Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

HBV vaccine:

  • recombinant or live?
  • schedule?
A
  • recombinant

- 3x w/in 1st year

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2
Q

DTaP vaccine:

  • Type of vaccine?
  • timing?
  • Don’t give to whom?
A
  • inactivated, with acellular pertussis
  • 2, 4 and 6 months with boosters at 12-18 months and 6 years)
  • ≥7yo (Give dT)
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3
Q

IPV:

- timing?

A

2 and 4 months with boosters around 1 year and 4-6 years

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4
Q

HIB vaccine:

  • type?
  • timing?
A
  • conjugate

- 3x in 1st year

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5
Q

MMR vaccine:

  • type?
  • schedule?
A
  • live attenuated

- give around 1yr with booster

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6
Q

Varicella vaccine

  • type?
  • timing?
A
  • live attenuated

- 12-18 months

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7
Q

Hep A vaccine:

  • type?
  • give after __ yrs
A
  • inactivated

- 2 yrs, with booster

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8
Q

Pneumovax

  • __ strains covered?
  • not effective in children younger than __ years
A
  • 23

- 2

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9
Q

Prevnar covers __ serotypes and is recommended for?

A
  • 7

- children

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10
Q

Which vaccines have most common side effects?

A

Live: MMR and varicella
(fever and rash
may occur 1–2 weeks after immunization)

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11
Q

do not give vaccines if temperature >__C or have history of ___ after prior vaccinations

A

> 40.5C

seizures or anaphylaxis, or inconsolable crying lasting ≥3 hrs after vaccination

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12
Q

maternal SLE puts baby at risk for

A

congenital heart block (3rd degree, 20% mortality, require pacing)

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13
Q

maternal ITP puts baby at increased risk for

A

intracerebral hemorrhage

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14
Q

effects of maternal Grave’s disease on baby

A

intrauterine growth restriction,
prematurity,
goiter (may cause tracheal obstruction),
exophthalmos, stare,
craniosynostosis (usually coronal),
flushing,
heart failure, tachycardia, arrhythmias, hypertension,
hypoglycemia,
thrombocytopenia, and hepatosplenomegaly.

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15
Q

teratogen: alcohol

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome, microcephaly, congenital heart disease

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16
Q

teratogen: aminopterin:

A

Mesomelia, cranial dysplasia

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17
Q

teratogen: coumarin

A

Hypoplastic nasal bridge, chondrodysplasia punctata

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18
Q

teratogen: folic acid antagonists

A

Neural tube, cardiovascular, renal, and oral cleft defects

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19
Q

teratogen: isotretinoin

A

Facial and ear anomalies, congenital heart disease

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20
Q

teratogen: silbestrol (DES)

A

Vaginal adenocarcinoma during adolescence

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21
Q

teratogen: thalidomide

A

phocomelia

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22
Q

teratogen: toluene

A

Fetal alcohol–like syndrome, preterm labor

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23
Q

teratogen: valproate

A

spina bifida

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24
Q

cyanosis is evident where there are __g of unsaturated Hgb

A

5g

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25
Q

name 4 causes of decreased RBC production in a neonate

A
  1. congenital RBC aplasia (Diamond-Blackfan)
  2. infection (Parvo, rubella, etc)
  3. nutritional deficiencies (prot, iron, folate, B12)
  4. congenital leukemia
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26
Q

hyperviscosity produces symptoms when Hct is >__%

A

65%

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27
Q

newborn presents with purpura, petechiae, and ICH. suspect what?

A

isoimmune thrombocytopenia (anit-plt Ab produced by the HPLA1-neg mohter after sensitization to specific paternal plt antigen - similar to erythroblastosis fetalis)

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28
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with T21

A

AV canal, VSD

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29
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Turners

A

CoA, AS

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30
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with CHARGE

A

conotruncal (ToF, truncus)

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31
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Marfan’s (AD)

A

aortic root aneurysm +/- dissection

MVP

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32
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with HCM (AD)

A

outflow tract obstruction

arrhythmias

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33
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Noonan syndrome (AD)

A

HCM, PS

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34
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Tuberous sclerosis

A

rhabdomyoma

35
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Romano-Ward (AD)

A

Prolonged QT

36
Q

Cardiac defect(s) associated with Jervell-Lange-Nielsen (AR)

A

Prolonged QT and SNHL

37
Q

what is proper BP cuff size?

A

70% of length from acromion to olecranon

38
Q

if HTN is detected in one BP reading, what is next step?

A

4 extremity BPs

39
Q

pulsus paradoxus - worry about __ and __

A

tamponade or bad asthma

40
Q

Loud S2?

