Missed CPA Questions Flashcards
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For SSARS, A section is relevant to the engagement when
the section is in effect and the circumstances addressed by it exist
For SSARS, an accountant should comply with each requirement of the relevant section unless
the requirement is not relevant because it is conditional, and the condition does not exist
Rare Circumstance: relevant presumptively mandatory requirement is for a specific procedure and that procedure would be ineffective in achieving the intent of the requirement. In these circumstances, the accountant should ___
perform alt procedures to achieve intent of requirement.
For audit procedures related to the inspection of significant contracts or agreements the auditor should ___
include abstracts (summaries) or copies of those contracts or agreements in the audit documentation.
The auditor should include ___or copies of those ____ in the audit documentation whether or not they would be needed by an experienced auditor.
Abstracts
Copies of contracts/agreements
PCAOB adopted ____ as its interim standards
GAAS
Interim Standards are authoritative
False - they are not
Interim standards were issued by
AICPA
The office issuing the auditor’s report on a public company is required to obtain records of all internal controls over financial reporting found to be ineffective by other auditors
False – they are not
Documentation regarding all ______and ______in internal control over financial reporting including______ is required
Sig Deficiencies
Material Weaknesses
Distinction between the two categories
documentation related to the work performed by ____ ____ must be obtained, and reviewed and retained, prior to the report release date by the office issuing the auditor’s report
Other auditors
Direct or indirect Financial Interest?
An investment held in a retirement plan
An investment held in a blind trust
investment held through a regulated mutual fund
An investment held through participation in an investment club
Direct
Direct
Indirect
Direct
In explaining the potential effects of the significant deficiencies and material weaknesses, how does the auditor explain the effects
Only potential effects – don’t quantify (go in depth)
Due professional care is ordinarily interpreted to require
Critical review of judgment at every level of supervison
a member who serves as a client’s stock transfer or escrow agent, registrar, general counsel or its equivalent is independent
NO THEY AINT
General rule of thumb question: Capital leases mean you are independent
no – its operating leases
To evaluate such judgments and conclusions, the engagement quality reviewer should
hold discussions with the engagement partner and other members of the engagement team and review documentation.
Complying w/ laws & regulations is an element of CPA firm’s quality control system
T/F
False
Relevant ethical requirements is an element of what
quality control system
An engagement quality review and concurring approval of issuance are required for ___
Engagements & Reviews
An engagement quality review and concurring approval of issuance are required for engagements are conducted pursuant to the standards of the _____
PCAOB
For PCAOB, A complete and final set of audit documentation should be assembled for retention not more than ____
45 days
Independence is not impaired if a member obtains a loan from an entity that, at the time of obtaining the loan, is a client requiring independence,
False - it would be impaired
If a cpa obtains a loan during a period where he doesn’t have to be independent during the time obtaining the loan and he is then asked next yr to audit those F/S - is he independent
Yes, because the CPA was not required to be independent at the time the loan was granted
Nonaudit services with revenues in aggregate of ___ do NOT need approval from audit committee and without impairing independence
less than 5%
When do you need to understand the company’s industry
after accepting engagement
A close relative who is not an immediate family member may have an ____ in an auditor’s client without imparing the auditor’s independence.
immaterial direct financial interest
A first cousin is considered a close relative by the interpretations for purposes of independence issues.
FALSE - no they aint
A sibling’s ____ to an employee of a client generally is not considered a financial interest in the client.
loan
An auditor would evaluate the reasonableness of a client’s accounting estimates and inquire of a client’s attorney regarding unrecorded claims when ____
collecting evidence
US GAAS are codified into ___ sections
AU
US GAAS addresses the responsibilities of the auditor that may exist in legislation or regulations
FALSE - no they dont
If a partner leaves to work at a different place and the firm audits that place 2 years later, the partner must disclose ___
nothing. they dont have to disclose shit
An auditor doesn’t have to obtain knowledge of the intended users
FALSE
The auditor is _____ to have an understanding of the certification required by the appropriate auditing or accountancy board of the other country.
