Audit Section 1 Flashcards

Ethics / Prof Responsibilities / General Principles

1
Q

AFRF are adopted by who?

A

Those charged w/ governance

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2
Q

Public Companies comply with PCAOB , Non public companies comply with:

A

AICPA’ Auditing Standards Board’s statement on auditing standards (SAS)

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3
Q

Can Financial reporting frameworks affect the scope of an audit?

A

Yes

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4
Q

GAGAS (Generall Accepted Governmental Auditing Standards) is also known as what

A

Yellowbook

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5
Q

Single audits are divided into what two areas?

A

Compliance and financial

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6
Q

Who has the authority to develop government wide guidelines?

A

Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

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7
Q

Can a unit elect to have a program-specific audit?

A

Yes

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8
Q

What is a program-specific audit?

A

Audit only the federal program and not the entity

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9
Q

Does a single audit require a financial audit as well?

A

Yes

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10
Q

When an auditor reports to those charge w/ governance, is this considered a management responsibility and therefore would make the auditor NOT independent?

A

Yes – make auditor not independent

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11
Q

Does an auditor need to collect evidence for accuracy or completeness in a compilation?

A

No

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12
Q

Is a compilation an attest engagement?

A

Yes

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13
Q

When can an auditor perform a review?

A

ONLY when the auditor is set to audit the upcoming F/S or has audited the previous F/S

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14
Q

What does the SEC require when an auditor performs a review of a public company?

A

They require a review report of the interim F/S if the accountant is independent (should be independent anyways)

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15
Q

What is the purpose of an attestation engagement?

A

provide users of info that generally 3rd parties w/ an opinion/conclusion/finding regarding the reliability of a subject matter.

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16
Q

PCAOB adopted what from the AICPA?

A

SSAE – Statements on Standards for Attest Engagements

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17
Q

Is membership of the AICPA required?

A

No - voluntary

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18
Q

Are reviewers of an engagement apart of an engagement team

A

yes

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19
Q

What is a covered Member?

A

On engagement Team
Position to influence attest engagement
Partner/partner equivalent/manager that provides >10 hours of nonattest services to client
Firm

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20
Q

Is the firm employee benfeit plan apart of the covered member criteria?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Is a covered member a person who can influence accounting/financial polices of an entity?

A

Yes

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22
Q

What is a joint closely held investment?

A

Auditor and client jointly own an investment that they exercise sig. influence over.

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23
Q

What is a partner equivalent

A

Dont need partners approval to do things

Authority to sign firm;s name to an attest report

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24
Q

Period of professional engagement begins when?

A

When engagement letter/other agreement to perform attest services is signed.

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25
Q

A member of the AICPA needs to be ____ and ____

A

Independent and objective

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26
Q

If threats are not at an acceptable level you should:

A

Talk to supervisor
Discuss with management in member’s organizations
Consult w/ counsel

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27
Q

An advocacy threat to compliance mainly violates what?

A

Integrity and objectivity

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28
Q

What interpretation should an auditor/member apply if independent rule is absent?

A

Conceptual Framework For Independence

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29
Q

What interpretation should an auditor/member apply if objective/independent rule is absent?

A

Conceptual Framework for Members in public practice

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30
Q

Should an auditor document identified threats and document the safeguards applied?

A

Yes

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31
Q

What is an adverse interest threat?

A

Threat a member will not act w/ objectivity b/c the member’s interests are opposite w/ the clients. (The auditor may be out to get the client because of some outside event) (Lawsuit, etc)

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32
Q

Advocacy threat, what is it?

A

The auditor/member promotes the client’s interest to the point where his independence is compromised

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33
Q

Familiarity Threat

A

Close/long relationship w/ the client

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34
Q

Management Participation threat

A

Auditor takes on role of management. This threat is ONLY in public practice.

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35
Q

Self-interest Threat

A

Member tries to benefit financially from the client

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36
Q

Self-review threat

A

Member evaluates his own work

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37
Q

Undue Influence

A

Client threatens auditor to act a certain way. Black mail

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38
Q

Is a member’s immediate family subject to the Independence rule?

A

Yes

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39
Q

When can an immediate family member of a covered member have a direct &/or material financial interest in a client

A

Member isn’t involve in the engagement
Investment is unavoidable
Family member agrees to dispose the material/direct interest within 30 days

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40
Q

if a close relative is in a key position w/ the client, is independence impaired?

A

Yes

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41
Q

If a close relative has a financial interest w/ the client, is independent impaired?

A

Yes

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42
Q

If an auditor is an underwriter for a client, is independence impaired?

