Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FTU > IQ MQF > Flashcards

IQ MQF Flashcards

1
Q

According to the U-28 AOH, any operating procedure, practice, or condition which, if not strictly complied with, may result in personal injury or loss of life, is a _____.

A

a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Note
d. Revision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the U-28 AOH, any operating procedure, practice, or condition which, if not strictly complied with, may result in damage to the airplane or equipment, is a ______.

A

a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Note
d. Revision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to the U-28 AOH, any operating procedure, practice, or condition that requires emphasis is a _____.

A

a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Note
d. Revision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing with flaps 40⁰ is _____.

A

a. 10 kts.
b. 15 kts.
c. 20 kts.
d. 25 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, check the dipstick indication and if it indicates that oil is needed, start engine and run at ground idle for _____ minutes. Recheck oil level using dipstick and refill if necessary.

A

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. Not required
d. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“WARNING: Do not touch output connectors or coupling nuts of ignition exciter with bare hands.” The ignition exciter is located in the _____.

A

a. right engine compartment
b. forward fuel bay
c. forward ECS bay
d. left engine compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When starting the engine, set FLIGHT IDLE for a cold engine (oil temp below _____) until Ng is above _____, then set GROUND IDLE.

A

a. +5⁰C, 50%
b. 0⁰C, 50%
c. +5⁰C, 45%
d. -5⁰C, 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On engine restarts, it is recommended that ITT be below _____ prior to introducing fuel into the starting sequence.

A

a. 500⁰C
b. 1,000⁰C
c. 300⁰C
d. 200⁰C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On engine start, if ITT or Ng does not increase within _____ of moving the Condition Lever to GROUND or FLIGHT IDLE, then discontinue start.

A

a. 2 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To avoid possible propeller damage, do not allow stabilized propeller operation between 350 and _____ RPM (propeller not feathered).

A

a. 650
b. 950
c. 800
d. 1700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Selecting _____ at any time after avionics power is applied places the AHRS in attitude mode. Attitude mode is considered a backup mode of the AHRS.

A

a. GYRO-COMP
b. SLAVE
c. DG
d. MSU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proper alignment of the AHRS (south of 78.25 degrees latitude) requires:

A

a. Selecting GYRO COMP on COMPASS #1 and COMPASS #2 prior to applying avionics power
b. Accept the FMS initial position
c. A stationary aircraft (for approximately 0 to 10 minutes depending on latitude)
d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If center of gravity is 236 inches or further aft of datum, set the horizontal stabilizer (pitch) trim to _____.

A

a. full up
b. the green band
c. the green diamond
d. full down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Altimeters must be within +/- _____ of each other or +/- _____ of a known ground check point. In the event no ground check point is available, use field elevation.

A

a. 40 feet / 75 feet
b. 75 feet / 75 feet
c. 50 feet / 25 feet
d. 10 feet / 10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During flight in icing conditions or flight with any visible ice accretion on the airframe, the following flap maximum extensions apply:
1) With operational airframe pneumatic de-ice boots: _____ flap.
2) After failure of airframe pneumatic de-ice boots: _____ flap.

A

a. 15, 0
b. 40, 30
c. 15, 15
d. 30, 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Use the PATTERN checklists when performing VFR patterns or instrument approaches at the same airport or transitioning to another airport within _____.

A

a. 25 miles
b. the terminal area, when the distance between them does not warrant running the climb/level-off/descent checklists.
c. 100 miles
d. 50 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The After Takeoff Pattern checklist may be omitted when?

A

a. When in two-way communication with a control tower
b. In the radar pattern
c. During flight in VMC
d. In the VFR closed pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

During engine shutdown, monitor ITT, fuel flow, Ng, and maintenance personnel for indications of abnormal engine
shutdown until Ng is below 10%, fuel flow indicates _____, and ITT is below 500C and decreasing.

A

a. 60-70 lbs. per hour
b. 200 lbs. per hour
c. 0 lbs. per hour
d. 10 lbs. per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During engine shutdown, wait a minimum of _____ seconds after moving the condition lever to CUT OFF before turning off battery power to ensure the CAWS OIL QTY warning does not illuminate.

A

a. 60
b. 30
c. 15
d. 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ensure the condition lever is placed in the full aft cut-off/feather detent and remains there throughout the shutdown sequence. Fuel can be introduced with as little as 3/4” forward movement from the cut-off detent, causing an engine over temp or fire.