not required
The auditor’s opinion on whether a previously reported material weakness continues to exist may be expressed as the
material weakness no longer exists
The PCAOB’s guidance does not use the terms ____ opinion or ____ opinion it just uses ______
It just uses opinion or the auditors opinion
To discover understated (unrecorded) sales, the auditor would most likely trace transactions from ___ to ____
from shipping documents to sales invoices
Vouching from sales invoices to shipping documents (the opposite direction) is a test to substantiate that sales are not _____
Overstated
A compilation does include performing inquiries, analytical procedures
false
When determining whether related-party transactions have been properly accounted for in the financial statements, the auditor should be most concerned that
he financial statements recognize the substance of the transactions
The payroll clerk distributes signed payroll checks. Undistributed checks are returned to the payroll department. is what
weakness in I/C
In an audit of financial statements, an auditor’s primary consideration regarding an internal control policy or procedure is whether the policy or procedure
Affects management’s financial statement assertions
The word ____ is used to impose a requirement in the IESBA Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants.
shall
Opportunities for on-the-job training as well as continuity and periodic rotation of personnel are all valid factors of
Engagement personnel requirements
The AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct states that a distinguishing mark of a profession is its
acceptance of responsibility to the general public.
The AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct states that a distinguishing mark of a profession is its
acceptance of responsibility to the general public.
express opinion in agreed upon procedure?
no
A CPA’s report on agreed-upon procedures should contain An acknowledgment of responsibility for the sufficiency of the procedures
False
A CPA’s report on agreed-upon procedures related to management’s assertion about an entity’s compliance with specified requirements should contain a restricted or unrestricted report
restricted
An engagement to prepare financial statements in accordance with SSARS is what type of service
non-attest
Obtaining an understanding of the entity sufficient to identify areas in the financial statements where there is a greater likelihood that material misstatements may arise is part of the knowledge requirement for a compilation engagement.
false - review
All SSARS engagements require the agreed-upon terms of the engagement to be documented in an
engagement letter
as a condition for accepting any engagement to be performed in accordance with SSARS, an accountant is required to do all of the following except
determining independence – compilation you dont have to be independent
If independence is impaired during a compilation you should ____
modify the report
What three things are included in explanatory material codified in SSARS?
Understanding of requiremnet/defintion
What its intended to cover
examples of procedures
Explanatory material in SSARS codifications will impose additional requirements
false
The authoritative body designated to promulgate standards for Review/compilation is the FASB
False – its AICPA
The authoritative body designated to promulgate standards for audits for issuer are ____ — non issuers?
Issuer - PCAOB
Nonissuer - GAAS
When can you not opine on supplemental f/s?
when they’re not readily available.
Is available upon request supplemental f/s ok to opine on?
No – they’re not readily available
If the auditor issued an audit report on the financial statements that contained an adverse opinion nor a disclaimer of opinion, you CANNOT do what regarding supplemental f/s
opine on the supplemental f/s
The correction of a material misstatement in the previously issued financial statements of an issuer should be recognized where
explanatory paragraph following the opinion paragraph
The correction of a material misstatement in the previously issued financial statements of a non-issuer should be recognized where
explanatory paragraph after the opinion paragraph if the correction involved an error in accounting principle
If a CPA concludes that unaudited financial statements on which the CPA is disclaiming an opinion also lack adequate disclosure, the CPA should suggest appropriate revision. If the client does not accept the CPA’s suggestion, the CPA should
Describe the appropriate revision to the financial statements in the accountant’s disclaimer of opinion
Where should the cpa describe appropriate reivisons to the F/S in the audit report
accountants disclaimer of opinion
Where should the cpa describe appropriate reivisons to the F/S in the audit report
accountants disclaimer of opinion
uditor most likely would be required to report findings directly to outside parties when
management fails to satisfy legal or regulatory requirements to report such information to external parties specified
ield work requirements for performance audits include
planning the audit; supervising staff; obtaining sufficient, appropriate evidence; and preparing audit documentation. Reasonable assurance, significance, and audit risk
When developing the group audit plan, the group engagement team is required
to determine whether to reference each component auditor
An auditor reads the cover letter accompanying the document containing the audit report and audited financial statements and identifies a material inconsistency with the financial statements. The auditor determines that the financial statements do not require revision. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?
nothing
The factors affecting sample size when using classical variables sampling are
(1) desired precision, (2) desired sample reliability, (3) variability among item values in the population (the estimate of the population’s standard deviation) and (4) population size.