A

Yes

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43
Q

If an auditor is an honorary director or trustee of a Not for profit, is independent impaired?

A

NO

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44
Q

Can an auditor be able to vote on a board and still be independent?

A

No

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45
Q

If a position is CLEARLY honorary a member holds on the board, is independence impaired?

A

No

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46
Q

Before performing non-attest services for an attest client, what needs to be evaluated

A

Independence rule

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47
Q

Nonattest services provided prior to engagement, prior to the period of the F/S, or F/S were audited by a different firm during non attest services – would this impair independence?

A

No

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48
Q

Do you communicate client’s selection/application of accounting standards to clients governance?

A

No – only management

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49
Q

Do you communicate accounting methods to clients management?

A

Yes

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50
Q

Do you communicate AJE that member has prepped/propposed to governance?

A

No – to management

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51
Q

Do you communicate the form and content of the F/S to client’s governance?

A

No – management

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52
Q

Independence impaired if you perform appraisal/valuation/actuarial services on the F/S?

A

Yes – cannot reduce to acceptable level

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53
Q

Independence impaired if you perform appraisal/valuation/actuarial services to tax planning/tax compliance/divorce proceedings?

A

No

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54
Q

Is foresnic accounting an attest or nonattest service?

A

Non attest

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55
Q

Forensic accounting consists of ___ services and ___ services

A

litigation and investigative

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56
Q

If a member agrees to be an expert witness for a client, is independence impaired?

A

Yes – it conflicts w/ objectivity

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57
Q

Does being a fact witness impair indpendnence?

A

No

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58
Q

Would representing a client in court impair independence if it was to resolve a dispute?

A

Yes

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59
Q

Would representing a client in court impair independence if it was infront of a tax authority?

A

No

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60
Q

Can a member be a power of attorney and still be independent? Why?

A

Yes – only limited to tax matters

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61
Q

General Standards rule includes what components?

States generally have DCSS (Department of child services (extra s)

A

Due professional Care
Competence
Supervision Planning
Sufficient Relevant Data

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62
Q

A member performing an audit/review/comp/consulting/tax/other professional services must comply with WHAT rule?

A
General Standards Rule
Due professional care
Competence
Supervision
Sufficient relevant data
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63
Q

If a departure from gaap exists on the F/S , can an auditor still form an opinion?

A

Yes and No.

Yes – if the auditor can demonstrate that safeguards were applied
No – auditor cannot demonstrate that safeguards were applied

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64
Q

If a client request the member’s work products, can the member say no?

A

Yes and no.

Auditor can say no if there are unpaid fees.

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65
Q

What is a work product from a member?

A

deliverable assets to the client. Reports, etc.

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66
Q

Can a client request the auditor’s wp?

A

They can request, but the auditor doesnt have to give it to them

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67
Q

If you give a client a work product document and they request it again, do you have to give it to them?

A

No

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68
Q

If you give a client a work product document and a natural disaster happens and they request another one, do you have to give it to them/

A

Yes

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69
Q

If a member has the ability to record an entry and chooses not to correct a material misleading instance….this is an act of what?

A

Act of discredibleness

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70
Q

Is an act discredible if a member doesn’t follow the requirements of regulatory agencies?

A

Yes

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71
Q

If a member preps F/S for purpose of reporting to regulatory agencies/commissions/etc, should they follow the requirements of the agencies/commissions and gaap?

A

Yes

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72
Q

Is an act discredible if a member fails to comply w/ federal/state/local laws regarding the timely filing of tax returns & payroll?

A

Yes

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73
Q

What is a contingent fee?

A

A fee that is charged based off an event or result

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74
Q

Can a member charge a contingent fee if a client claimed their tax return had an omitted deduction?

A

No

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75
Q

Can you receive a commission/referral fee for a non-attest client?

A

Yes

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76
Q

Can you receive a commission/referral fee for an attest client?

A

No

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77
Q

Can 40% of owners of a CPA firm be non CPAS?

A

No – at least 51% must be CPAs.

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78
Q

Can a Non-CPA owner of a firm assume the ulitmate responsibility?

A

No – has to be a CPA

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79
Q

Can a non-cpa owner be non-active in the firm?

A

No – the non-cpa has to be active.

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80
Q

What tiles can a non-cpa have?

Non CPAs are cheerleaders. They use POMS

A

Principal
Officer
Member
Shareholder

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81
Q

Can a non cpa owner have a regular membership to the AICPA?