A

a. True
b. False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Poor glideslope capture and initial tracking may occur if flaps are extended greater than _____ prior to completion of glideslope capture when using the autopilot.

A

a. 0
b. 15
c. 30
d. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cabin pressure differential must be _____ prior to opening the crew door during engine-running on/off load operations.

A

a. <5.75 psi
b. 50 psi at 0C
c. 0 psi
d. 44 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to the AOH, “landing without delay at the nearest airport where a safe approach and landing is reasonably assured” is the definition of:

A

a. Land as soon as practical
b. Land as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to the AOH, “landing airport and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot. Extended flight beyond the nearest suitable airport is not recommended” is the definition of:

A

a. Land as soon as practical
b. Land as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Whenever a CAWS red or amber caption illuminates, the MASTER WARNING or CAUTION will illuminate. _____ will also be given with all red annunciations and _____ will sound with all amber annunciations.

A

a. An aural gong, a voice callout
b. A stick shaker, an aural gong
c. A voice callout, a loud horn
d. A voice callout, an aural gong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_____ are provided to warn of an aircraft or flap over speed, stall conditions, and possible gear-up approach to landing. When the autopilot is engaged, _____ also indicate the approach to, or deviation from, selected altitude and/or autopilot disconnects or system failures. Voice callouts are also provided to warn of a stall condition, decision height reached and an engine warning condition.

A

a. Aural warnings
b. MASTER WARNING lights
c. MASTER CAUTION lights
d. Voice callouts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The notification to execute emergency ground egress is _____. This will normally be given by the aircraft commander and will be shouted to the aircraft occupants if the interphone is inoperable.

A

a. “EXIT, EXIT, EXIT”
b. “EGRESS, EGRESS, EGRESS”
c. “Get Out”
d. There is no verbal command, just follow the AC out the door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A CAWS FLAPS caution shortly followed by the PUSHER caution and voice callout, “Flap Asymmetry Detected, Pusher Safe Mode,” indicates the flap system has failed and stick pusher set to safe mode. In pusher safe mode _____.

A

a. open the inertial separator and turn on the prop heat to re-index the AOA
b. the pusher and shaker are inoperative
c. the shaker will be the only indication of an approach to stall
d. the pusher remains operative but will push at a higher airspeed (approximately 5 knots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A fully charged battery will last for _____ minutes if the load is reduced below 60 amps or _____ minutes if the load is reduced below 50 amps (aircraft equipped with single battery).

A

a. 10, 20
b. 15, 25
c. 30, 60
d. 20, 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The following indications are received in flight: The CAWS ESNTL BUS warning light illuminates and a voice callout states, “Warning Essential Bus, Generator 1.” This indicates that generator 1 has failed.

A

a. True
b. False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the event of a GENERATOR 1 or GENERATOR 2 FAILURE, equipment on the Mission Standby Bus and Standby Bus can be regained by selecting the _____ switch to _____.

A

a. Non-Essential Override (NON ESS OVRD), Override (OVRD)
b. Generator 1 (GEN 1), RESET
c. Standby Bus (STBY BUS), ON
d. Generator 1 (GEN 1), ON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The autopilot may be manually disengaged by:

A

a. Press the autopilot disengage switch on the pilot’s or copilot’s control wheel
b. Actuate the Electric Stabilizer Manual Trim Engage switch (momentarily)
c. Press the autopilot (A/P) mode selector switch (disengage)
d. Pull the A/P Circuit Breaker (AVIONIC 2 BUS bar)
e. All of the above are methods for disengaging the autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If there are _____ segments or more difference between left and right fuel indications, do not take off.

A

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When a difference of _____ LCD segments is observed between the left and right fuel quantity gauges, run the _____ checklist.

A

a. 3, Low Fuel Pressure
b. 2, Fuel Quantity Low
c. 3, Auto Fuel Balancing Failure
d. 2, Auto Fuel Balancing Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do not attempt more than _____ air start(s). Repeated air start attempts could discharge the battery to a level that would not be able to support essential electrical services.

A

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Use starter assistance during MOR lever operation in flight if the Ng falls below _____.

A

a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 80%
d. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum operating speed (VMO), on all U-28A variants is _____ KIAS at or below 17,500 feet MSL.

A

a. 216
b. 220
c. 163
d. 236

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Maximum landing gear operating speed (VLO) is _____ KIAS. Do not retract or extend landing gear above this speed.