___plans require special design to deal with negative balances and zero balances because sample selection is based on the cumulative sum of dollars of the population
PPS
____ techniques are unaffected by either zero balances or negative balances.
Classical Variable
The number of items in the population has virtually___ on the sample size unless the population is ____
No effect
Very small
An increase in the tolerable rate of deviation would allow a ___ in sample size
Smaller
Sample deviation rate plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate., you do what
Modify control risk - increase sample size
Increase in tolerable misstatement does what to sample size
decrease
The clock card or time ticket would provide evidence for the __assertion
completeness
Payroll registry would provide evidence for the ___ assertion
existence
Published dividend records provide the strongest evidence supporting dividends earned on publicly-held investments. from ____ companies
investment services
___involves the theft of one customer’s payment and subsequently crediting the customer with payment made by another customer.
Lapping
comparison of remittance dates would detect the scheme __
lapping
he retention period should not be shorter than five years from the ____
report release date;
___ provide a psychological deterrent to employees considering defalcations (stealing)
fidelity bonds
bank safe-deposit box prefer what type of control
dual-control (two people have access)
the auditor should or should not communicate their effect on the auditor’s overall risk assessment.
should not
how do auditors communicate overall risk assesssment to gov
they dont
Management and governance are are mutually exclusive.
no they are not
Why does GAAS establish two categories of laws and regulations?
GAAS requires a different auditing approach for each category because the auditor has different responsibilities for each.
or the provisions of those laws and regulations generally recognized to have a direct effect on the determination of material amounts and disclosures in the financial statements, the auditor’s responsibility
is the same as that for misstatements caused by fraud or error—to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence
risk factor that relates to misstatements arising from misappropriation of assets?
A lack of independent checks
Performance materiality is only 1 amount
False, can be more than 1
During the planning phase of an audit the auditor should not consider whether specialize skills are needed in certain arease
false - yeah they should
Written rep letter is in the performance part of the audit, not planning
true
Make inquiries of the client’s in-house legal counsel us during what phase of the audit
planning
Confirm that the financial statements can be reconciled to the accounting records is during the planning phase
false
US generally accepted auditing standards measures
Measures of the audit quality and the objectives to be achieved
US GAAS must be followed by CPAs per the
AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct
auditor strives to achieve independence in appearance in order to
serve public interest
Sucsessor Auditor should review wp relating to ___ and ___
Contingencies & I/c
an accountant not have a duty to disclose that fraud or noncompliance with laws and regulations may have occurred to parties outside of the entity to a predecessor
t/f
false
an accountant not have a duty to disclose that fraud or noncompliance with laws and regulations may have occurred to parties outside of the entity when receiving a subpoena
t/f
true
PCAOB can issue / adopt ___ relating to the ____
standards relating to prep of audit reports
Issuer’s audit committee is responsible for the public accounting firms Compensation
T/F
True
Members of issuer’s audit committee can engage independent ___ to carry out their ___
counsel - duties
A member of an issuer’s audit committee may NOT accept ____
fee outside being a member of the board from the CPA firm - even consulting/advisory
A member of a group engagement team will not be subject to discipline if a foreign component auditor departed from the ethics requirement as long as:
the foreign component auditor accordance w/ requirements set forth in the IESBA’s Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants.
can a firm disclose confidential info to an insurance carrier if its regarding a claim
yes
Significant deficiencies related to the internal control design exist, but none is deemed to be a material weakness. - should this be in an audit report?
yes
An auditor’s report on significant deficiencies should include a ____ on the distribution of the report.
restriction
What type of opinion can you express during a review?
no opinions
where in the audit report contain a statement that the engagement is substantially less in scope than an audit.
No where - you cant do that
Low level management fraud you report this to ____
appropriate level of management
Factors to consider regarding the integrity of a client include
the nature of the client’s business/practice
info towards attitudes of management/gov/owners
The AICPA states that you cannot follow another country’s rules if practicing outside USA
FALSE - yeah you can
Officer commits fraud - who do you talk to
gov
who takes responsibility for Agree upon procedure
management/client
any disclosure of a client company name by a CPA specializing in _____procedures is a violation of client confidentiality under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct
bankruptcy
The auditor’s engagement letter should address such matters as the ____
objective
A compilation areport to the audit committee that is not sent to the stockholders.is OK
True
Accepting an engagement to compile an entity’s financial projection most likely would be inappropriate if the projection is to be included in:
on offering statement of the entity’s initial public offering of common stock
For compilations, you need a written management rep letter
false
a firm does not need to consider this when adopting policies for retention of engagement documentation?