A

NO

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82
Q

Securities Act of 1933 main objectives are

A

Provide info on securities offered for public sale

Prohibit misrepresentation/fraud in sales of securities

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83
Q

If a company has an exemption with Regulation D, can securities be sold without registering with the SEC?

A

Yes

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84
Q

What regulation can securities be sold without registering with the SEC

A

Regulation D

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85
Q

Can an exempt security sale have to file a form D before a security?

A

No – it can file afterwards

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86
Q

Rule 504 of regulation D provides an exemption from the registration requirement for sales up to $____ in any ___ month period.

Can these sales be advertised to the public?

Can the securities be resold by investors without registering

A

5 milllion / 12months
Not advertised to public
Cannot be resold without registering or w/o an exemption

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87
Q

Securities Exchange Act of 1934 created what

A

Securities Exchange Commission

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88
Q

SEC regulates securities on national exchanges & OTC stocks with more than $____ in assets and ____ or more shareholders

A

$10milllion 500 shareholders

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89
Q

What 4 reports are required by the SEC

A

10k
10q
8k
Proxy Statement

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90
Q

What does the 10k need to be accompanied by?

A

Auditor’s report

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91
Q

10Q may be limited to what type of engagement?

A

Review

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92
Q

What type of engagement is for the 8k

A

no engagement necessary

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93
Q

Are proxy statements audited?

can they contain audited financial statemnets?

A

No they’re not audited

Yes they can contain audited f/s (not required)

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94
Q

Can public offerings be offered through mail?

A

no

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95
Q

can public offering be offered through interstate commerce?

A

no

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96
Q

Can someone sue the CPA that audited the f/s who acquires securities

A

yes

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97
Q

When can someone sue the CPA

A

if the f/s contain untrue statements

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98
Q

does the plaintiff have the burden to prove the CPA was negligent or fraudulent?

A

No

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99
Q

does the cpa have the burden to establish innocence

A

yes

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100
Q

Is simple negligence enough when sueing a cpa?

A

yes

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101
Q

A defense for a CPA is:

Plaintiff purchased securities after issuing a _____ statement and did not rely on ____

A

Generally available earnings statement

Registration statement

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102
Q

‘rule 10b5 with the SEC does what?

A

Regulates securities exchanges listed and traded on exchanges

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103
Q

What is scienter

A

it means intent to deceive/perpetuate fraud

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104
Q

With scienter, is simple negligence enough to hold a CPA responsible?

A

No

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105
Q

Dodd Frank is also known as what type of protection

A

Investor Protection

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106
Q

Dodd frank is what type of reform?

A

Regulatory

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107
Q

Dodd frank created what type of committee

A

Investor Advisory Committee

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108
Q

Investor Advisory committees do what?

A

Consult w/ SEC on regulatory priorities

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109
Q

Is the SEC granted the authority to establish a ____ for brokers and dealers to require ___ of range of products offered to _____

A

fiduciary duty
disclosure
investors

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110
Q

Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002 protects ___ by improving ___ and ___ reliability of corporate ____

A

Investors
Reliability
Accuracy
Disclosures

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111
Q

Sarbanes Oxley created what board?

A

PCAOB

Public Company Accounting Oversight Board

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112
Q

What do CPA firms have to do w/ PCAOB

A

register with the PCAOB to perform attest services for public companies

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113
Q

Does the PCAOB have the authority to set/update/amend ethics standards?

A

Yes

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114
Q

PCAOB has the authority to conduct ____ inspections of each registered accounting firm

A

Compliance

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115
Q

If a CPA firm audits more than 100 issuers, how often does the PCAOB inspect them?

A

Audit >100 issuers are inspected annually

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116
Q

If a CPA firm audits less than 100 issuers, how often does the PCAOB inspect them?

A

Every 3 years

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117
Q

What does the PCAOB inspect?

A

Engagements/quality control system/supervisory conditions

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118
Q

What type of court can the PCAOB pursue?

A

Civil court

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119
Q

If a foreign accounting firm audits public companies, what does the PCAOB require

A

produce their workpapers

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120
Q

can pcaob approve a rule w/o the SEC’s approval

A

no

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121
Q

Can CPA firms provide non attest services to public companies?

A

Yes – only provide tax services

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122
Q

If the CPA firm can provide tax services, who approves this from the issuer?

A

Audit Committee

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123
Q

Is a disclosure required when performing a nonattest service to the issuer?

A

Yes it is required.

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124
Q

How often does the partner need to rotate out of the issuer’s engagement?

A

Every 5 years

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125
Q

who is required to study and review potential effects of requiring mandatory rotation of a CPA firm?

