requirements and approved by the unit commander, civilian clothing will consist of:

Answer 8

a. Cargo pants
b. Denim jean
c. Collared shirts
d. A and C
e. All of the above
Answer: d. A and C (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 6.1.2)

Question 9

Each pilot should preflight their own NVGs to the maximum extent possible.
a. True
b. False

Answer 9

a. True (Reference: AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol. 3, Chapter 6.2.8)

Question 10

Crews will utilize duckbutt support to the max extent possible when conduction transoceanic flights beyond power off gliding distance from land.
a. True
b. False

Answer 10

a. True (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 6.4.3)

Question 11

EFBs and accessories may be powered by aircraft 120V AC power outlets or mission system USB outlets.
a. True
b. False

Answer 11

b. False (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 6.5.3)

Question 12

Mission departures are considered “on time” if the aircraft is airborne no earlier than _ minutes prior or _
minutes after the scheduled takeoff time.

Answer 12

c. 30; 15 (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol. 3 Chapter 6.31)

Question 13

All U-28 variants are authorized to conduct AFSOC-termed Self-Contained Approaches for a specialized operational mission capability.
a. True
b. False

Answer 13

a. True (Reference AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol 3, Chapter 6.45)

Question 14

With proper coordination through command and control channels, U-28 crews are authorized to assist civilian law enforcement.
e. True
f. False

Answer 14

a. True (Reference: AFMAN11-2U-28 Vol. 3, Chapter 6.56.1)

Question 15

The CSO is required to ensure all classified equipment and papers are accounted for, secured or destroyed.
f. True
g. False

Answer 15

a. True (Reference: AFMAN 11-2U-28 Vol. 3, Chapter 11.4.4)

Question 16

Which annotation requires that ALL crewmembers listed must accomplish the checklist item?

Answer 16

a. (P, CP, CSO, TSO) (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Normal Procedures, page 2-1-1)

Question 17

A U-28 crew wishes to climb to altitude using the Vy climb schedule taking off from a 3,000ft airfield altitude. Assuming that AOA is not a factor, at 15,000ft they should be flying _ kts.

Answer 17

a. 115 (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Airspeeds For Normal Operations, paragraph 2.1.1)

Question 18

The U-28 aircraft is considered a ____ whenever SCI classified material is present.

Answer 18

d. Temporary Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Pilot Normal Procedures, page 2-2-9)

Question 19

Damage to the sensor and the aircraft will occur if the MTS-B is not stowed during extension or retraction.
a. True
b. False

Answer 19

a. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Pilot Normal Procedures, page 2-2-26)

Question 20

Network switch boot-up may take up to seven minutes. The computer will automatically detect when the switch is online and will ____ applicable programs. Do not open any programs prior to the switch coming online.

Answer 20

b. auto-start (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, paragraph 2.3.2)

Question 21

The C-band transmitter will be turned off for all airborne operations below _ AGL due to possible interference with the radar altimeter.

Answer 21

c. 3,000 feet (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, paragraph 2.3.3)

Question 22

During hot gas refueling operations, fueling will be conducted one wing at a time starting with the left hand side of the aircraft. After left side fueling is complete, the safety observer will escort fuel personnel to the right wing. Fueling personnel and safety observer will travel ____ the aircraft.

Answer 22

d. behind (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Chapter 2, Hot Gas, paragraph 2.5.3.2)

Question 23

During hot gas operations, the visual signal to execute aircraft emergency taxi is_. This signal will be given when an emergency occurs with the tanker or FARP equipment where the receiver is not in immediate danger but requires an expedited exit from the FARP site.

Answer 23

a. hand above the head making circular motions with the index finger (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Aircraft Emergency Taxi, paragraph 3.7.2)

Question 23

According to the “Safety Observer to FARP Personnel Brief,” the fuel nozzle should be angled toward the ____ during fueling.

Answer 23

a. wing root (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Safety Observer to FARP Personnel Brief, paragraph 2.5.3.2)

Question 24

During hot gas operations, the visual signal to execute an emergency ground egress from the safety observer, hose deployment personnel or pilots is _. This signal will only be given when the aircraft is in immediate grave danger.

Answer 24

c. a hand across the throat (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Hot Gas Emergencies, paragraph 3.7.1)

Question 25

If landing weight is greater than 9,921 pounds then the maximum touchdown descent rate is limited to ____ feet per minute.

Answer 25

b. 300 (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Weight Limits, page 5-1-15)

Question 26

Maximum zero fuel weight for U-28 EQ/EQ+ aircraft is __ lbs.

