Missed MBE Questions J24 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Non-character purposes for admitting crime or bad acts

Evidence

MIMIC

A

Motive
Intent
absense of Mistake
Identity
Common scheme or plan
Other (knowledge, opportunity, conciousness of guilt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Evidence of an organization’s routine business practice

Evidence

A

Admissible to prove that they acted in accordance with that practice on a particular occasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mx for summary judgment

Civ Pro

A

Request that a court enter a judgment without a full trial. Movant must show:

  1. no genuine dispute of material fact
  2. the evidence is legally insufficient for a jury to find in the non-movant’s favor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Defenses that are waived if not asserted in a pre-answer motion or answer

Civ Pro

A
  1. lack of PJ
  2. improper venue
  3. insufficient process or service of process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tag Jurisdiction Method

Civ Pro

A

PJ acquired by serving the D with formal process while the D is voluntarily in the forum state - even if unrelated to P’s claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FJR

Civ Pro

A

Fed appellate court generally has no jurisdiction to hear an appeal until the district court has issued a final judgment on the merits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Omnibus Motion Rule

Civ Pro

A

Requires that all FRCP defenses be consolidated in a single pre-answer mx

PJ, venue, process/service = waived if not in above

State claim, state defense, joinder = ok in answer/post answer

SMJ = never waived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Asserting defenses (read)

Civ Pro

A

Most are waived if not asserted in the D’s answer.

Failure to join a required party or failure to state a claim on which relief can be granted = until end of trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Amendments of Pleadings

Civ Pro

A

Once as a matter of course within 21 days

  1. after serving that pleading or
  2. if a responsive pleading is required, after being served with a responsive pleading or motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General vs. Specific Jdx

Civ Pro

A

General: D has continued or systemic contacts with forum state and is “essentially at home”

Specific: P’s claim arises from or is closely related to D’s contact with the forum state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Failure to make required disclosures - sanctions

Civ Pro

A
  1. no use of evidence
  2. opposing party’s reasonable expenses
  3. inform jury of non-disc.
  4. impose any other appropriate sanction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Deadline to file notice of appeal

Civ Pro

A

Generally 30 days but 60 dys if one of the parties is the US, fed agency, or fed officer or employee sued for conduct related to gov duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Venue

Civ Pro

A

Proper in any fed district where:

  1. any D resides
  2. a subst. part of the events that occured or property at issue is located
  3. and D subj. to court’s PJ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Statutory impleader actions

Civ Pro

A
  1. SMJ requires at least $500 AIM and min diversity between 2 or more claimants
  2. PJ exists over any claimant who was served with process anywhere in the US
  3. venue proper in any judicial district where any claimant resides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Claim Preclusion (Res Judicata)

Civ Pro

A

Valid final judgment on merits prohibits relitigating identical claims between identical parties

Claims = identical = STO
Parties + identical = occupy same roles in both actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Deposition limits

Civ Pro

A
  1. 10 depo limit
  2. depos after initial planning conf.
  3. deponent already deposed

Needs court’s leave if violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Collateral Order Doctrine

Civ Pro

A

Allows an immediate appeal from an interlocutory order that:

  1. conclusively resolves an important issue that
  2. is separate from the merits of the claim and
  3. canot be effectively reviewed on appeal from a final judgment
18
Q

Response to Request for Admission

Civ Pro

A

A party’s admission or failure to adequately respond within 30 days after being served with the request results in the matter being conclusively established in the action

19
Q

When considering a mx for JMOL, court must:

Civ Pro

A
  1. view the evidence and draw all reasonable inferences in favor of the nonmovant
  2. disregard evidence favorable to the movant that the jury is not required to believe
  3. NOT consider the credibility witnesses or evaluate the weight of the evidence
20
Q

Party’s identical disclosures must include

Civ Pro

A

all documents, electronically stored info, and tangible things in the party’s possession that the party may use to support P’s claims and defenses. NOT those of the opposing party

21
Q

Issue Preclusion (collateral estoppel)

Civ Pro

A

Precludes the relitigation of issues that were actually litigated, determined, and essential to valid final judgment

22
Q

100 mile bulge rule

Civ Pro

A

Establishes PJ over a party

  1. added to the suit through impleader or reqired joinder and
  2. served with process within 100 miles of the fed court where the suit is pending
23
Q

Exception to BER when evidence is not available

Evidence

A

Allows extrinsic content to prove if other party had evidence, was put on notice, and did not produce the evidence

24
Q

BER only applies when

Evidence

A

the contents of a recording, writing, or photo are at issue - not when a witness is testifying based on personal knowledge

25
Q

BER in jury trials - what does the jury determine?

Evidence

A

Whether:
1. an asserted document ever existed
2. another doc produced at hearing or trial is original
3. other evidence of content accurately reflects the doc’s content

26
Q

If an out of court statement is offered for anything other than the TOMA, upon timely request, the court must

Evidence

A
  1. limit the admissibility of the statement to its nonhearsay purpose and
  2. instruct the jury accordingly
27
Q

State of mind exception includes

Evidence

A

Motive, intent, plan and admissible as substantive proof that the declarant later acted in accordance with that state of mind

28
Q

Prior consistent statement is not hearsay if

Evidence

A
  1. made by dec who testified and is subject to cross
  2. offered to rebut a charge of fabrication/improper influence
  3. was made before any motive or fabrication arose
29
Q

Hearings on prelim questions must be held outside jury’s presence if

Evidence

A
  1. hearing involves admissibility of a confession
  2. a D in a criminal case is a witness and requests it
  3. justice so requires
30
Q

Leading questions barred on direct unless

Evidence

A
  1. witness is a child or an adult with difficulty communicating
  2. the question is needed to develop witness’s testimony
  3. witness aligned with adverse party
31
Q

A court is not bound by evidentiary rules, except those regarding privilege, in determining preliminary questions of fact relating to the admissibility of evidence

Evidence

A

Read Only

32
Q

If a witness’s character for truthfulness has been attacked, the party who called the witness may rehabilitate the charaacter by offering:

Evidence

A
  1. reputation testimony
  2. opinion testimony
  3. testimony on cross re specific instances of conduct
33
Q

If a party asks to exclude witnesses from the court room, court must exclude them unless the witness is

Evidence

A
  1. the party or designated rep
  2. person who’s presence is essential to the case
  3. person authorized by statute to be present
34
Q

Offers to compromise are allowed IF

Evidence

A

Bias
Negating intentions of undue delay
Proving efforts to obstruct criminal justice

35
Q

Statements affecting property interests not HS if

Evidence

A
  1. matter stated was relevant to the documents purpose and
  2. later dealings with the property do not contradict the truth purported in the statement/document

Property can be money

36
Q

Creation of implied in fact contract

Contracts

A
  1. party intentionally engages or fails to engage in conduct and
  2. party knows or has reason to know that assent can be inferred
37
Q

Common law contract modifications

K

A

Only binding if there is new consideration - both parties need to alter their duties in some way

38
Q

Offer to buy goods for immediate shipment can be accepted by promising to ship or shipping. (Read only)

K

A

Once the offer has been accepted, it cannot be revoked because the contract has been formed.

39
Q

Preexisting duty rule and payments of debt

K

A

A debtor’s promise to pay a liquidated debt is NOT consideration for a creditor’s return promise

40
Q

Duress

K

A

Physical force
imminent harm
improper threat w no reasonable alt but to succumb

41
Q

Warranty of merchantibility in UCC K sales

K

A

Implied in all sales with merchants - dealer in goods of that kind

42
Q
A