A

Comptroller General of the US

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126
Q

Title III of SOX prohibits officer/directors to fraudulently influence/mislead a CPA

T/F

A

True

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127
Q

Do material correcting adjustments need to be disclosed when auditing a public company?

A

Yes

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128
Q

Can a public company extend credit or provide a loan to a director/officer?

A

NO

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129
Q

An internal control report is NOT required by the SEC annually?

T/F

A

False – it is required

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130
Q

How often do public companies need to submit their I/C report?

A

Annually

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131
Q

Do senior financial officers require a separate code of ethics?

A

Yes

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132
Q

what does the SEC require if a code of ethics is not present for senior financial officers?

A

Need to disclose why not

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133
Q

An audit committee requires at least two members be a financial expert
T/F

A

false – only requires ONE

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134
Q

What must be disclosed in “Plain English”

A

Material changes to the financial condition of the issuer

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135
Q

Is the PCAOB an agency of the United States Government?

A

No

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136
Q

Who created PCAOB

A

Sarbanes oxley

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137
Q

What is the purpose of the PCAOB

A

Oversee audits of issuers

138
Q

How many people are on the PCAOB board

A

5

139
Q

Who inspects registered public accounting firms?

A

PCAOB

140
Q

Do audit firms have to register w/ the PCAOB in order to audit issuers?

A

Yes

141
Q

How does registration with the PCOAB have to be sent?

A

electronically @ pcaobus.org

142
Q

Violating the PCAOB is the same as violating _____

A

SEC

143
Q

When auditing interim F/S for issuers, what standards are supposed to be followed?

A

GAAS

144
Q

When auditing quality control for issuers, what standards are supposed to be followed

A

AICPA Auditing Standards Board Statements on Quality Control Standards

145
Q

All interim standards follow what?

A

AICPA guidlines

146
Q

The PCAOB adopted its own ___, ___, and ___

A

Auditing Standards, Ethics, Indepndence rules

147
Q

To improve transparency, regarding the engagement partner & other firms….firms are now required to file for EACH ISSUER ____

A

Form AP - Auditor Reporting of Certain Audit Participants

148
Q

What is included in the form AP - Auditor Reporting of Certain Audit Participants

A

Name of engagement Partner

Name /location/extent of participation of each firm participating

149
Q

How many days is the form AP supposed to be filed after the audit ____ is filed with the SEC

A

35 days

Audit Report

150
Q

How many days is the Form AP supposed to be filed for IPOs after the audit report?

A

10 days

151
Q

For Government Accountability Office (GAO) , independence in ___ and independence of ___ is required

A

Mind

Appearance

152
Q

What does independence of mind mean

A

State of mind w/o being affect by influences

153
Q

Independence in appearance is what

A

absence of a circumstance that would not compromise independence

154
Q

What is a BIAS threat?

A

result of political/social view, an auditor takes a position that is not objective

155
Q

What is a structural threat?

A

audit organizations placement within a gov. entity will impact the firm’s ability to perform work & report results objectively

156
Q

What rules do employee benefit plans follow for independence?

A

Department of Labor

157
Q

Professional Skepticism is required by what general standards rule?

A

Due professional care

158
Q

Should professional judgment be sensitive to the degree of uncertainty?

A

Yes

159
Q

Professional Judgment should be made after the consideration of _______

A

Reasonable alternatives

160
Q

How can confirmation be a bias for professional judgment?

A

Put more weight on information that is consistent with their thoughts

161
Q

How Can overconfidence be a bias for professional judgment?

A

Overestimates their abilkity to perform tasks to make accurate assessments of risk/decisions.

It can affect the willingness to involve others (2nd opinion)

162
Q

how can anchoring be a bias for professional judgment?

A

starting from a number and adjusting insufficiently away from the initial value to form a final judgment.

163
Q

how can availability be a bias for professional judgment

A

auditor considers information easily/readily available more rather than information that is hard to get

164
Q

the auditor must communicate w/ the predecessor auditor ____ accepting the engagement

A

Before

165
Q

The auditor must ask the client to respond fully to the successor’s inquiries

T/F

A

True

166
Q

Can you contact the predecessor auditor after accepting?

A

Yes no prob

167
Q

If multiple auditors are considering accepting the engagement, when can the predecessor auditor communicate to the potential successor?

A

ONLY WHEN A SUCCESSOR IS CHOSEN (auditor accepted)

168
Q

An auditor should not finalize formal acceptance of the engagement until the communications w/ the predecessor are completed

T/F

A

True

169
Q

Can an auditor propose to accept, but finalize the acceptance after communication the acceptance (can reject if they dont talk to predecessor)

A

Yes they can

170
Q

should the successor review the predecessors w/p?