ability to retrieve and access the engagement documentation in perpetuity
ach issuer disclose whether or not the audit committee is comprised of at least one member who is a ___
financial expert
Segregation of duties between receiving cash and posting the accounts receivable ledger would stop what
lapping
Part of gaining an understanding of an entity’s accounting practices is obtaining an adequate understanding of the qualifications of
accounting personnel
Preventative controls are
more cost beneficial than detective controls
Preventive controls place ___ on and require ____ of employee activities to reduce the occurrence of errors or deviations
restrictions
documentation
extent and nature of the risks to internal controls associated with IT, an auditor should consider Whether IT controls are automated or manual in nature
FALSE
who should approve AR write offs
treasurer
An auditor tests an entity’s policy of obtaining credit approval before shipping goods to customers in support of management’s financial statement assertion of:
valuation
An auditor who uses a transaction cycle approach to assessing control risk most likely would test control activities related to transactions involving the sale of goods to customers with the:
collection of AR
A service auditor’s report expressing an opinion on a description of controls placed in operation at a service organization should contain a description of the
scope & nature of service auditor’s procedures
Observing an entity’s employee prepare the schedule of past due accounts receivable is a test of controls that would help an auditor in assessing the level of control risk.
true
Which of the following could be difficult to determine because electronic evidence may not be retrievable after a specific period?
timeing of procedures
During the audit of a new client, the auditor determined that management had given illegal bribes to municipal officials during the year under audit and for several prior years. The auditor notified the client’s board of directors, but the board decided to take no action because the amounts involved were immaterial to the financial statements. Under these circumstances, the auditor should:
consider withdrawing
an inherent limitation of internal controls is
collusion
A compilation accountant is required to gain an understanding of related to the entity and its environment to plan the engagement in conformance with the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARSs), including:
sig. accounting policies
inherent limitation in i/c includes
management override
collusion
mistakes
Two assertions for which confirmation of accounts receivable balances provides primary evidence are
right and obligation , existence
After determining that a related party transaction has, in fact, occurred, an auditor should:
obtain understanding
For relate party transactions, the auditor should substantiate that the transaction was consummated on terms equivalent to an arm’s-length transaction
false - its impossible
If a practitioner does not possess an understanding of the client’s business and the industry, he/she can review information obtained from external sources such as:
trade and economic journals; reports by analysts, banks, or rating agencies; or regulatory or financial publications.
. If a practitioner does not possess an understanding of the client’s business and the industry, the auditor should issue a disclaimer, because the scope of work was not sufficient to express an opinion.
false
In order to assess control risk at a low level would mean there is an effective functioning of _____ and thus the auditor would initially focus on the _____
application controls
general controls
knowledge of the client’s “industry, regulatory, and other factors” includes an understanding of all of the following, except entities accounting polices
true
acceptable level of detection risk increases means what
you can emphasize more reliance on it. This is a good thing.
As the acceptable level of detection risk increases, an auditor may change the:
timing of substantive procedures from YE to interim
Sound internal control procedures dictate that immediately upon receiving checks from customers by mail, a responsible employee should:
prepare a duplicate listing of checks received
A type 2 report
is a service auditor’s report on whether controls were suitably designed to achieve specified control objectives,
n understanding the control environment, the auditor should concentrate on the implementation of controls because
controls may be established, but not acted upon
In an audit of financial statements, an auditor’s primary consideration regarding an internal control policy or procedure is whether the policy or procedure:
affects management f/s assertations
When performing risk assessment procedures to obtain an understanding of internal controls, you perform analytical procedures
false
Which of the following is most likely to be a response to a pervasive risk at the financial statement
ssigning more experienced staff or those with specialized skills such as specialists, providing more supervision, or incorporating additional elements of unpredictability
Which of the following is the primary reason that many auditors hesitate to use embedded audit modules?
auditor has to be involved w/ the system design of the application
An embedded audit module is a section of program code that is included in the client’s application program in order to collect audit data for the auditor.
true
The nature of an entity refers to the entity’s
operations
The entity’s industry is experiencing declining customer demand would cause the auditor a heignted risk of
RMM
Inherent risk (IR) is the____to a misstatement that could be material, before I/C
susceptibility of a relevant assertion
The use of ____requires the auditor to use a computer simulation that mimics the client’s production programs.
parallel simulation
an event that could introduce or change financial reporting risks?
New or revamped information systems
Materiality levels are generally considered in terms of the smallest aggregate level of misstatement that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements.
true
What is the overall primary objective of developing a detailed audit plan on a financial statement audit?
Design procedures to reduce risk to an acceptably low level.
Comparing daily sales summaries with control totals of invoices is the best procedure for ensuring that invoices for goods shipped are recorded in the ____
Sales Journal
Planning memo & I/C questionnaire are required ocumentation for auditors to keep
nope
. Restrictions on retained earnings resulting from loans, agreements, or state law are items that should be described or disclosed in the financial statements. This deals with what assertion
disclosure & presentation
What is the name of the common procedure applied to test the reasonableness of significant accounting estimates in a financial statement audit?
Retrospective look-back
Application controls can be performed by IT (automated) or by individuals
True
Who is responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud?
management/gov
The acceptable level of detection risk is inversely related to the:
assurance provided by substantive tests.
Thus, the acceptable level of detection risk relates to the auditing procedures applied through
substantive tests
As the assurance provided by substantive tests becomes or is expected to become ____, the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, or vice versa
higher
What is the primary purpose of reviewing conflict-of-interest statements signed by members of management?
identify related parties
An auditor who initially detects fraud ultimately makes the legal determination of whether fraud has actually occurred.
false
The classes of transactions in the issuer’s operations that are significant to the issuer’s financial statements
this is an example of what component of I/C
Information and Communication
The specialist does not need to be independent of the client
True
The auditor should be concerned with the professional credentials, reputation, and experience of the specialist.
true
. In other words, the auditor should assess the risk that the actuary’s ____might be impaired.
objectivity
Personnel with responsibilities that impact financial reporting systems, management, those charged with governance, and regulatory authorities should be understood when understanding the information and communication component of internal control for the purpose of having a basis for assessing risk of material misstatement on a financial statement audit of a nonissuer
true
Processes and data may be altered or manipulated to generate fraudulent results. is what primary risk
primary risk of IT
To compile financial statements, the accountant should possess a general understanding of the nature of the entity’s operations. This most likely not include understanding the Stated qualifications of the entity’s accounting personnel
false - yes it will
An auditor may choose to rely or not rely on the work of another auditor, In either case, the auditor should inquire as to the reputation of the other auditor.
True
An inherent limitation to internal control is the fact that controls can be circumvented by management override.
true
Inquiring of the client’s legal counsel concerning pending litigation is performed during the field work phase
true
Comparing the financial statements to anticipated results is done at the planning phase
true
Stratified and variable sampling are used in the substantive testing of account balances and details of transactions.
true
he sample size of a test of controls varies inversely with:
Tolerable rate
The auditor should obtain representations from management stating its compliance with all contractual agreements that may affect the financial statements
TRUE
Applying substantive tests at an interim date, rather than at the balance sheet date, increases ___that a misstatement may occur between the interim and year-end dates and exist at the balance sheet date.
This increase in risk is the
audit risk
incremental audit risk.
A portion of a client’s inventory is in public warehouses. Evidence of the existence of this merchandise can most efficiently be acquired through which of the following methods?
confirmation
Analytical procedures used in planning an audit generally use data aggregated at a low level.
false – high level
The primary source of information to be disclosed regarding litigation, claims, and assessments is:
client’s management.
The procedure, “The accountant should perform specific procedures to evaluate whether there is substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern,” is:required for what type of engagement(s)
audit only
Population size is not an important factor in determining sample size for attribute sampling.
true
Tolerable error rate and the expected error rate are important factors in determining sample size.
true
e procedures an auditor performs to obtain evidence about the existence, ownership, and completeness of investments will vary depending on both the type of investments involved and the auditor’s assessment of audit risk.
True
A faxed reply directly to the auditor may qualify as a positive confirmation, assuming it is received directly by the auditor. is sufficient enough for a confirmation.
No – have to determine the validity of the fax. . After validation, auditor can use the confirmation
(fax, e-mail, oral, or other electronic means applies)
the choice of analytical procedures as a substantive test, when compared to the use of the tests of details of transactions and amount balances, depends “on the auditor’s professional judgment about the expected effectiveness and efficiency of the available audit procedures.”
true
For analytical procedures, Relationships involving only balance sheet accounts tend to be more predictable than relationships involving income statement accounts.
False - Income statements are more predictable
The absence of the original insurance policy on plant equipment most likely indicates the existence of a
lien on the plant equipment.