A

a. 236
b. 216
c. 163
d. 177

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) with flaps less than or equal to 15° is:

A

a. 150 KIAS
b. 155 KIAS
c. 163 KIAS
d. 165 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Maximum flaps extended speed (VFE) with flaps greater than 15° is:

A

a) 120 KIAS
b) 130 KIAS
c) 140 KIAS
d) 145 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PCL movement aft of the idle detent is prohibited _____.

A

a. when the engine is not operating
b. during flight
c. when the engine is controlled by the manual override system
d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum starting ITT is _____ C, limited to _____ seconds maximum.

A

a. 760, 5
b. 800, 20
c. 1,000, 5
d. 1,000, 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum takeoff power is limited to _________.

A

a) 10 minutes
b) 20 seconds maximum
c) short-field takeoffs only
d) 5 minutes

44
Q

Maximum continuous torque for the PT6A-67P engine is:

A

a. 44.34 PSI, however this may vary with temperature and altitude and should be calculated using the performance charts.
b. 36.95 PSI
c. 36.95 PSI, however this may vary with temperature and altitude and should be calculated using the performance charts.
d. 61 PSI

45
Q

In the PT6A-67B engine, maximum continuous, maximum climb, or maximum cruise ITT is _______°C.

A

a. 720
b. 760
c. 800
d. 1000

46
Q

Following an aborted start (1st start sequence) and a subsequent dry motor run (2nd start sequence), how many more times can the starter be activated?

A

a. The starter has already been overtasked; give the aircraft back to maintenance.
b. The starter may be activated once more before it requires a 30 minute cooling period.
c. The starter requires a 30 minute cooling period before the next activation.
d. The starter may be activated once more before it requires a 60 minute cooling period.

47
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight for the U-28A EQ/EQ+ aircraft is _____.

A

a. 10,979 lb.
b. 9,921 lb.
c. 9,240 lb.
d. 10,450 lb.

48
Q

Recommended oil temperature operating range (deg C) for increased service life of the engine oil is:

A

a. 10 to 110
b. 10 to 105
c. 0 to 60
d. 60 to 70

49
Q

Oil temperature limits are -40 to 105 C with limited periods of _____ at temperatures between 105 to 110 C.

A

a. 5 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 20 seconds
d. 10 minutes

50
Q

Do not operate the weather radar system when personnel are within _____ feet of the 270° forward sector of the aircraft.

A

a. 10
b. 20
c. 15
d. 5

51
Q

If landing weight is greater than 9,921 lbs. Max touchdown descent rate is limited to _____; report landing weight and touchdown descent rate to maintenance.

A

a. 250 fpm
b. 300 fpm
c. 350 fpm
d. 400 fpm

52
Q

When operating above 10,450 lb. the following maneuvers are prohibited:

A

a. Abrupt maneuvers
b. Bank angles greater than 30 degrees
c. Rapid transitions
d. All of the above

53
Q

Operation of the pneumatic de-ice boot system in ambient temperatures below _____ C and above _____ C may cause permanent damage to the boots.

A

a. -50, 54
b. -40, 40
c. -10, 10
d. -5, 0

54
Q

In the event of a balked landing or go-around with residual ice on the airframe, the flaps _____ be retracted from the 15 position.

A

a. should
b. should not

55
Q

Maximum operating altitude is:

A

a. 25,000 feet
b. 30,000 feet
c. 35,000 feet
d. 50,000 feet

56
Q

The aircraft outside air temperature operating limits are from _____ C to _____ C.

A

a. 0, +100
b. -40, +40
c. -55, +50
d. There are no outside air temperature limits

57
Q

The use of polarized sunglasses is prohibited with the flat panel display system (FPDS)

A

a. True
b. False

58
Q

Except for precision approach operations, the autopilot must be disengaged when the airplane is below _____ ft AGL. During ILS or LPV approach operations, the autopilot may remain engaged as low as _____ ft AGL provided the autopilot is coupled to glideslope vertical guidance of 6 deg or less and the radar altimeter is functioning.

A

a. 1,000, 100
b. 3,000, 200
c. 200, 100
d. 1,000, 200

59
Q

Use of _____ mode is recommended when the autopilot is engaged in severe turbulence.