A

pulmonary HTN

41
Q

mid-systolic click?

A

MVP

42
Q

ejection click?

A

AS or PS

43
Q

fixed, split S2? __, __ or __

A

ASD, RBBB, or PS

44
Q

By ___, pulmonary resistance drops and the LV becomes dominant

A

6 weeks - important for detecting VSD or PDA, TA, non-obstructed TAPVR

45
Q

which congenital heart defect is most likely to present on DOL#1?

A

Transposition w/o VSD

46
Q

Child with claudication, check for __?

A

CoA

47
Q

infant presents on DOL2-4 in shock, with tachycardia, a murmur, hepatomegally and poor femoral pulses. what will you give him/her?

A

PGE1 - likely an obstructive CHD (HLHS, PA, Critical PS or AS/CoA/IAA

48
Q

CHD present at birth (3)

A

ToF, Ebstein’s, Tricuspid atresia

49
Q

Truncus A will cause increased or decreased pulmonary blood flow?

A

increased

50
Q

treat TGA w/o VSD?

A

emergent balloon septostomy - PGE1 is not effective palliation

51
Q

2 MCC of infective endocarditis?

A

S. aureus and Viridans strep

52
Q

1 cause of acquired heart disease in US?

A

Kawasaki disease

53
Q

subacute presentation of kawasaki’s?

A

thrombocytosis, hand/foot peeling

54
Q

Prognosis of kawasaki’s w/o and w/ IVIG?

A

coronary artery dilation 15-25% w/o IVIG

4% w/ IVIG

55
Q

how does RF present?

A
arthritis 
carditis
syndenham's 
nodules
rash
56
Q

Etiology of myocarditis?

A

viral: Coxsackie B, adeno, parvo
Other: RF, KD, SLE, drugs, Chagas

57
Q

viral prodrome followed by CHF?

A

myocarditis

58
Q

5 causes of pericarditis

A
viral
RF
JRA
SLE
post-op uremia
59
Q

babe presents with poor feeding, lethargy and pulse >220…

A

accessory pathway, AVN re-entry, atrial flutter

60
Q

Tx LQTS?

A

B-blocker

Mg for TdP

61
Q

what dysrhythmia is associated with Ebstein’s anomaly

A

WPW

62
Q

what dysrhythmia is associated with MVP

A

palpitations

63
Q

what dysrhythmia is associated with Lyme disease

A

AV block (1st degree)

64
Q

what dysrhythmia is associated with anemia, fever, hyperthyroidism

A

sinus tach

65
Q

what dysrhythmia is associated with maternal SLE

A

heart block - anti-Ro and -La Ab

66
Q

eczema, unusual infections and thrombocytopenia?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

67
Q

Suspect T-cell deficiency, e.g. 22q11.2del syndrome - confirmatory test?

A

intradermal skin test using Candida albicans - no response

68
Q

vitamin deficiency suspected in the presence of cheilosis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis and various ocular problems

A

Riboflavin

69
Q

seizures, dermatitis, periphral neuritis, and microcytic anemia - vitamin deficiency?

A

B6 (pyridoxine)

70
Q

loss of paternal copy of 15q11-q13?

A

Prader Willi

71
Q

painless hematuria in SCD pts is likely due to

A

renal papillary necrosis or ischemia

72
Q

MCC cardiac defects in T21 (3)

A

complete AV canal/septal defect
VSD
ASD

73
Q

Tx for ITP with petechiae only?

A

observe. IVIG with bleeding

74
Q

child with scaly, slightly erythematous patch on scalp with hair loss - tx?

A

oral griseofulvin

75
Q

differentiate Niemann-Pick vs. Tay-Sachs?

A

NP has HSM

76
Q

pathology of Niemann-Pick?

A

Sphingomyelinase deficiency

77
Q

Pathology of Tay-sachs?

A

B-hexosaminidase deficiency

78
Q

female with short stature, no puberty, and no sense of smell?

A

Kallmann syndrome (XX) - lack of GnRH secretion

79
Q

physiologic effect of valsalva on the heart?

A

decreased preload - makes HCM murmur louder

80
Q

infant presenting with vomiting, poor weight gain, jaundice, hepatomegaly, convulsions, and cataracts - suspect?

A

galactosemia - deficiency of galactose-1-P uridyl transferase

81
Q

diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia?

A

niacin (B3) deficiency

82
Q

renal diseases associated with Hep B?

A

membranous nephropathy

MPGNephritis (less common)

83
Q

gold standard test to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Acidified glycerol lysis test