Missed sections paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the identification procedures where suspects are known to the police? Not known to the police?

Who authorises these procedures?

A

Known:
* video identification- the eye-witness is shown moving images of a known suspect, together with similar images of others who resemble the suspect.
* identification parade- the eye-witness sees the suspect in a line of others who resemble the suspect.
* group identification- the eye-witness sees the suspect in an informal group of people.

Unknown: eye witness shown photographs.

Officer not below inspector who is not involved with investigation (identification officer)

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2
Q

What happens if D does not consent to VIPER?

A

Covert procedures can be used as a last resort

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3
Q

Some examples of aggravating factors?

A
  • Previous conviction(s), particularly where a pattern of repeat offending is disclosed
  • Offence committed whilst on bail for other offences
  • Offence was racially or religiously aggravated
  • Offence motivated by, or demonstrating, hostility to the victim based on his sexual orientation (or presumed sexual orientation) or on the victim’s disability ( or presumed disability)
  • Commission of an offence while under the influence of alcohol or drugs
  • Planning of an offence
  • Offenders operating in groups or gangs
  • High level of profit from the offence
  • An attempt to conceal or dispose of evidence
  • Failure to respond to previous sentences
  • Offence committed whilst on licence
  • Offence motivated by hostility towards a minority group, or a member or members of it
  • Use of a weapon to frighten or injure victim
  • Deliberate and gratuitous violence or damage to property, over and above what is needed to carry out the offence
  • An especially serious physical or psychological effect on the victim, even if unintended
  • Presence of others eg relatives, especially children or partner of the victim
  • Additional degradation of the victim (e.g. taking photographs of a victim as part of a sexual offence)
  • Abuse of a position of trust
  • Abuse of power
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4
Q

Some examples of mitigating factors?

A
  • A greater degree of provocation than normally expected
  • Mental illness or disability
  • Youth or age, where it affects the responsibility of the individual defendant
  • The fact that the offender played only a minor role in the offence
  • Good character and/or lack of previous convictions
  • Any personal mitigation
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5
Q

What are the non-custodial sentences?

A
  1. Bind over (MC or CC - ‘keep the peace’ for a sum of money which forfeit if they fail to do so).
  2. Absolute discharges - no punishment
  3. Conditional discharge - discharged but if commit another sentence then can be re-sentenced for original offence and new offence within specified period (no more than 3 years)
  4. Fines
  5. Community order (over 18 and punishable with imprisonment - no longer than 3 yrs).
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6
Q

What is the definition of oblique intention?

A

Not the D’s main intention but a side effect. Outcome was a virtual certainty and D appreciated that.

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7
Q

For aggravated criminal damage, do the lawful excuses apply?
Is it relevant whether life was actually endangered?
What should danger to life arise from?

A

No
No (only that they were intended or reckless to life being endangered).
From the damaged property (casual link) - if fire then there will always be a causal link

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8
Q

Intention to permanently deprive - borrowing? interchangeable property?

A

Borrowing - was the intention to return it minus all its goodness, virtue and practical value?

Interchangeable - intending to return notes and coins of equivalent property was not same as returning actual property so ITPD.

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9
Q

What is a householder case?

A
  • Uses force while in or partly in a building, or part of a building, that is a dwelling

o ‘building’ includes a vehicle or vessel; and
o ‘part of a building, that is a dwelling’ includes places of work and internal access routes:
* If the defendant or another person dwells in part of a building; and
* another part of the building is a place of work for D or another person; and
* you can move between the dwelling and place of work through an internal access route.
* Is not a trespasser at the time the force is used; and
* Believed the victim to be in, or entering, the building or part as a trespasser

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10
Q

What is formula B?

A

After exchange, Law Society Formula B imposes the following undertakings on the solicitors:
* to hold the signed contract to the other solicitor’s order – this means that the buyer’s signed part belongs to the seller and vice versa
* to post the signed contract to the other solicitor that day by first class post or DX (the document exchange used by solicitors and certain other professionals) or by hand delivery
* in the case of the buyer’s solicitor, to send the deposit in the form of payment specified by the contract (e.g., solicitors’ client account cheque in the first class post, or same day electronic transfer)

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11
Q

When is formula A used? C?

A

A: Where same solicitor has contracts for both seller and buyer (e.g. if other solicitor is abroad at exchange)

C: chain transactions - 2 or more properties (complex and usually use B by tying transactions together).

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12
Q

What is the effect of SDLT on 1st time residential buyers? Second property? LTT for first time buyers?