Answer 26

c. 9,240 (Reference: AOH Vol. 1, Weight Limits, page 5-1-15)

Question 27

A radio power output greater than 10 watts during SATCOM may Damage the amplifier. Do not operate PRC-117G SATCOM with radio power output settings of high or user settings greater than 10 watts. a. True b. False

Answer 27

b. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, PRC-117G Radio, page 14-4-74)

Question 28

The most significant impact to operations with the VR-12 Ku antenna is related to aircraft _. The relationship of the satellite’s elevation above the horizon and this aspect of the aircraft can lead to lost signal when the aircraft is _ from the satellite.

Answer 28

a. bank angle, banking away (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, Satellite Considerations, page 14-4-116)

Question 29

SAASM compliant navigation is only available with the internal FMS GPS (GNSS1) deselected and the TA-24 GPS (GPS1) powered on with valid crypto keys. a. True b. False

Answer 29

a. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, Universal UNS-1L – FMS Integration, page 14-5-21)

Question 30

If both TA-24 GPS (GPS1) with keys loaded and FMS GPS (GNSS 1) are selected in the FMS, then the FMS is no longer acceptable for normal operations in civilian airspace. a. True b. False

Answer 30

b. False (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, Universal UNS-1L– FMS Integration, page 14-5-21)

Question 31

If mission power is lost due to automatic power shedding, the pilots cannot restore power to any mission components, even those on the mission standby bus, without first restoring normal mission power. a. True b. False

Answer 31

b. False (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, Mission Standby Bus, page 15-6-4)

Question 32

Loss of GEN 1 or GEN 2 in flight will disconnect both MISSION 1 BUS and MISSION 2 BUS automatically. a. True b. False

Answer 32

a. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, GEN 1 BUS, page 15-7-2)

Question 33

The ATACNAV Mini will begin its alignment as soon as it has power. It completes alignment once it senses dynamic heading and speed changes. a. True b. False

Answer 33

a. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, SUP 16, page 29-5-8)

Question 34

The TA-24 is capable of receiving both SPS and PPS signals, and is therefore resistant to both GPS spoofing and local area jamming of the SPS signal. a. True b. False

Answer 34

a. True (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, TA-24 SAASM GPS, page 29-5-18)

Question 35

Which MTS-B laser has a skin hazard distance of 30m and a Nominal Ocular Hazard of 324m?

Answer 35

b. LTM (Reference: AOH Vol 2, Lasers, page 29-6-15)

Question 36

Which MTS-A laser can cause partial or complete loss of vision to personnel viewing unaided up 46.7 kilometers?

Answer 36

a. LRD (Reference: AOH Vol. 2, Lasers, page 29-6-15)

Question 37

The CUB radio provides a tactical mobile airborne network (T-MANET) that can connect communication between ground operators. The ground operator(s) and aircraft act as a node. There is a _ mile range limit between nodes.

Answer 37

a. 26 (Reference AOH Vol. 2, Communication, Covert Universal Broadband (CUB) Radio, page 30-2-29)

Question 37

Which MTS-A laser is classified as a Class I, eyesafe laser?

Answer 37

c. ELRF (Reference: AOH Vol. 2. Lasers, page 29-6-15)

Question 38

Which item(s) should not be destroyed when executing the emergency destruct plan?

Answer 38

c. BFT (Reference: AOH Vol. 3, page 15-6)

Question 39

To prevent misdirection of LGMs, MALET-B TU internal temperature at altitude must be within _ degrees Celsius of internal temperature at which boresight alignment was last performed for proper designation of targets.

Answer 39

a. 12 (Reference: M1 Electro-Optical/Infrared Sensor System(EOIRS), page K)

Question 40

This sensor and camera are capable of detecting LRD use.

Answer 40

c. MTS-A / SWIR (Reference: M1 Electro-Optical/Infrared Sensor System(EOIRS), paragraph 3.16.3)

Question 41

When attempting to range a target with the M1, where there are objects between the sensor and target that may reflect laser energy and cause multiple returns, operators should select ____.

Answer 41

b. Last Pulse (Reference: M1 Electro-Optical/Infrared Sensor System(EOIRS), paragraph 3.16.3.4)

Question 42

A U-28 crew is departing an airfield and wants to spend the least amount of time climbing out of the small arms envelope. They should climb _.

Answer 42

c. at Vy (120 KIAS) (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, paragraph 3.3.2)

Question 43

During a 30-flap obstacle clearance takeoff, the pilot flying should hold the brakes while pushing the power up to maximum. Release brakes _.

Answer 43

b. at approximately 25 psi (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, paragraph 3.2.4.1)

Question 44

A U-28 crew is briefed that there is a known MANPADS threat within 2 miles of the airfield. If required to depart the airfield, they should

Answer 44

b. use a low departure, climbing only to avoid terrain and obstacles (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, paragraph 3.3.3)

Question 45

Which tactical departures are recommended under Instrument Metrological Conditions?