A

Yes

171
Q

should the successor make reference to the report of the predecessor?

A

NO

172
Q

can an auditor be asked to “reaudit” previously audited f/s?

A

Yes

173
Q

is a successor required to communicate w/ predecessor for a review/compilation?

A

NOPE

174
Q

Can a compilation engagement on pro form f/s be a separate engagement?

A

Yes

175
Q

inquiries required for compilation? For Review?

A

Compilation: no
review: yes

176
Q

independence for compilation? for review?

A

compilation: no
review: lack of independence = cant issue review report

177
Q

rep letter for compilation? review?

A

Compilation: no
Review: yes

178
Q

identify AFRF in engagement letter?

A

yes

179
Q

who signs the engagement letter – management or governance?

A

either or

180
Q

Should engagement letter of compilation address:
Material Departure of AFRF
All disclosures will be omitted
References to Supplementary info

A

Yes

181
Q

Form and content addressed in engagement letter for review and audits?

A

Yes

182
Q

If auditor takes responsibility to design, implement, and maintenance of I/C … engagement letter should be ___

A

modified stating the responsibility the auditor is doing this

183
Q

can you reduce the engagement (audit to review, etc) if a restriction on the scope of audit is imposed by the client or other circumstances?

A

Yes

184
Q

Auditor should prep documentation so a ____ who has no previous experience can understand

A

experienced auditor

185
Q

The auditor has ___ days after the report release date to have a final audit file for non issuers

how many days for issuers?

A

60 for nonissuers

45 for issuers

186
Q

For compilation/reviews: At a minimum, preparation engagement documentation include:

A

Engagement letter
copy of F/S the accountant prepared
if departure from AFRF, must disclose why and how alt procedures were sufficient

187
Q

Minimum documentation for compilations include

A

engagement letter
copy of f/s
accountant’s report
if departure from AFRF, must disclose why and how alt procedures were sufficient

188
Q

Minimum documentation for a pro forma compilation

A

engagement letter
results of procedures performed
copy of pro forma info
copy of accountant’s report

189
Q

review engagements should be performed so an experienced ____ can understand

A

accountant – NOT auditor

190
Q

if a company prepares it F/S on an income tax basis, how do you quanitify the effects

A

you dont have to

191
Q

Do you communicate the scope/timing of audit to governance?

A

yes

192
Q

Do you communicate allocation of responsibilities

between management and governance to governance?

A

yes

193
Q

communicate concept of materiality to governance?

A

Yes

194
Q

Scope of audit to commjunicate w/ governance:

RMMIME

A

Risk of material misstatement (RMM)
Internal Control
Materiality
Extent of use of internal auditor

195
Q

Communicate the attitute/awareness/action of governance concerning the I/C and detection of fraud?

A

Yes

196
Q

Communicate actions taken in response to developments in financial reporting/law/acct standards

A

yes

197
Q

How should sig deficiencies / material weaknesses be communicated to governance?

A

WRITING

198
Q

How should sig deficiencies / material weaknesses be communicated to governance from the PY?

A

WRITING

199
Q

How long can written communication be delayed (max time to wait) after the report release?

Note: earlier the better

A

60 days

200
Q

What does the audit report release date mean?

A

Entity can use the auditor’s report in connection w/ the f/s

201
Q

what should written communication regarding I/C include in the letter to governance regarding I/C?

A

that auditor doesnt express opinion on I/c – only on the f/s

202
Q

Should the auditor include the definition of material weakness / sig deficiencies in the written communications to governance ?

A

Yes

203
Q

Is the written communication to governance regarding I/C restricted or nonrestricted?

A

RESTRICTED

204
Q

Should the auditor write that no sig deficiencies were found?

A

No

205
Q

Should the auditor write that no material weaknesses were found?

A

Should - no

Can - yes, IF requested by governance

206
Q

Should the auditor include potential effects of sig deficencies/material weaknesses?

A

Yes

207
Q

Should the auditor communicate to governance: auditor’s views about accounting practices, accounting policeis, estimates, and f/s disclosures

A

yes

208
Q

Should the auditor not include IMMATERIAL misstatements when communicating to governance?

A

No – it should include immaterial misstatements. Only preclude trivial misstatements

209
Q

Should the auditor communicate material & corrected misstatements for the CY?

