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What I Don't Know > Missed Details > Flashcards

Missed Details Flashcards

This a deck of the missed details in the powerpoints

1
Q

What are the weeks for the embryonic period?

A

Weeks 1-8

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2
Q

When does the fetal period start and long does it go for?

A

Begins on week 9 and goes until birth

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3
Q

What is the embryonic period characterized by?

A

The development of structures/organs

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4
Q

What is the fetal period characterized by?

A

Growth of structures/organs

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5
Q

When do the Primordial germ cells appear?

A

In the yolk sac in the 4th week of interuterine life and migrate to indifferent gonads

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6
Q

How many sperm do males produce per ejaculate?

A

300-600 million sperm

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7
Q

Why does meiosis take longer to complete than mitosis?

A

Synapsis occurs at prophase I (diplotene)

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8
Q

What occurs at the 5th month of female fetal life?

A

The primary oocytes are formed and arrested in prophase of meiosis I until puberty

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9
Q

What is the conditioning of sperm in the female reproductive tract which lasts 7 hours?

A

Capacitation

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10
Q

When does the acrosome reaction occur?

A

After binding to the zona pellucida, induced by zona proteins?

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11
Q

What does the zona pellucida secrete during the acrosome reaction?

A

Acrosin and trypsin like substance

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12
Q

What is the order for spermatozoon penetration?

A
  1. Corona Radiata
  2. Zona Pellucida
  3. Oocyte Cell Membrane
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13
Q

What must degenerate for implantation to occur?

A

The Zona Pellucida

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14
Q

Where does the blastocyst implant?

A

Within the posterior or anterior of the functional layer of the endometrium

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15
Q

Where are the most common sites for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla of the Uterine Tube

Rectouterine Pouch

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16
Q

What implants first in the uterus?

A

Embryonic Pole of the blastocyst

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17
Q

A mutiple pregnancy, hydatidiform mole, or gestational trophoblastic disease can be predicted by what?

A

High hCG levels

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18
Q

A spontaneous abortion or ectopic pregnancy can be predicted by what?

A

Low hCG levels

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19
Q

What is a partial mole?

A

When one oocyte is fertilized by 2 sperm; triploidy sex chromosome (69XXY)

Has an abnormal small placenta and vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester

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20
Q

Fertilization of enucleate ovum (no female pronucleus) by normal sperm (no embryo)

The tissue appear as a cluster of grapes

A

A complete mole

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21
Q

Moles produce ___ levels of hCG

A

High

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22
Q

Moles may produce ___ tumors

A

benign/malignant tumors (choriocarcinoma)

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23
Q

What induces forebrain development?

A

Prechordal plate

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24
Q

What will give rise to the future opening of the oral cavity?

A

Oropharyngeal membrane

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25
Q

What does the caudal end of the embryonic disc form?

A

Cloacal membrane

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26
Q

Tumor associated with gastrulation? What is it derived from?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

Tumor at the base of coccyx, derived from remnants of primitive streak

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27
Q

Tumor associated with notochord? What is it derived from?

A

Chordoma

Slow growing tumor arising from cellular remnant of notochord

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28
Q

When gastrulation itself is disrupted by genetic abnormalities what may this result in? What kind of appearance does this have?

A

Sirenomelia/ caudal dysgenesis

Insufficient mesoderm is formed in the causal most region of the embryo. Results in a mermaid appearance because this mesoderm contributes to the formation of the lower limb, urogenital system, lumbrosacral vertebrae failure.

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29
Q

What disappears in the placenta from the 3rd month to birth?

A

Cytotrophoblast

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30
Q

What do lipophilic hormones usually end in?

A

-ol or -one

They are usually alcohols or ketones

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31
Q

What do hydrophilic hormone usually end in?

A

-ine or -in

These are usually amino acid and peptide hormones

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32
Q

What type of response is faster ion channel or G-Protein Coupled?

A

Ion Channel

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33
Q

What type of response is slower: ion channel or G-Protein Coupled?

A

G-Protein Coupled

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34
Q

Caffeine, Theophylline, and theobromine, which are all found in coffee, tea, and cocoa respectively all ___ neuron excitability

A

Increase

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35
Q

This agent found in Coffee increases neuron excitability

A

Caffeine

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36
Q

This agent found in tea increases neuron excitability

A

Theophylline

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37
Q

This agent found in cocoa increases neuron excitability

A

Theobromine

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38
Q

What drugs inhibit transcription?