Answer 45

d. None of the above (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 3-3, paragraph 3.4)

Question 45

During Misson Planning, what is the minimum included in a contingency plan?

Answer 45

a. Minimum force b. Minimum weather c. Maximum ROLEX d. Incorrect assessments and assumptions e. All of the above (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 2-7, paragraph 2.6)

Question 46

A U-28 is told to avoid keypads 3, 6 and 9 of a designated kill-box. They should avoid flying through the _ one- third of the referenced kill-box.

Answer 46

c. eastern (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, paragraph 4.2.3.1)

Question 47

The “F” in the FENCE Check stands for ____:

Answer 47

a. Fuel (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 4-2, paragraph 4.3.1.1)

Question 48

The “N” in the FENCE Check stands for ____:

Answer 48

c. Navigation (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 4-2, paragraph 4.3.1.3)

Question 49

The “C” in the FENCE Check stands for ____:

Answer 49

d. Communication (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 4-2, paragraph 4.3.1.4)

Question 50

The crew should expect to receive an ISR 5-line with mission tasking no later than ____ minutes prior to arrival on station.

Answer 50

b. 10 (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 4-2, paragraph 4.6.1 )

Question 51

The U-28 receives traffic advisories (TA) and resolution advisories (RA)? a. True b. False

Answer 51

b. False (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 4-4, paragraph 4.7.4)

Question 52

Use a ____ approach when landing at an airfield where the primary threat is IR guided weapons.

Answer 52

b. random shallow (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 5-9, paragraph 5.3.4)

Question 53

During Hot Gas operations, fuel can be received with the engine running from which source(s)?

Answer 53

a. aircraft b. truck c. bladder d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 7-7, paragraph 7.3)

Question 54

The standard ground egress point is ____ feet from exit used for accountability.

Answer 54

c. 300 (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 2-4, paragraph A2.1)

Question 55

The standard response to a NVG failure on landing is:

Answer 55

a. Continue landing using airfield lighting b. Transfer control to other pilot c. Perform an instrument go-around d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above (Reference: AFTTP 3-3.U-28, page 2-4, paragraph A2.1)

Question 56

This document details the communications, frequencies, CAS procedures, and command and control authorities for an operation. It details when aircraft may expend ordinance in self-defense or in defense of others.

Answer 56

b. Special Instructions (SPINS) (Reference: AFTTP 3-1.U-28, page 3-1, paragraph 3.3.2.)

Question 57

This document contains the locations of air refueling tracks, restricted operating zones (ROZ), and no fire areas (NFAs).

Answer 57

a. Airspace Control Order (ACO) (Reference: AFTTP 3-1.U-28, page 3-2, paragraph 3.3.5.)

Question 58

A U-28 serving in the TAC(A) (Warden) role is capable of unilaterally clearing aircraft to deliver ordinance? a. True b. False

Answer 58

b. False Reference: AFTTP 3-1.U- 28, page 5-1, paragraph 5.1.1.3.)

Question 59

This air player is delegated the authority to coordinate strikes between the JTAC and CAS aircraft. They also have authority to deconflict aircraft and may provide final control authority to attacking aircraft.

Answer 59

c. FAC(A) (Reference: AFTTP 3-1.U-28, page 5-1, paragraph 5.1.1.3.)

Question 60

When managing an air stack, generally provide at least _ feet of vertical deconfliction between air players.

Answer 60

b. 1,000 (Reference: AFTTP 3-1.U-28, paragraph 5.2.1.8.1.)

Question 61

“BINGO” fuel is prebriefed fuel state needed for recovery. a. True b. False

Answer 61

a. True (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 5)

Question 62

What is the brevity term to describe no visual contact with the friendly aircraft or ground position?

Answer 62

d. BLIND (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 5)

Question 63

What is the brevity term used to describe friendly electromagnetic communications jamming.

Answer 63

a. BUZZER (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 7)

Question 64

The brevity term to describe a Type 1 or Type 2 CAS terminal attack control clearance to release on this pass.

Answer 64

a. CLEARED HOT (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 10)

Question 65

The brevity term to describe a Type-3 CAS terminal attack control clearance.

Answer 65

b. CLEARED TO ENGAGE (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 10)

Question 66

The brevity term to acknowledge sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

Answer 66

c. CONTACT (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 11)

Question 67

The brevity term for an established video data link.

Answer 67

b. HANDSHAKE (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 20)

Question 68

The brevity term for a lost video data link (or failure to establish a link) is _.

