Missed Questions: Cytopathology Flashcards

1
Q

36yo M w/ right sided neck mass. What are the two most common chromosomal abnormalities and the implicated genes in this entity?

A

(Pleomorphic Adenoma)

  1. 8q12 rearrangements:
    • Most Common: t(3;8) translocation
      • Results in CTNNB1-PLAG1 fusion gene
      • PLAG1 also often overexpressed in non-t(3;8) translocation
  2. 12q15 rearrangements:
    • t(3;12), ins(9;12) and t(1;12) translocations
    • Gene: HMGA2
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2
Q

65 year old female with irregular, ill-defined facial skin lesion and pleural masses on imaging. EBUS performed.

What are the three most important stains for this entity?

A

(Malignant Melanoma)

  1. S-100 +ve.
    • Negative staining pretty much excludes the diagnosis.
  2. HMB-45 +ve – especially deep, often patchy.
  3. Melan A (MART-1) +ve.

(SOX10 is also + and widely considered the most specific stain)

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3
Q

60 year old male with widely metastatic lesions and elevated AFP. The following is seen in peritoneal washings. Arginase-1 positive on cell block.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

(endothelial wrapping shown in reverse image)

  • Well-differentiated carcinomas resemble hepatocytes but with larger nuclei, macronucleoli, bile ducts absent
  • Poorly differentiated carcinomas show no resemblance to hepatocytes
  • Numerous dyshesive, bare nuclei in background
  • Thick, disordered plates or balls of neoplastic cells, focally lined by sinusoidal endothelial cells (endothelial wrapping)
  • Large tissue fragments traversed by blood vessels (transgressing vessels)
  • May show presence of bile, Mallory-Denk bodies, hyaline inclusions, or fat in cytoplasm
  • Fibrolamellar variant has neoplastic cells that are larger with oncocytic cytoplasm
  • Background fragments of fibrous stroma may be seen
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4
Q

Peritoneal washing. Diagnosis?

A

Benign Mesothelial Cells

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5
Q

45 year old female with a history of HSIL.

A

Radiation Changes

  • Cytomegaly and karyomegaly with normal N:C ratios
  • Degenerative changes in nuclei and cytoplasm with smudging and vacuolization (white arrow)
  • Variation in nuclear size and shape with bi- and multinucleation
  • Single or multiple nucleoli with coexisting repair
  • Polychromatic staining of cytoplasm
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6
Q

34 year old female with small, simple thyroid cyst. FNA performed.

What category, based on the Bethesda System for Reporting Thyroid Cytology, should be assigned?

A

Nondiagnostic or unsatisfactory (ND/Usat)

(Acellular specimen)

  • Cyst fluid only
    • Cyst fluid ± histiocytes but lacking 6 groups with 10 cells or thick colloid
    • Risk of malignancy is very low if simple cyst, < 3 cm, and in proper clinical setting (ultrasound evidence)
    • Since pathologist may not know clinical scenario, there is small chance of intracystic papillary carcinoma
    • Hence, best to report as nondiagnostic, cystic contents only
  • Virtually acellular specimen (shown in reverse pic)
    • Specimen with < 6 groups with 10 cells
  • Other
    • Material not representative of thyroid (e.g., muscle or trachea)
    • Specimen obscured by blood, artifact, ultrasound gel, or poor fixation/staining, which makes accurate interpretation difficult
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7
Q

60 year old male with flank pain and hematuria. Well circumscribed, 4cm right renal pole mass noted on imaging. FNA performed.

Diagnosis?

A

Renal Oncocytoma

  • Cytopathology
    • Hypercellular aspirate with granular background
    • Loosely cohesive clusters and isolated cells with distinct cytoplasmic membranes
    • Abundant granular cytoplasm and uniform round nuclei
    • Absent or scant mitoses
    • Cell block: Rounded nests of uniform eosinophilic cells
  • Macroscopic
    • Circumscribed mahogany brown mass (mean: 4.4 cm) with central stellate scar
  • Microscopic
    • Nests of uniform cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm and loose reticular stroma
  • Ancillary Tests
    • Immunohistochemistry: AE1/AE3(+), pax-8(+), CD117(+), DOG1(+), vimentin (-), RCC(-), cyclin-D1(-), CK7 [usually(-)]
  • Electron microscopy: Cytoplasm packed with mitochondria
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8
Q

75 year old male presents with abdominal pain, weight loss and hyperbilirubinemia.

Mass noted on imaging. FNA performed.