A

First time: A discount (relief) is applicable for a person buying their first home provided the purchase price is no more than £625,000. If there is more than one person buying, all must be first-time buyers.
* If the relief applies, there is no SDLT for the first £425,000 of the purchase price, and 5% on any part of the price over £425,000 (but not exceeding £625,000).

Second property: Additional 3% on top of whole purchase price.

LTT: no reliefs for first-time buyers/

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13
Q

What are the different use classes?

A

B2 General industrial
C1 Hotels
C2 Residential institutions
C3 Dwelling houses
E Commercial, business and service – this is a wide use class, including retail of goods, food, professional services to the public, etc
F1 Learning and non-residential institutions
F2 Local community
Sui generis - miscellaneous e.g. theatres, pubs and nightclubs.

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14
Q

What does TA13 include?

A

1) Vacant possession: arrangements for collecting keys
2) Deeds and documents: ask for list of deeds to be sent on completion for unregistered property
3) Completion: ask for completion by post
4) Money: ask’s for seller’s solicitor’s account details and exact amount to be paid on completion
5) Mortgages + charges: ask seller’s solicitor to list any mortgages and confirm they will be redeemed.

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15
Q

How do APR and BPR interact?

A

APR takes priority over BPR (cannot claim both for one asset).

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16
Q

What are the CGT consequences of GROB?

A

Treated as gift - CGT will be payable on any increase in value between date of gift and date of transfer (if they later sell the property - i.e. no free CGT uplift on death).

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17
Q

What is a POAC? When does it apply for property?

A

Pre-owned assets charge (similar to GROB - obtain a benefit from property they have given away - can choose which regime to elect into only where it is also a GROB(e.g. see chattels)).

Property: (1) individual occupies land
(2) Individual either disposed of occupied land or contributed towards acquisition (directly or indirectly) without obtaining a beneficial interest in it.
Individual will have to pay income tax on equivalent of market rent they would have to pay to occupy land.

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18
Q

When does POAC apply for chattels?

A

(1) possession or use of property (2) same as property

POAC = income tax on chattel

Example is useful: A man makes a gift of shares to his sister. The sister immediately sells the shares and uses the proceeds to buy a car. The man uses the car to drive to work every day and parks it outside his house
The possession condition is satisfied as the man has the use of the car. The contribution condition is satisfied because the car was acquired indirectly using the gifted shares. He must pay the POAC (calculated by reference to the official rate of interest on the car’s market value). This is not a GROB so there is no possibility of electing into that regime.

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19
Q

When does POAC not apply?

A

To spouse or civil partner
Gift that qualifies for family maintenance
Annual and small gifts exemptions
Arm’s length sales - to unconnected persons
Occupation seven years after gift: 7 year gap between contribution and occupation/possession = no POAC

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20
Q

What is a GAAR? When does it apply? Penalty?

A

General anti-abuse rule
1. Arrangement where tax advantage - reduction, deferral or complete avoidance
2. Relates to a tax where GAAR applies e.g. IHT
3. Main purpose test: Obtaining tax advantage was main or one of main purposes of arrangement
4. Abusive: not a reasonable course of action

Has to pay counteract abusive effect of arrangement (+penalty of 60% of counteracted amount also payable).

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21
Q

What is a DOTA? What are notifiable arrangements?

A

Disclosure of tax avoidance scheme: reporting scheme where ‘promotors’ of arrangements must inform HMRC about notifiable arrangements or proposals.

Fall within description of hallmarks (avoidance or reduction of IHT charges relating to trusts and close companies, avoid/red related to GROB rules, reduction of estate which does not gives rise to a PET/chargeable transfer).
Arrangements enable a tax advantage.
Main benefit or one of main benefit is to obtain a tax advantage.

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22
Q

What is the definition of solvent estate?

A

Assets are sufficient to pay all the funeral, testamentary and administration expenses, debts and liabilities. It is immaterial whether legacies can be paid in full or not.

23
Q

What are the statutory categories for the court allowing the discharge of a covenant (s84)?

A

Obsolete due to changes in property/neighbourhood
Impedes reasonable use of servient land (no practical value or contrary to public interest)
Dominant owners agreed express or impliedly to discharge
Discharge of a covenant will not ‘injure’ dominant owners (wider public interest versus one particular dominant owner).

24
Q

What are the different land charge categories?

A

C(i) Puisne mortgage
C(iv) Estate contract
D(ii) Restrictive covenant
D(iii) Equitable easement
F Home right

25
Q

What cannot be protected by land charge so that equity’s darling applies?