A

Actinomycin D
-binds to the DNA double helix

Rifampin
-binds to the beta subunit

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39
Q

___ identifies and binds to the promoter cite

A

TFIID

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40
Q

___ recruits RNA pol II

A

TFIIF

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41
Q

___ uses its helices activity to unwind DNA

A

TFIIH

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42
Q

This disease results from a nucleotide change at an exon-intron junction, precluding removal of the intron and therefore leading to diminished or absent synthesis of the B-globin chain protein

Presents with hemolytic anemia

A

B-thalassemia

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43
Q

Which biological technique can alternative splicing can be detected by?

A

Northern blot

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44
Q

What is the major site of purine and pyrimidine nucleotide biosynthesis?

A

Liver

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45
Q

In what places is the purine salvage pathway important to save energy?

A

Brain and lymphocytes

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46
Q

This autosomal recessive genetic disorder in purine catabolism affects T-cell immunity, while B-cell immunity is more or less normal. This disorder is less severe to ADA deficiency, but has recurrent mild to moderate infections

A

Purine Nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency

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47
Q

How can you treat ADA deficiency?

A

Gene therapy

Bone marrow stem cell transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy

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48
Q

Deposits called tophi are present in which disorder.

A

Gout

The deposits of uric acid in the kidney lead to stone formation (urolithiasis)

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49
Q

What can be seen is the diseases listed below:

  • mutant hyperactive PRPP synthetase
  • HGPRT deficiency
  • Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
  • Inherited fructose intolerance
  • Increase degradation/turnover of cells
A

Overproduction of Uric acid

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50
Q

What can be seen in the defects listed below:

  • Renal failure
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Alcoholism
A

Retention of Uric Acid

Lactic acid interferes with the excretion of uric acid -> hyperuricemia

alcoholism leads to lactic acidosis

Increased blood uric acid level may lead to gout

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51
Q

___ catabolism produces ammonia, CO2, B-alanine, and B-aminoisobutyrate

A

Pyrimidine

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52
Q

___ deficiency is associated with MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes of Young)

A

Glucokinase

53
Q

___ inhibits enolase in glycolysis

A

Fluoride

54
Q

In the presence of ___ the production of ATP does not take place in the first substrate level phosphorylation step of glycolysis

A

Arsenate (pentavalent arsenic)

55
Q

Myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, uncontrolled hemorrhage, alcohol toxicity, PDH deficiency, severe muscular exercise, Von Gierke’s disease, and MELAS can all cause what?

A

Lactic Acidosis

56
Q

TCA cycle inhibitors
Fluoroacetate inhibits:
Arsenite inhibits:
Malonate inhibits:

A

Aconitase; a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; succinate dehydrogenase

57
Q

Defects in this metabolic pathway leads to low blood glucose levels and the absence of ketone bodies in the blood

A

Beta Oxidation

58
Q

___-oxidation generates dicarboxylic acids, which are water soluble and excreted out. When does this become important?

A

Omega

It is important in the conditions that limit beta oxidation

59
Q

Which receptor causes:

  • mydriasis
  • vasoconstriction
  • increases blood pressure
  • increases volume return to the heart

Where is it located?

A

Alpha-1

Located in vascular smooth muscle, gastrointestinal tract, and the eye

60
Q

What receptor causes:

  • decreased motility
  • decreased NE release
  • decreased aqueous humor production

Where is this located?

A

Alpha-2

Found in the GI tract

61
Q

What receptor causes:

  • increased HR
  • increased Renin
  • increased contractility

Where is it located?

A

Beta-1

Located in the heart, kidney, and fat cells

62
Q

What receptor causes:

  • vasodilation
  • brochodialation
  • increased aqueous humor production

Where is it found?

A

Beta-2

Found in the bronchioles and vascular smooth muscle

63
Q

What receptor is responsible for actions in the CNS?

Where is it found?

A

M1 receptor

CNS

64
Q

What receptor causes:

  • decreased HR
  • decreased contractility

Where is it located?