A

Yes

210
Q

Communicate representations the auditor is requesting from management to governance (management rep letter)

A

Yes

211
Q

Should the auditor not ask about consultations w/ other accountants when communicating to governance

A

NO -always ask about possible other consultations

212
Q

What type of issues should the auditor communicate to governance

A

signifciant

213
Q

Communicate delays from management to gov

T/F

A

T

214
Q

The auditor can distinguish two types of misstatements

what are they

A

known/factual misstatements

likely/judgmental misstatements

215
Q

What are likely/judgmental misstatements?

A

Difference between managemnet and auditor judgments

Auditor calculating projected known misstatements after finishing a sample

216
Q

If management doesn’t correct all misstatements that are above triviality the auditor must obtain what

A

an understanding on why not making hte corrections

217
Q

Should the auditor communicate the effect of not correcting misstatements from the CY and the PY?

A

Yes

218
Q

Should fraud be communicated even if its extremely tiny

A

yes

219
Q

If fraud is taken at the employee level, who do you communicate fraud to

A

upper mangement

220
Q

if fraud is taken at the management level, whodo you communicate fraud to

A

governace

221
Q

How should noncompliance be communicated

A

written or oral

222
Q

what should the auditor do if noncompliance is communicated orally

A

document in w/p

223
Q

how should sig. findings be communicated to governance

A

written

224
Q

If a sig. finding arose during the audit, but was corrected, how should it be communicated to governance

A

it doesnt need to be communicated

225
Q

Can meeting minutes be used to document oral communication w/ governance

A

yes

226
Q

for review engagements, if management cant provide info that supports F/S are not materially misstated due to fraud or noncompliance, the auditor should:

A

obtain legal advice and consider withdrawal

227
Q

for review engagements, if auditor expects to include emphasis of matter or other matter paragraph , auditor should communicate this to ____

A

management

228
Q

what matters can arise when looking at interim f/s for ISSUERS

A

include a material modification to interim f/s
whether the need to modify disclosures regarding i/c
entity
entity filed 10-qsb or 10-q before completion of review

229
Q

what elements should a firm have relating to quality control

Harlem has horrible quality control

A
Human resource
Acceptance/continuance of engagement
Relevant ethical requirements
Leadership responsibility for quality w/in the firm
Engagement performance
Monitoring
230
Q

Who takes ultimate responsibility for quality on each engagement

A

engagement partner

231
Q

Appropriate competence includes the capacity to apply professional ___

A

judgment

232
Q

Auditor w/ final responsibility for an audit should communicate w/ mebers of audit team regarding _____

A

the susceptibility of entity’s f/s to material misstatement

233
Q

When should an auditor evaluate the auditor’s compliance w/ ethical requiremnets

A

beginning of engagement (planning)

234
Q

When firms enter to audit governmental facilities, GAGAS requires these firms to supply:

A

Firms most recent peer review report

Subsequent peer review reports during period of contract

235
Q

auditors performing work under GAGAS must complete

A

every 2 years: at least 24 hrs of cpe directly for gov auditing.

People who charge 20% or more of their time to GAGAS assignments must complete 80 hrs every 2 years in CPE for gov auditing

236
Q

Is planning the audit done throughout the audit

A

yes

237
Q

What should an auditor do when audits a company for the first time (inital audit) in relation to activities

A

expand activities due to no previous experience

238
Q

Which is more detailed: audit plan vs audit strategy

A

audit plan

239
Q

Audit strategy identifies matters to address, audit plan documents the matters addressed in the strategy

t/f

A

True

240
Q

is an engagement plan required for nonaudits

A

no

241
Q

to understand the entity/environment, it should include
Measurements & Review of entity’s financial performance
t/f

A

True

242
Q

to understand the entity/environment, it should include understanding I/C
t/f

A

True

243
Q

Should an accountant have an UNDERSTANDING of I/C when performing a review?

A

no

244
Q

audit risk is also called

A

attestation risk

245
Q

what does the risk assessment process do

A

identify, anlyze, and manage risk relevant to F/S

246
Q

examples of contorl activities

A

segregation of duties, authorization, safeguarding, performance review

247
Q

is performance review a control activity

A

yes

248
Q

Why is monitoring performed

A

to ensure controls continue to operate effectively

249
Q

what should the auditor consider when judging which controls to assess

A

materiality, size of entity, nature of business, complexity of operation, legal requirements

250
Q

What 2 assertions are relevant when the auditor intends to design and perform further audit procedures

A

completeness and accuracy

251
Q

Is preparing f/s a nonattest engagement

A

yes

252
Q

is the auditor required to verify accuracy and completeness of info when prepping f/s

A

no

253
Q

in an examination engagement, should the auditor understand i/c

A

yes

254
Q

is audit risk applicable to agreed-upon procedures

A

no

255
Q

what framework defines i/c

A

COSO - committee of sponsoring organizations

256
Q

auditor should evaluate the ___ of controls and determine whether they have been properly ___

A

design

implemented

257
Q

controls over management override are called

A

entity-wide controls

258
Q

controls related to control environment are called

A

entity-wide controls

259
Q

the design and implementation of fraud prevention and detection programs is part of the ____

A

control environment

260
Q

how should the auditor evaluate the entity’s risk assessment process. Understanding what?