Answer 68

b. HOLLOW (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 21)

Question 69

The brevity term to describe a stationary vehicle.

Answer 69

a. IDLE (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 23)

Question 70

The term is an informative call indicating that the speaker is firing the laser designator.

Answer 70

a. LASING (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 25)

Question 71

What is the correct brevity term to request the tactical ground picture in an area of interest?

Answer 71

b. LOWDOWN (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 27)

Question 72

The brevity term to indicate maintain/maintaining sensor awareness on a specified group or object. Implies that tactically significant changes will be communicated.

Answer 72

a. MONITOR (ING) (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 28)

Question 73

The brevity term for a CSAR aircraft departing the LZ, usually followed by the number of recovered personnel (e.g. “STING 01, PLUS 2”)

Answer 73

a. POPCORN (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 32)

Question 74

The brevity term to illuminate/illuminating a position with flashing IR energy.

Answer 74

a. PULSE (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 33)

Question 75

The brevity term to oscillate an IR pointer in a figure-8 around a target.

Answer 75

b. SNAKE (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 41)

Question 76

The brevity term for a ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

Answer 76

b. SQUIRTER (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 43)

Question 77

Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position.

Answer 77

d. TALLY (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 46)

Question 78

Directive call assigning responsibility to maintain sensors/visual on defined object or area. Should be followed by a direction.

Answer 78

c. TRACK (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 48)

Question 79

Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position.

Answer 79

b. VISUAL (Reference: AFTTP 3-2.5 Brevity, page 49)

Question 80

You are instructed to, “Hold Alpha 8” when executing keyhole CAS. Proceed:

Answer 80

c. North of the target and hold no closer than 8 nm (reference: AFTTP 3-2.6 JFIRE, page 41)

Question 81

Lines ____, _____, and _____ are mandatory during CAS 9-Line readback.

Answer 81

b. 4, 6, and Restrictions (reference: AFTTP 3-2.6 JFIRE, page 48)

Question 82

What is the standard unit of measure for line 4 in a CAS 9-line briefing?

Answer 82

a. Feet MSL (reference: AFTTP 3-2.6 JFIRE, page 48)

Question 83

What is line 5 of a CAS 9-line briefing?

Answer 83

b. Target Description (reference: AFTTP 3-2.6 JFIRE, page 48)

Question 84

“Authorized to proceed with the attack profile, but you may not release any ordnance yet. Used to acknowledge aircraft without providing clearance.” This is the definition of _.

Answer 84

a. CONTINUE (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-38)

Question 85

The words “CLEARED,” “HOT” and “ENGAGE” will be used only by the JTAC/FAC(A) and when ordnance is actually to be delivered. Use standard radio calls to the maximum extent possible. This will reduce the chance of dropping ordnance on dry passes and reduce the risk of fratricide. The attacking aircrew shall not repeat _ or _ .

Answer 85

d. “Cleared Hot” / “Cleared to Engage” (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-38)

Question 86

“Continue present maneuver, ordnance release not authorized. Used to provide approval to aircraft to continue the pass without expending ordnance during Type 1, 2 or 3 controls.” This is the definition of _.

Answer 86

c. CONTINUE DRY (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-39)

Question 87

“CLEARED TO ENGAGE” is Type 3 control clearance. Attack aircraft flight leaders may initiate attacks within the parameters imposed by the JTAC. Attack platforms will provide:

Answer 87

a. “Commencing Engagement” / “Engagement Complete” (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-45)

Question 88

The Hellfire Designator Safety Zone for a rotary-wing shooter is 30 degrees of azimuth and 40 degrees of inclination on either side of the shooter’s aircraft line of fire. a. True b. False

Answer 88

a. True (Reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-55/ AFTTP 3-2.6 JFIRE, page 103)

Question 89

CAS aircraft are required to be tally/contact/capture the target unless:

Answer 89

d. Bomb on coordinate (BOC) attacks (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-57)

Question 90

_____ attacks require the aircrew to be tally/contact/capture the intended target or aim point.

Answer 90

a. Bomb on target (BOT) attacks (reference: JP 3-09.3, page III-58)

Question 91

When executing CAS with a non-JTAC, aircrew bear increased responsibility for the detailed integration normally done by a JTAC required to minimize fratricide. Additionally, CAS aircrew in this situation will _.

Answer 91

a. assist these personnel/units to the greatest extent possible to bring fires to bear b. make a timely effort to involve a JTAC/FAC(A) in the situation c. be prepared to draw information from ground personnel to complete the attack d. d. All of the above e. CAS with a non-JTAC is strictly prohibited Answer: d. All of the above (reference: JP 3-09.3, page V-59)