A

M2

Heart

65
Q

What receptor causes

  • miosis
  • lens accommodation
  • increased lacrimation
  • bronchoconstriction
  • increased Gastric acid secretion
  • increased salivation
  • increased peristalsis
  • bladder contraction
  • sweating (sympathetic)

Where is it found?

A

M3 receptor

Found in the GI tract, bronchioles, eye, and bladder

66
Q

Which group of amino acids serve as an attachment for phosphate group in proteins?

A

Hydroxyl group

Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine

67
Q

Which group of amino acids participate in hydrogen bonding in protein structure?

A

Hydroxyl group

Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine

68
Q

Which group of amino acids serve as an attachment of carbohydrate moiety in glycoproteins?

A

Hydroxyl group: Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine

Amide group: Asparagine, Glutamine

69
Q

Which group of amino acids participate in hydrogen bonding in protein structure at alkaline pH?

A

Sulfhydryl group

Cysteine

70
Q

Which group of amino acids are a component of the active site of many enzymes?

A

Sulfhydryl group

Cysteine

71
Q

Which group of amino acids serve as stabilization of tertiary structure of proteins?

A

Sulfhydryl group

Cysteine

72
Q

Which amino acid’s unique geometry contributes to the formation of the fibrous structure of collagen?

A

Proline

73
Q

Which group of amino acids tend to cluster in the interior of the protein molecule in an aqueous medium known as the hydrophobic effect?

A

Nonpolar amino acids

74
Q

Which group of amino acids are found on the outside surface of integral proteins, interacting with the lipid environment?

A

Nonpolar amino acids

75
Q

Which groups of amino acids stabilize tertiary and quaternary structures of protein by forming ionic bonds?

A

Charged polar amino acids

76
Q

Which group of amino acids are proton donors?

A

Amino acids with acidic side chains

Aspartic acid, Glutamic Acids

77
Q

Which group of amino acids are proton acceptors?

A

Amino acids with basic side chains

Lysine, Arginine, Histidine

78
Q

At physiologic pH, the R groups of Lysine and Arginine are ___

A

Fully ionized and positively charged

79
Q

At physiologic pH, the side chains of Aspartic Acid and Glutamic Acid are ___

A

Fully ionized containing a negative charge

80
Q

Amino acids are fully protonated at ___ pH

A

Very low

81
Q

Amino acids are fully deprotonated at ___ pH

A

Very High

82
Q

Heat, vigorous mixing, X-Rays, UV-Radiation, etc, are all forms of what type of denaturation?

A

Physical

83
Q

Acids, alkali, organic solvents, salts of heavy metals, etc, are all example of what kind of denaturation?

A

Chemical

84
Q

The biological effects of denaturation include:

  • Biological activity is ___
  • Viscosity is ___
  • Proteins become ___
A

Lost
Increased
Less soluble

85
Q

Which membrane lipid is:

  • major
  • located mainly in outer leaflet
  • derives from ceramide
A

Sphingolipids

86
Q

Which membrane lipid is:

  • minor but essential; ~2% of membrane lipids
  • exclusive time outer leaflet
  • most made from ceramide
A

Glycolipids

87
Q

Which membrane lipid is:

  • major
  • amphipathic
  • interdigitates between phospholipids in inner and outer leaflets
  • helps maintain structural integrity of plasma membrane
A

Cholesterol

88
Q

T/F: The plasma membrane is symmetric

A

False. The plasma membrane is Asymmetrical

89
Q

Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:

  • amobarbital
  • rotenone
  • piercidine A
A

Complex 1

90
Q

Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:

  • TTFA (Thenoyl trifluoro acetone)
  • Carboxin
A

Complex II

91
Q

Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:

  • Antimycin A
  • BAL (British anti-Lewisite)
A

Complex III

92
Q

Which complex of the ETC do the following inhibit:

  • cyanide
  • carbon monoxide (CO)
  • sodium azide
  • hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
A

Complex IV

93
Q

What is Oligomycin an inhibitor of?

A

ATP Synthase

94
Q

What is a plant toxin that inhibits ATP transport (adenine nucleotide translocator) from mitochondrial matrix (ATP-ADP exchange) across inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

Atracyloside

95
Q

Chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22 are ___

A

Acrocentric

96
Q

Lower motor neurons (Efferent motor fibers) are found where?