A

Pancreatic Ductal Adenocarcinoma

  • Cytopathology
    • “Drunken honeycombs” with irregular spacing and overlap of nuclei
    • “Tombstone” isolated malignant cells
    • Nuclear enlargement with marked size variation (≥ 4:1 within same cell group)
    • Nuclear contour irregularities and irregular chromatin distribution
    • Cytoplasmic mucin
  • Ancillary Tests
    • Positive: CK7, CK8/18/CAM5.2, CK19, CK20 (33%), MUC5AC, mesothelin, S100P, pVHL, IMP-3, maspin
    • Negative: MUC2, chromogranin/synaptophysin, trypsin/chymotrypsin
    • Mutations in KRAS (~ 90%), CDKN2A (> 95%), TP53 (~ 60%), SMAD4(deletion in ~ 50%)
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9
Q

40 year old female with HPV+ history. Screening pap performed.

A

High Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HSIL)

  • Cytopathology:
    • Often single cells, may be in clusters.
    • Blue cells - nucleus and cytoplasm.
    • Increased NC ratio - key feature.
    • Irregular nuclear border.
    • Chromatin clumping.
  • Note:
    • Nucleoli uncommon - should prompt consideration of squamous carcinoma.
  • DDx:
    • LSIL.
    • ASC-H.
    • Squamous carcinoma.
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10
Q

What are the three (3) cytology “re-examination requirements” set forth by CLIA?

A
  1. Prospective re-screening of 10% of negative pap cases (“10% re-screen”)
  2. Retrospective review of all negative paps from women with a newly diagnosed high-grade squamous intrapithelial lesion (HSIL) (“5-year lookback”)
  3. Review of discrepancies between pap and biopsy results
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11
Q

Findings from an FNA of a parotid mass in a 45 year old female. PAS+.

What is the genetic alteration associated with this entity?

A

t(12;15)(p13;q25)

Causing ETV6/NTRK3 fusion gene

(Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma)

  • Features:
    • Large cells with abundant cytoplasm.
    • Small nuclei.
    • +/-Lymphocytic infiltrate.
    • Solid and microcystic growth pattern.
    • +/-Cystic changes lined by hobnail cells - useful feature.
  • Stains:
    • PAS+
    • Mammoglobin +
    • S-100 +
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12
Q

FNA of a central lung mass shown below with pap stain and cellblock.

What three (3) immunohistochemical markers will likely be positive?

A

Synaptophysin (most sensitive), Chromogranin A (most specific) and CD56

(Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung)

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13
Q

Of the following genetic alterations, which are most common/important in (each of) Adenocarcinoma and Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the lung, respectively?

  1. EGFR
  2. ALK
  3. CDKN2A
  4. TP53
  5. PD-1/PDL-1
A
  • Adenocarcinoma:
    • EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor): targeted therapy (Erlotinib and Osimertinib)
    • ALK (Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase): targeted therapy (Crizotinib and Ceritinib)
  • Squamous Cell Carcinoma:
    • TP53: almost universally mutated.
    • CDKN2A (Cyclin Dependant Kinase N2A): mutated in approx. 75% of SqCC. Codes for p16.
    • PD-1/PDL-1 (Programmed Death Receptor and Ligand): targeted therapy (Nivolumab and Pembroluzimab).
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14
Q

What are the grading classifications of Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumors (PanNET) and how are they divided?

A
  • Graded by proliferation rate. Limited to well-differentiated pancreatic endocrine tumors; if poorly differentiated, called neuroendocrine carcinoma (rare)
    • Well differentiated: Subdivided into low grade (G1), intermediate grade (G2) and high grade (G3).
      • G1: < 2 mitoses per 10 HPF or < 3% Ki-67 index
      • G2: 2-20 mitoses per 10 HPF or 3-20% Ki-67 index
      • G3: >20 mitoses per 10 HPF or >20% Ki-67 index
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15
Q

Pap smear. Diagnosis?

A

Low Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (LSIL)

  • General
    • Usually regress, i.e. will disappear on their own.
    • Low inter-rater concordance.
  • Cytopathology Features:
    • Nuclei 3x size of intermediate cell - key feature. †
    • Irregular nuclear border.
    • +/-Perinuclear ‘cavity’ (clearing).
      • The best perinuclear halos have a sharp punched-out edge.
    • Chromatin clumping/irregular & granular.
  • Note:
    • † Nucleus diameter ~21-24 μm.
    • In the context of exams: 2 of criteria 1-3 is enough to call LSIL.
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16
Q

What are the 2016 Bethesda guidelines for management of a Nondiagnostic/Unsatisfactory thyroid FNA?

What is the risk of malignancy?