A

Equitable easements and restrictive covenants created pre-1926
Equitable interests under a trust that have not been overreached

26
Q

What is the short lease exception?

A

Three years or less - no formalities

Lease takes effect in possession
At best rent
Not subject to a find or premium (no upfront payment)

27
Q

What are the minimum formalities for an express equitable easement (legal easement which has not been created correctly)

A

In writing
Signed by grantor (owner of servient land)

28
Q

What are the formalities for equitable mortgages ((1) mortgages of equitable interests and (2) defective legal mortgages)?

A

(1) Borrower holds an equitable interest in the land - in writing, signed by the grantor (borrower).
(2) Not granted by valid deed or not registered - in writing, signed by both parties (LP(MP)A s 2).

29
Q

When will an implied legal easement be overriding in reg land? Unreg?

A
  • Registered land: an implied legal easement will be an overriding interest LRA 2002, Sched 3 para 3 provided that EITHER:
    o The easement is within the actual knowledge of the new owner
    o It is obvious on a reasonably careful inspection of the servient land
    o It has been exercised with a year before the transfer of the servient land
  • Unregistered land: ‘legal interests bind the world’ and as an overriding interest on first registration of the land.
30
Q

What are the summary only offences?

A
  • Assault
  • Battery
  • Simple criminal damage where the value is £5,000 or less is treated as summary only.
  • An attempt to commit simple criminal damage £5,000 or less is treated as summary only.
    Low value shoplifting of £200 or less
31
Q

What are the either-way offences?

A
  • Theft- s 1 Theft Act 1968
  • Burglary- s 9(1)(a) or s 9(1)(b) Theft Act 1968
  • Fraud:
    o by false representation
    o by abuse of position
    o by failing to disclose
  • Assault occasioning actual bodily harm- s 47 Offences Against the Person Act (OAPA) 1861
  • Wounding or inflicting grievous bodily harm- s 20 OAPA 1861
  • Simple crimnal damage where the value exceeds £5,000
  • Simple arson
32
Q

What are the indictable-only offences?

A
  • Robbery- s 8 Theft Act 1968
  • Wounding or causing grievous bodily harm with intent- s 18 OAPA 1861
  • Aggravated burglary- s 10 Theft Act 1968
  • Aggravated arson
  • Aggravated criminal damage
  • Murder- where a verdict of voluntary manslaughter can be a possible outcome
  • Involuntary manslaughter:
    o unlawful act manslaughter
    o manslaughter by gross negligence
    -Cases where children are to be called as witnesses
    -Complex fraud (see card on rules)
33
Q

What is the statutory order of entitlement for intestacy?

A

Parents
Siblings of whole blood (or issue)
Siblings of half blood (or issue)
Grandparents
Uncles/Aunts of whole blood (or issue)
Uncles/Aunts of half blood (or issue)
Crown

34
Q

What is the order of entitlement for NCPR 20 (with will)?

A

(a) Executor
(b) Trustee of residuary estate
(c) Residuary beneficiary or beneficiary of the estate under intestacy (if partial intestacy)
(d) PRs of anyone in (c) other than trustee or life tenant of residue
(e) Any other beneficiary or a creditor
(f) PRs of anyone in (e)

35
Q

What is the order of entitlement for NCPR 22 (without will)

A

Spouse or civil partner
Children(+ issue)
Father and mother
Siblings of whole blood (+issue)
Siblings of half blood (+issue)
Grandparents
Uncles/aunts of whole blood (+ issue)
Uncles/aunts of half blood (+issue)
Crown (or a creditor, or person who does not receive benefit but would have done if estate was larger)

36
Q

What are the triggering events?

A
  • Transfer of the freehold estate by sale, gift or court order
  • Grant of lease for a term of more than seven years
  • Assignment of a lease of unregistered land with more than seven years to run
  • An assent, vesting assent or vesting deed which is a disposition of the freehold or a leasehold with more than seven years to run
  • A grant of a lease to take effect in possession more than three months after the date of the grant (future lease)
  • A FIRST legal mortgage of the freehold or leasehold with more than seven years to run
37
Q

How do you address a district judge. deputy district judge or lay magistrates in the magistrates court?

A

Sir/Madam or your worship (for lay magistrates only)

38
Q

In CC, how do you address a circuit judge, a recorder, and high court judge,HC master?

What prefix indicates a circuit judge?

A

Your Honour (recorder + circuit)
HC: My Lord/Lady
HC Master: Judge

HHJ

39
Q

What are the requirements for fraud to be indictable only (complex fraud)?