A

The ventral gray of the spinal cord (all 31 segments)

97
Q

Where are parasympathetic nerve fibers found?

A

Cranial-sacral regions

98
Q

Where are the sympathetic nerve fibers found?

A

Interomediolateral gray, thoracic and lumbar cord

99
Q

What are intrafusal fibers innervated by?

A

Gamma motor neuron

100
Q

What are extrafusal fibers innervated by?

A

Lower Motor Neuron (alpha motor neuron)

101
Q

What are the nuclear bag and nuclear chain receptors on intrafusal fiber innervated by?

A

Motor afferent fibers (Type Ia)

Chain by Type II

102
Q

Are afferent fibers motor or sensory?

A

Sensory

103
Q

Are efferent fibers motor or sensory?

A

Motor

104
Q

What motor afferent fiber is the most rapidly conductive and most myelinated?

A

Type I

105
Q

What motor afferent fiber is the slowest conductive myelinated fiber?

A

Type III

106
Q

What motor afferent fiber is unmyelinated?

A

Type IV

107
Q

What is the myotatic (muscle stretch) reflex innervated by (afferent/efferent)?

A

Type Ia fiber (afferent)
LMN (efferent)

Pathway:

  1. Autogenic contraction (feedback to the same muscle to make it contract back to where it was)
  2. Synergistic contraction
  3. Reciprocal inhibition to antagonist
  4. Renshaw inhibition (stops the reflex before you over correct it)
108
Q

In cystic fibrosis, the trinucleotide deletion causes which amino acid to be removed from the final protein?

A

Phenylalanine

109
Q

What cardiac glycoside drugs are specific inhibitors of Na+, K+-ATPase?

A

Ouabain and digitalis

110
Q

What vitamin does Y-carboxylation require? Which amino acid is this performed on?

A

Vitamin K; glutamic acid in certain Ca2+-binding proteins

111
Q

What is the name of the disease in which patients exhibit sensitivity to damage caused by DNA cross-linking agents and are susceptible to developing acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and exhibit congenital skeletal malformation and progressive aplastic anemia.

A

Fanconi Anemia

112
Q

What disease is caused by a defect in the ATM gene in which patients exhibit sensitivity to damage caused by X-rays. They have numerous oculocutaneous telangiectasias and have progressive cerebral at ataxia and are relatively immunodeficient.

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia

113
Q

Ribose, galactose, and glucose are (ketones/aldehydes)?

A

Aldose sugars

114
Q

Fructose is a (ketone/aldehyde)?

A

Keto sugar

115
Q

What is the name for a group of diseases that are caused by defective lysosomal degradation of glycosphingolipids?

A

Sphingolipidoses

116
Q

Where are cerebrosides found?

A

Brain and Peripheral Nervous Tissue

117
Q

What lipid is a precursor of bile acids, steroid hormones, and vitamin D?

A

Cholesterol

118
Q

What plasma lipoprotein transports digested and absorbed lipids from the intestine to other body tissues?

A

Chylomicrons

119
Q

What plasma liproproteins transports TAG from the liver to extra hepatic tissues?

A

Very Low Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)

120
Q

What plasma lipoproteins transports cholesterol from lice to extra hepatic tissues?

A

Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL)

121
Q

What plasma lipoprotein transports cholesterol from extra hepatic tissues to the liver?

A

High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

122
Q

What lipid functions in promoting inflammation, regulation of blood pressure, and control of platelet aggregation?

A

Eicosanoids

Prostaglandins, prostacyclin, leukotrienes, thromboxanes

123
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as aspirin (activate/inhibit) the prostaglandin synthesis?

A

Inhibit

124
Q

Where do molecules in the VOMIT, ketone bodies, heme, and propionyl CoA enter into the TCA cycle?

A

Succinyl CoA

125
Q

What amino acid can a-ketoglutarate turn into?

A

Glutamate

126
Q

What amino acid can pyruvate be synthesized from and turn into?

A

Alanine

127
Q

What amino acid can oxaloacetate turn into and be synthesized from?

A

Aspartate

128
Q

What amino acid can fumarate be converted?

A

Phenylalanine

What I Don't Know (6 decks)

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