A

a. pitch attitude hold
b. altitude hold
c. airspeed hold
d. use of the autopilot in severe turbulence is prohibited

60
Q

In gusty conditions it is recommended to rotate at _____ (except for prepared-unpaved surface operations). On rotation the aircraft yaws considerably further into the wind and automatically establishes the heading necessary to track the runway centerline. TOLD calculations _____ affected by this change.

A

a. Vr + 10 Knots, are not
b. Vr + ½ the gust factor, are
c. Vref, are not
d. Vr + 10 knots, are

61
Q

When landing in a crosswind, it is recommended to use the wing down technique. At approximately 100 to 200 ft on approach to the runway, apply rudder to align the longitudinal axis of the aircraft to runway and put on bank in the opposite direction to maintain runway centerline. When stopping the aircraft _____.

A

a. apply heavy braking to aid with directional control
b. apply an aero-brake technique
c. do not attempt heavy braking as the upwind wheel will tend to lock more easily
d. do not use reverse thrust as directional control will be more difficult

62
Q

The aircraft must be clear of all deposits of snow, ice and frost adhering to the _____ immediately prior to takeoff. The clean aircraft concept is essential for safe flight operations.

A

a. lifting surfaces
b. control surfaces
c. landing gear
d. all of the above
e. both a and b

63
Q

When taking off into known icing conditions, the flaps must be set to _____ and the rotation speed increased by _____. The speed at 50 feet height will be correspondingly increased by 12 KIAS. As a result, the takeoff ground roll distance will be increased by 30%. The takeoff distance will be increased by 32% and the accelerate-stop distance by 27%.

A

a. 0 degrees, 10 KIAS
b. 15 degrees, 9 KIAS
c. 0 degrees, 12 KIAS
d. 15 degrees, 10 KIAS

64
Q

Due to the composite construction of the engine cowling and the possibility of toxic gasses, the airplane ECS must be shutoff when a fire condition is suspected.

A

a. True
b. False

65
Q

With the ECS in manual mode the maximum and minimum temperature limits are disabled. Because of potential damage to the system, manual mode should only be used when it is not possible to control the ECS air outlet temperature using the automatic mode.

A

a. True
b. False

66
Q

At what altitude does the CAWS CAB PRESS annunciator illuminate?

A

a. 13,000 +/- 200 ft
b. 10,000 +/- 200 ft
c. 10,500 +/- 200 ft
d. It only illuminates if the cabin pressure differential is exceeded.

67
Q

The Ground Power Unit (GPU) must be capable of providing a minimum of _____ amps for all systems to be operated and
_____ amps if engine starter operation is required?

A

a. 250, 500
b. 500, 1000
c. 500, 1500
d. 1000, 1500

68
Q

When operating the PT6A-67P engine, what is the maximum continuous load from generator 2?

A

a. 115 amps
b. 200 amps on the ground
c. 300 amps
d. Both b and c

69
Q

The guarded _____ enables all electrical power to be switched off.

A

a. Condition Lever
b. Trim Interrupt
c. Cabin Pressurization
d. MASTER POWER EMERGENCY OFF switch

70
Q

A warble tone at 850 and 854 Hz will sound when stabilizer trim runaway is sensed in which system?

A

a. Main stabilizer trim
b. Alternate stabilizer trim
c. Both
d. None of the above

71
Q

L FUEL LOW and R FUEL LOW lights indicate less than _____ lbs. in the respective tank.

A

a. 75
b. 100
c. 115
d. 133

72
Q

To communicate while wearing the oxygen mask, aircrew must select EMER on the ACP and will not have full radio functionality.

A

a. True
b. False

73
Q

The BATTERY BUS must be powered to enable propeller feathering.

A

a. True
b. False

74
Q

Proper fire detection system functionality is indicated by what?

A

a. The ENG FIRE light illuminates when the FIRE switch is pressed
b. The FIRE DETECT light illuminates when the FIRE switch is pressed
c. Either the ENG FIRE light or the FIRE DETECT light illuminates when the FIRE switch is pressed
d. Both the ENG FIRE light and the FIRE DETECT light illuminate when the FIRE switch is pressed

75
Q

By filing a flight plan, the PIC certifies:

A

a. The flight was properly ordered, authorized, and released
b. Current NOTAMs, weather, and other pertinent flight data were obtained.
c. The flight will be conducted according to all governing directives and the flight plan has been renewed for completeness and accuracy
d. The flight complies with ADIZ restrictions published in FLIP and NOTAMs, and complies with the scheduling and coordination procedures specified for Special Use Airspace in FLIP
e. All of the above

76
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless:

A

a. An amended clearance is obtained
b. An emergency exists
c. The deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
d. All of the above

77
Q

Regardless of the IFR departure method selected, while conducting an IFR departure PICs will climb at a minimum of
_____ unless a higher gradient is published for the departure runway.