A

Repeat FNA with ultrasound guidance

Risk of malignancy: 5-10%

(actual risk varies with type/structure of nodule. Nondiagnostic FNAs from solid nodules have higher risk vs those with >50% cystic change)

17
Q

What are the 2016 Bethesda guidelines for AUS/FLUS in a thyroid FNA?

What is the risk of malignancy?

A

Repeat FNA, molecular testing or lobectomy

Risk of malignancy: 10-30%

18
Q

What are the 2016 Bethesda guidelines for Follicular Neoplasm or Suspicious for Follicular Neoplasm in a thyroid FNA?

What is the risk of malignancy?

A

Molecular testing or lobectomy

Risk of malignancy: 25-40%

19
Q

What are the 2016 Bethesda guidelines for Suspicious for Malignancy or Malignancy in a thyroid FNA?

What is the risk of malignancy in each?

A

Near-total thyroidectomy or lobectomy

Risk of malignancy:

“Suspicious for Malignancy”: 50-75%

“Malignant”: 97-99%

20
Q

The following is seen in a conventional prep pap smear of a 50 year old woman.

Diagnosis and reporting?

A

Benign endometrial cells in a woman >45 years of age (reportable).

21
Q

What are the minimum required reportable elements of a computer assisted pap screen?

A
  1. Type of instrumentation used.
  2. Whether or not the specimen was successfully processed by the device (regardless of result).
  3. Additional information depends upon whether there is manual screening/review of the specimen (the type of review may be indicated at the discretion of the laboratory; e.g., full manual screening, review of device identified fields of view only).

*If the automated screening provides an interpretation of the specimen that replaces manual screening/review, then this result and any adequacy data derived from the computer assessment must be stated in the report.

22
Q

Pap smear in 25 year old female. Diagnosis?

A

Trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis)

  • Low power: grey blob with a nucleus, may be pear-shaped:
    • Size: approximately 30 micrometres.
    • Shape: usually oval, may have teardrop-shaped.
    • Flagellum - hair-thin locomotive stucture, usu. barely visible at 200X - diagnostic feature.
  • Cytopathological associations:
    • Acute inflammation (neutrophils), often marked - key feature at low power.
    • Reactive squamous cells with:
      • Nucleoli,
      • Perinuclear halos, and
      • Moth-eaten cytoplasm; cytoplasm that has multiple vacuoles with star-like spaces.
  • Notes:
    • Trichomonas is tricky - it is easy to miss if one is not suspicious, in the context of inflammation.
    • May vaguely resemble a neutrophil:
      • Flagellum useful to differentiate.
      • Neutrophil has multiple lobulations of the nucleus.
    • May be seen in association of Leptothrix.
      • Appearance: long, hair-like.
      • Size: ~0.5 x 20 micrometres.
23
Q

Pleural fluid. Diagnosis?

A

Adenocarcinoma of the Lung

  • Nucleolus.
    • Good ones are visible with 10X objective (excludes SCLC).
    • Look for subtle large ones - at higher power.
    • Neuroendocrine tumours occasionally may appear to have nucleoli - one should see good nucleoli in 3-4 cells in one field.
  • Abundant cytoplasm - virtually excludes small cell carcinoma.
  • Vacuoles with mucin (pink discolouration) - virtually diagnostic, though only seen occasionally.
  • Eccentric nucleus.
  • Negatives: NO moulding.
    • Important if no nucleolus obvious.
24
Q

Liver FNA. Elevated AFP. Diagnosis?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

  • Architecture - single cells and large clusters:
    • Cohesive clusters of cells (hepatocytes) surrounded by endothelial cells - diagnostic.
    • Capillaries traversing the fragments.
  • Cells:
    • Central nucleus +/-prominent nucleoli, +/-nuclear inclusions.
    • +/-Multinucleation.
    • +/-Yellow cytoplasmic pigment (bile).
    • +/-Nuclear atypia.
    • +/-High NC ratio.
  • Notes:
    • Low grade HCC is composed of cytologically normal appearing cells; the arrangement is what is diagnostic of malignancy.
    • Fibrolamellar HCC has very large cells.
25
Q

FNA of sacrococcygeal mass in 50 year old male. Diagnosis?

A

Chordoma

  • Abundant myxoid background
  • Tumour cells singly or in groups or cords
  • Network of myxoid material round single cells and groups
  • Many tumour cells have vacuolated cytoplasm
  • Physaliferous cells.

*BELOW: Chordoma w/o characteristic myxoid background, imititating clear cell carcinoma. Other diagnostic pitfalls include chondrosarcoma and mucous producing adenocarcinomas.

26
Q

FNA of cystic breast lesion.

Diagnosis?

A

Benign Apocrine Cells

(in benign fibrocystic change)

  • Proteinaceous granular debris
  • Macrophages and a moderate number of benign apocrine cells
    • Occasionally, the apocrine cells show degenerative changes that may be mistaken for atypia
27
Q

CSF of elderly patient.

Diagnosis?

A

Metastatic Adenocarcinoma

  • The cytological features depend on the primary site
  • Carcinomas form cohesive sheets and nests of atypical cells
  • Nucleolar prominence
  • Necrotic background
  • Adenocarcinomas may have intracytoplasmic mucin droplets and form glandular structures
  • Squamous carcinomas have single cells and sheets of cells with focal keratinisation and hyperchromatic, and atypical nuclei
28
Q

68 year old female with PMB. Liquid based cervical cytology specimen obtained.

Diagnosis?

A

Malignant Melanoma

  • Pleomorphic single cells or dissociating groups
  • Eccentric nuclei and prominent nucleoli
  • Intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions
  • Melanin may be visible
  • Tumour diathesis.
  • The diagnosis of melanoma of the cervix may be suggested by exfoliative or FNA cytology
29
Q

58 year old male, recently undergone chemotherapy for high grade urothelial carcinoma. Urine cytology shown.

Diagnosis?

A

Polyomavirus (BK virus)

  • Human polyomavirus infected cells have a high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and the blue to green cytoplasm is often eccentrically visible along one side of the cell to give the appearance of a comet.
  • The inclusions may be so degenerate that the infected cell nuclei have a cleared or empty appearance.
  • The inclusions may be seen without associated cytoplasm, imitating a stripped nucleus, which is unusual for a high-grade urothelial carcinoma.
  • These infected cells are always seen singly and are generally small.
  • Usually hyperchromatic, engendering the name “decoy cells”.
  • Immunocompromised patients are especially vulnerable to BK virus reactivation (chemo).
30
Q

Thyroid FNA. Diagnosis?

A

Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma

  • Cellular aspirate with little colloid
  • Papillary fronds and sheets of cells
  • Dense blue-grey cytoplasm with well-defined cell boundaries
  • Intranuclear inclusions
  • Nuclear grooves
  • Psammoma bodies
  • Multinucleate histiocytes particularly where there is cystic degeneration
  • ‘Chewing-gum’ colloid.
31
Q

Pleural fluid from a 28 year old male with HIV. Diagnosis?

A

Blastomyces infection.

  • Usually Blastomyces dermatitidis - fungus.
    • May be in the oral cavity.
  • Features:
    • Broad-based budding yeast – is Blastomyces.
      • The interface between two separating fungi, i.e. fungi in the process of reproducing, is very large.
  • DDx:
    • Cryptosporidiosis.
32
Q

Smear (A) and CSF cytology (B). Diagnosis?

A

Chordoma

  • Cytological findings:
    • Myxoid stroma
    • Polyhedral vacuolated physaliphorous cells with rounded nuclei in cords and strands.
  • Diagnostic pitfalls:
    • May be difficult to distinguish from chondrosarcoma intraoperatively.
33
Q

What are the criteria for adequacy and quality indicators in anal pap smears?

A
  • Not well defined, but generally accepted as:
    • 2,000 - 3,000 nucleated squamous cells (for conventional smears).
      • Equivalent to an average of 1 -2 NSC/HPF for ThinPrep
      • Equivalent to an average of 3 -6 NSC/HPF for SurePath
  • Quality indicator:
    • Adequate sampling of anal transition zone.
      • Rectal columnar cells and/or squamous metaplastic cells
34
Q

Obese male with SOB and 20lb weight loss. Thoracentesis performed.

A

Large B Cell Lymphoma

  • More readily diagnosed by BAL or FNA than in sputum
  • Large cell lymphomas easier to diagnose than small/mixed
  • Loosely aggregated lymphoid cells, intact cytoplasm
  • Vesicular nuclei, no moulding, nucleoli visible
  • Subtyping possible in BAL and FNA material.
  • Ddx:
    • Carcinoma - esp. small cell carcinoma.
    • Anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL).
    • Follicular lymphoma.
      • If a nodular architecture is present it is follicular lymphoma.
    • Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) - in organ transplant recipients.
    • Primary effusion lymphoma - seen in HIV infections.
    • Mixed cellularity Hodgkin lymphoma - esp. for T-cell/histiocyte-rich large B cell lymphoma.
    • B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
    • Other small round cell tumours.
35
Q
A