A

At least 2 of following:
-amount exceed £500,000
-Significant international dimension
-Specialised knowledge of financial, commercial, fiscal or regulatory matters - e.g. markets, banking systems, trusts or tax regimes
-Numerous victims
-Substantial + significant fraud on public body
-Likely to be of widespread public concern or alleged misconduct endangered economic well-being of UK (e.g. undermining confidence in financial markets)

40
Q

What is the test in RvG?

A

(1) D foresaw a risk of harm and went ahead anyway; and
(2) In the circumstances known, it was unreasonable to take the risk.
(jury should not take into consideration circumstances not known to accused)

41
Q

What are the recognised easements?

A

Right of drainage (and other rights through pipelines)
Right for storage
Right of way
Right to use the land for recreational activities
Right to use the land for leisure and sporting activities
Right of support
Right to enter

42
Q

When can a party serve a notice to complete? How? What is its effect for buyer, for seller?

A

If completion has not taken place at date and time stated in contract (2pm in standard conditions), either party may give notice to complete if they are ready, able and willing to complete
Notice of complete can be served by email
Makes time of the essence and parties must complete within 10 working days (first day before day after notice to complete is served)

Fail to complete in 10 working days =
Buyer: rescind the contract + demand return of deposit with any interest accrued on it, claim contractual damages or specific performance
Seller: rescind the contract, forfeit the deposit and any interest accrued, resell the property and claim contractual damages

43
Q

What happens with delayed completion in terms of compensation?If completion is missed, when can it only be deemed to take place? When can contractual compensation (interest) not be claimed regarding delayed completion?

A

Pay interest on each day of delay (seller pays interest on full purchase price, buyer pays interest on purchase price less deposit).
Completion is deemed to take place the next working day.
Only applies to where completion is delayed, NOT where it does not take place at all - would be damages

44
Q

What is the difference between power of maintenance and power of advancement where trust created before 1 Oct 2014?

A

Power of maintenance:
Before 1 Oct 2014 - only apply income as is ‘reasonable in the circumstances’ - must take into account all circumstances (applied proportionately with any other trust income available for same purposes)
Power of advancement
Before 1 Oct 2014: only advance up to max of 50% (rather than 100%)

45
Q

How many trustees should trusts of land have?

A

At least 2

46
Q

What are the requirements of informed consent from beneficiaries?

A

1) Must have capacity to consent: at least 18 and do not suffer from mental impairment
2) Consent must be freely given (no duress)
3) Consent must be informed (sufficient information to give consent)

47
Q

Is voluntary intoxication a defence to basic intent offences?

A

NO, unless intoxicant is non-dangerous and D is not reckless in taking intoxicant (according to ReviseSQE)

48
Q

What supplies are exempt, zero-rated and standard-rated for VAT?

How do you check if a buyer has opted to tax?

A

Exempt: residential property (except for newly constructed property)
Commercial property over 3 years old (and the owner has not opted to tax)

Zero-rated: Newly constructed residential property (buyer doesn’t pay VAT but seller can recover input tax from HMRC)

Standard-rated: Newly constructed commercial property (less than 3 yrs old)
Older commercial property is seller has opted to tax

CPSE 1 asks seller whether option to tax has been made

49
Q

What is the test for dishonesty? e.g. in fraud cases

A

What was the D’s knowledge and belief as to the facts?
Given this, was the D dishonest by the standards of ordinary decent people?

50
Q

What attempted offences, what is required? For murder?

A

Actus reus: more than merely preparatory
Mens rea: Intention to commit offence (not recklessness)

Murder - intention to kill, intent to commit GBH is not enough!

51
Q

Is involuntary intoxication a defence?

When can intoxication negate mens rea?

A

Involuntary intoxication - did D form the necessary mens rea even though intoxicated? (involuntary intoxication always related to negating mens rea)

Involuntary intoxication
Drugs taken voluntarily but in pursuance of medical treatment
Where intoxication is caused by non-dangerous drugs
Specific intent crimes

52
Q

What is the means test in the mags court? Values? What it considers?

A

Initial assessment: Weighted gross annual income (including partners - unless the partner is the complainant, a prosecution witness or a co-defendant)

Eligible - 12,475 or less
Ineligible - 22,325 or more
In between = full means test

Full means test - applicant’s annual household disposable income (below £3,398 = allowed funding)

53
Q

What is the means test in the Crown Court?

A

Consider income and capital - combined capital and equity allowance above £30,000 - may have to contribute to costs
Annual household disposable income: Ineligible above £37,500, eligible without any contribution if below £3,398, in between - eligible but have to contribute)