A

a. 200’ per minute
b. 200’ per NM
c. 400’ until the departure end of the runway
d. None of the above

78
Q

While under IFR, pilots will not depart an airfield using non-standard takeoff minimums in lieu of meeting the required climb gradient, unless:

A

a. The pilots determine they can remain visually clear of the obstacle(s) driving the non-standard takeoff minimums before entering the weather
b. Must ensure the aircraft is at or above the published ceiling by the end of the runway, then continue climbing at 200’/NM or published climb gradient associated with the non-standard takeoff minimums to a minimum IFR altitude.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
e. USAF Aircrew must always meet the published climb gradient while under IFR

79
Q

Electronic Flight Bags (EFB) are authorized for use in classified processing areas (CPA) of AFSOC buildings where classified or controlled unclassified information is processed stored, discussed or transmitted. Before entering and at all times while within a CPA, EFB users will:

A

a. Strictly comply with TEMPEST policies and guidelines as prescribed for that area
b. Set all wireless capabilities (e.g. Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, 3G/4G…etc) to the OFF position
c. The microphone and both front and back video cameras will remain turned OFF and physically covered at all times.
d. All of the above

80
Q

If a landing gear, hydraulic system or flap malfunction is encountered or when aircraft configuration cannot be changed:

A

a. The discrepancy will be corrected prior to the next flight
b. Only full stop landings will be made.
c. Exception: If repair capability does not exist and a positive determination is made that further flight can be accomplished with the gear down and locked or the flaps left in place, the aircraft may be flown to a destination where repair capability exists provided the gear or flaps are not moved
d. All of the above

81
Q

The U-28 is considered a “Transport” aircraft for flight duty period (FDP) calculations. The maximum FDP during non- training missions and before extension by the Aircraft Commander is _____.

A

a. 12 hours
b. 14 hours
c. 16 hours
d. None of the above

82
Q

In addition to the flight duty period (FDP) restrictions in AFI 11-202 Vol. 3, comply with the following:

A

a. All training events will be accomplished within the first 12 hours of the FDP.
b. All mission events will be accomplished within the first 14 hours of the FDP.
c. PICs may extend their FDP up to 2 hours during mission execution. Aircrews may recover to a basing location with a non-tactical recovery, to include the use of NVGs after the PIC has extended the FDP
d. All of the above

83
Q

Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than _____.

A

a. MDA
b. crossing the runway threshold
c. the final approach fix for precision approaches
d. 100 feet AGL
e. None of the above

84
Q

Pilot in-flight seat swaps may be accomplished only with a qualified pilot at the flight controls and at or above _____.

A

a. 500’ AGL or pattern altitude, whichever is greater
b. 1,000’ AGL
c. 2,000’ AGL, or radar downwind
d. 10,000’ MSL

85
Q

During non-precision approaches, the following mandatory calls will be made by the PNF:

A

a. “100 Above” when 100 feet above minimum descent altitude (MDA) or step-down altitude
b. “Minimums” at MDA
c. “Runway in Sight” when the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a safe position to land
d. “Go-around” at the missed approach point or below MDA and the runway environment is not in sight, when the aircraft is not in a position to execute a safe landing, when directed by ATC facility, or conditions on the runway will not allow a safe landing
e. All of the above

86
Q

During precision approaches, the following mandatory calls will be made by the PNF:

A

a. “100 Above” when 100 feet above final approach altitude, glideslope intercept altitude, or decision height (DH)
b. “Continue” at DH with approach light system visible and the aircraft in a position to execute a safe landing
c. “Land” at DH with the runway environment in sight and the aircraft is in a safe position to land
d. “Go-around” at or below DH and the runway environment is not in sight, when the aircraft is not in a position to execute a safe landing, when directed by ATC facility, or conditions on the runway will not allow a safe landing
e. All of the above.