A
how entity:
identifies business risk relvant to financial reporting
estimates significance of risks
assess likelihood of their occurrence
actions taken to manage them
261
Q

smaller entities may not have a formal risk assessment process, the auditor should___

A

discuss w/ management how they identify and treat identified risks

262
Q

information system is an entity’s

A

ERP system and the controls within

263
Q

should the auditor obtain an understanding of how IT affects control activities that are relevant to planning the audit

A

NO

264
Q

management is responsible for maintaining i/c to ensure controls are operating effectively…. this is called

A

monitoring

265
Q

in relation to monitoring the auditor should obtain an understanding of:

A

activitieis the entity uses to monitor controls of financial reporting
sources of info related to monitoring activities

266
Q

should the auditor understand how the entity presents the transactions and disclosures in the f/s

A

yes

267
Q

the auditor should document the entity’s business____ and information ___

A

business process

information flow

268
Q

evaluating the design of a control means to:

A

determine if its capable of preventing/detecting/correcting misstatements

269
Q

Implementation of a control means that a control ____ and the entity is using it

A

exists

270
Q

auditor should determine if the control satisfies the objective and can effectively prevent/detect/correct misstatements
t/f

A

true

271
Q

is inquiry alone sufficient to evaluate the design of a control

A

no

272
Q

can you inspect documents to understand & evaluate the design of a control

A

yes

273
Q

is understanding a control sufficient to serve as saying it is operating effectively

A

no – need to test the control

274
Q

when a service organization initiate, executes, and does the accounting processing of the user organization’s transactions, the user organization should

A

not implement i/c policies over these transactions

275
Q

Where can you obtain info about the nature of services provided by a service organization?

Entities have to TRUST the service organization

A
The contract
Reports by service auditors
User manual
System overview
Technical manual
276
Q

if a user auditor (the auditor auditing the company that uses aservice organization) cannot obtain information about the service organization, the auditor should

A

have the entity using the service organization contact the service company to obtain the info.

277
Q

Can the user auditor go to the service organization and perform auditing procedures to obtain the info they need?

A

yes

278
Q

If the auditor cannot obtain evidence to achieve the objective, they should

A

qualify opinion or disclaim due to scope limitation

279
Q

IT can reduce the risk that contorls will be circumvented

A

true

280
Q

IT can enhance the ability to achieve effective segregation of duties by implementing ____

A

security controls

281
Q

IT can pose as a risk for an entity’s I/C due to processing what kind of data

A

inaccurate

282
Q

Risk assessment in an IT environment is the inclusion of a ____ of control over _____ and unauthorized _____

A

strict policy
changes in programs
access to dataincludes clear lines of ____ and ____

283
Q

Control environment in an IT environment includes clear lines of ____ and ____

A

authority and responsibility

284
Q

what is an enhanced need when considering control activities for IT

A

physical controls

285
Q

The auditor needs to understand how ____ processing of transactions is resolved

A

incorrect

286
Q

Can ineffective general controls cause misstatements

A

no, but can allow misstatements to occur and not be detected

287
Q

What are general controls

A

policies and procedures that relate to many applications and support application controls

288
Q

What are application controls

A

achieve specific control objectives related to specific accounting tasks
they relate to the use to initiate, authorize, record, and process, and report transactions

289
Q

Application controls are categorized into 3 categories

A

Input controls
Processing Controls
Output Controls

290
Q

How should an auditor perform procedures against management override

A

JE testing
Review accounting estimates
Unusual transactions

291
Q

Is the auditor required to assess RMM of f/s due to fraud

A

yes

292
Q

Fraud triangle:

RIO

A

Rationalization
Incentive
Opportunity

293
Q

Accounts/transactions that have high inherent risk can also have ____ risk due to ____

A

fraud

manipulation

294
Q

auditor should always assume a risk to revenue. The risk would be

A

revenue recognition

295
Q

an auditor should always inquire with ____ about fraud

A

management

296
Q

Why should an auditor inquire with management about fraud

A

often fraud is revealed through inquiries

297
Q

should the auditor obtain how the audit committee exercises oversight of mitigating fraud risks

A

yes

298
Q

The auditor should ask the internal auditors if they:

A

performed procedures to detect fraud

if they think fraud is occurring

299
Q

auditor should involve employees who:

A

intiate, authorize, process, record transactions & have some authority

300
Q

should the auditor interview people regarding fraud who are in operations not directly involved in the financial reporting process

A

yes

301
Q

Should the auditor interview in house legal counsel regarding fraud

A

yes

302
Q

check fro mfraud on compilations?

A

no

303
Q

check for fraud on reviews?

A

Only inquire if management is aware of raud

304
Q

corroborate management’s response with other evidence in a REVIEW?

A

No

305
Q

in an examination should an auditor inquire about fraud

A

yes

306
Q

how should an auditor evaluate RMM

A

understanding entity & environment
understanding i/c
considering classes of transactions/accounts/disclosures in the F/s

307
Q

Risk assessment procedures help the auditor to

A

understand i/c and entity’s environment

308
Q

how should an auditor perform risk assessment procedures

A

observe/inspect
analytical procedures
inquiry

309
Q

auditor should use risk assessment procedures to detremine

A

NTE of audit procedures

310
Q

RMM affects what kind of risk

A

Detection

311
Q

More RMM, the ___ the detection risk

A

lower

312
Q

Test of controls reduce the need for substantive procedures

A

True

313
Q

do effective internal controls reduce the risk of material misstatement?

A

Yes

314
Q

The higher the risk of material misstatement, the more ____ and ___ is the audit evidence

A

relevant and reliable

315
Q

An auditor can perform test of controls or sbustantive procedures at an interim date or period-end

A

true

316
Q

Thee higher the RMM, the more likely the auditor may decide to test substantive procedures at YE or period end

A

True

317
Q

The auditor will increase the extent the higher ____ goes up

A

RMM

318
Q

if RMM at a relevant assertion level is a sig. risk, the auditor should perform ____ that are specifically responsive to that risk

A

substantive procedures

319
Q

if management has not responded by implementing controls, this should be communicated to

A

governance

320
Q

If a test only consists of substantive procedures, then ____ should be incorporated

A

tests of details

321
Q

the purpose of using a specialist to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence about items ___ to the f/s for which the auditor does not have knowledge

A

Material

322
Q

Do you reference a specialist in an unmodified report?

A

No

323
Q

Do you reference a specialist in a modified report?

A

Only if its relevant to the understanding why the report is modified

324
Q

what must the report indicate when referencing a specialist?

A

That it did not reduce the auditor’s responsibility

325
Q

Can the auditor use the work used by internal auditors?

A

yes – it can reduce or change the work needed by the auditor

326
Q

does an auditor have to obtain an understanding of the internal auditor function?

A

yes

327
Q

can the work of internal auditor’s affect the overall risk assessment of the auditor?

A

Yes

328
Q

can the auditor use the internal auditors test of controls to reduce the xtent of control testing procedures

A

yes

329
Q

How can internal auditors reduce substantive testing for theexternal auditor?

A

Internal auditors can already have confirmed AR accounts – therefore auditor can reduce the amount of AR accounts

330
Q

the report of the auditor is hared responsibility with internal auditors

t/f

A

false – only auditors responsibility

331
Q

if the auditor uses internal auditors work, the auditor must look at the internal auditors

A

workpapers

332
Q

the internal auditor can assist the auditor with the NTE

A

True

333
Q

if the auditor uses the internal auditors work, the auditor shall direct, supervise, and ____ the work performed by the internal auditors

A

review

334
Q

The auditor should recognize that internal auditors are NOT

A

independent

335
Q

The auditor should pull ____ from the internal auditor to ensure quality

A

audit evidence for some work performed

336
Q

Tax and pension laws are examples of

A

laws and regulations that have direct effect on determination of material amounts and disclosures in the f.s

337
Q

can an auditor communicate noncompliance to parties outside the entity if it is identified or suspected

A

yes

338
Q

can an auditor communicate noncompliance to parties outside the entity if it is identified or suspected IN A REIVEW

A

no
only management
if management is noncompliance, then governance (written or oral)

339
Q

Greater RMM arise from accounting estimates from: (3)

A

interpretation of accounting principles
complex and subjective judgment
assumption of future events

340
Q

Net realizable value is an example of

A

estimates