87
Q

Any crew member will immediately advise the pilot flying when observing:

A

a. Heading deviations greater than 10 degrees
b. Airspeed deviations of 10 knots
c. Altitude deviations of 100’ during approach or 200’ while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made to correct the deviation.
d. Any deviation from prescribed procedures for the approach being flown when no attempt is being made to correct the deviation
e. All of the above

88
Q

Following a departing aircraft

A

a. Land or rotate prior to the leading aircraft’s point of rotation.
b. Use three minutes spacing for aircraft in Categories A and B
c. Use two minute spacing for aircraft in Categories C through E
d. All of the above.

89
Q

Minimum taxiway width for all U-28 operations is _____.

A

a. 15 feet
b. 23 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 60 feet

90
Q

Minimum runway width for all U-28 operations is _____.

A

a. 23 feet
b. 30 feet
c. 60 feet
d. 150 feet

91
Q

The minimum runway length for normal U-28 takeoff operations is _____.

A

a. 2000 feet
b. Takeoff ground roll, corrected for environmental conditions + 10%
c. Accelerate-Stop distance, corrected for environmental conditions and flap setting
d. 5,000 feet

92
Q

Plan to land with no less than _____ of fuel on board.

A

a. 100 lb.
b. 200 lb.
c. 300 lb.
d. The required AFI 11-202 V3 reserve fuel, or 200 lb., whichever is greater.

93
Q

Minimum fuel is _____, and emergency fuel is _____.

A

a. 250 lb., 200 lb.
b. 300 lb., 200 lb.
c. 200 lb., 150 lb.
d. None of the above

94
Q

Compute TOLD for initial takeoff prior to engine start. Recompute data for _____.

A

a. 200’ pressure alt change, 2 degrees C temperature change, and 200 lb. gross weight change.
b. 500’ pressure alt change, 5 degrees C temperature change, and 500 lb. gross weight change.
c. 500’ density altitude change and 500 lbs. gross weight change.
d. TOLD must always be recomputed, regardless of how much altitude, temperature, or weight changed

95
Q

On arrival, U-28 pilots will not fly slower than _____ around final turn until established on final and prepared to land.

A

a. VREF + 10 knots
b. the AOA fast diamond
c. AOA centered
d. None of the above

96
Q

“Must”, “Will”, and “Shall” indicate a mandatory requirement.

A

a. True
b. False

97
Q

The CSO is required to ensure all classified equipment and papers are accounted for, secured or destroyed.

A

a. True
b. False

98
Q

With proper coordination through command and control channels, U-28 crews are authorized to assist civilian law enforcement.

A

a. True
b. False

99
Q

The minimum required altitude calls during a max rate descent are:

A

a. “2,000 ft above” level off, “1,000 ft above” level off,
b. “Radar altimeter alive”, “2,000 ft above” and “1,000 ft above,” the level-off altitude
c. “1,000 ft above”, level off
d. “2,000 ft above”, level off, “1,000 ft above” level off, level off altitude, and below level off altitude

100
Q

The minimum equipment required for a max rate descent is:

A

a. VFR aircraft
b. Fully functioning IS&S Panel, Radar Altimeter, operational altitude/vertical speed preselect
c. Fully functioning IS&S Panel for each pilot, Radar Altimeter, operational altitude/vertical speed preselect
d. Fully functioning IS&S Panel for each pilot and operational altitude/vertical speed preselect

101
Q

On the U-28, all crewmembers will monitor _____ prior to engine start through “BATT…OFF” on the engine shutdown checklist.

A

a. Aircraft interphone
b. guard
c. C2 Radio
d. All of the above

102
Q

To avoid wake turbulence for higher Wake Categories aircraft, the PF will maneuver to avoid the climb/descent profile of the leading aircraft and: Following an arriving aircraft, land or rotate past the leading aircraft’s touch down point.

A

a. True
b. False

103
Q

When reverse taxiing, aircraft will come no closer than _____ feet from an obstruction even if using a wing walker.

A

a. 10 ft
b. 15 ft
c. 20 ft
d. 25 ft

104
Q

Pilots will only conduct what type of landings on a semi-prepared surface?

A

a. Touch and Go
b. Stop and Go
c. Full Stop
d. A and C
e. B and C

105
Q

What of the following is true regarding thunderstorm avoidance?

A

a. Do not fly above (within 1,000 ft) of thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds
b. Avoid thunderstorms by 10 NM at or above FL 230
c. Avoid thunderstorms by 10 NM at or below FL 230
d. Avoid thunderstorms by 5 NM for combat operations below FL 280 if mission requirements dictate.

FTU (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions