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MRCS Part B > Miscellaneous 4 > Flashcards

Miscellaneous 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenesis of calcific aortic stenosis?

A

Lipid deposition
Inflammation
Calcification
Valve thickening and stenosis

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2
Q

T wave inversion in lateral leads (V5/6) suggests what?

A

Left ventricular strain

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3
Q

What is aortic sclerosis vs stenosis?

A

Sclerosis = calcific disease without significant graident across valve
May progress to stenosis

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4
Q

Organisms implicated in infective endocarditis?

A 
S aureus - most common overall
Strep e.g. viridans
HACEKs
Enterococci
Pseudomonas
Fungi
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5
Q

What does amyloid look like histologically?

A

When congo red staining - shows apple green birefringence under polarized light

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6
Q

Classifications of amyloid?

A

AL (primary)
AA (secondary - chronic inflammation)
Hereditary ATTR

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7
Q

5 organs commonly invovled in AL amyloid? Pathogenesis?

A

Clonal proliferation of plasma cells producing amyloid monoclona Igs, soluble precursors to AL
Skin, heart, peripheral nerve,s kidneys, GI tract

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8
Q

PAthogenesis of AA amyloid?

A

Secondary to chronic inflammation
Macrophages release ILs that stimulate hepatocytes to secrete serum amyloid protein A which is an acute phase protein - soluble precursor to amyloid

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9
Q

Commonest cause of AA amyloid in the UK? 4 other causes?

A 
Rheumaoid arthritis
TB
IBD
Bronchiectasis
RCC
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10
Q

Commonest renal manifestation of amyloid?

A

Proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome

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11
Q

Common features of AA amyloid? What is less common?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly
Kidney - proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome
Nerve etc. involvement less common

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12
Q

Potential treatments for amyloid?

A

AA - control underlying disease

AL - chemo, stem cell transplants

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13
Q

Most common cause of death in amyloid?

A

Cardiomyopathy or fatal arrhythmia

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14
Q

What thyroid cancer has amyloid depostion and what is it?

A

Medullary -calcitonin

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15
Q

Where may isolated amyloid deposits be found in body?

A 
Thyroid
Larynx
Aorta
Urinary tract
Pituitary gland
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16
Q

What is pus?

A

Neutrophils with dead/dying microorganisms

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17
Q

What is a cyst and how is this different to a pseudocyst?

A

cyst = abnorma membranos sac containing gaseos, liquid or semisolid substance
Vs pseudocyst which lacks epithelial/endothelial cells

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18
Q

What is a diverticulum?

A

Abnormal outpouching of hollow viscus into surrounding tissues

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19
Q

Difference betwen clot, thrombus and embolus?

A 
Thrombus = solid material formed by constituents of blood formed in flowing blood
Clot = this but in static blood
Embolus = abnorma mass of undissolved material transported from one site to another
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20
Q

Define hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Exaggeerated response of host’s immune system to particular stimulus

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21
Q

What is a polyp?

A

Mass of tissue arising from a mucosal (epithelail) surface

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22
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

Abnormal growth of tissue which displays:
uncoordinate growth
growth exceeding normal tissue
growth which continues despite removal of initial stimulus

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23
Q

What is hyperplasia vs hypertrophy?

A 
Hyperplasia = increase in size of organ due to increase in number of cells
Hypertrophy = increase in size e.g. muscle fibres
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24
Q

What is a hamartoma?

A

Malformation composed of disorganised arrangement of different tissues normally found at that site

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25
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Reversible replacement of one fully differentiated cell type with another

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26
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Disrodered cellular development characterised by increased mitotic rate and pleomorphism WITHOUT invading basement membrane - may resolve if stimulus removed

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27
Q

Carcinoma vs sarcoma?

A 
Carcinoma = epithelial cell tumour
Sarcoma = connective tissue tumour
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28
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Reduction in size of organ due to reduction in size, number of cells (or both)

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29
Q

What diameter of the infrarenal aortra is aneurysmal?

A

2cm is normal so 3cm is aneurysmal

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30
Q

Complciations of aneurysm?

A 
Rupture
Thrombo/embolism
Local pressure effects
Fistulation
Infection
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31
Q

Criteria for considering elective AAA repair?

A

over 5.5cm
or over 4cm and grown by more than 1cm in 12 months
or if symptomatic e.g. painful

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32
Q

Management of AAA by size (elective)?

A

Less than 3cm = no follow up
3-4.4cm = annual US
4.5-5.4cm = 3m US
5.5 or above consider repair

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33
Q

What exits the posterior wall of the abdominal aorta and may be a source of back bleeding in AAA repair? How do you manage them?

A

Lumbar arteries

Oversew them

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34
Q

Complications of EVAR?

A 
Rupture intra-op
Endoleak
Mesenteric ischaemia, renal failure or MI
SPinal cord injury
Infection
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35
Q

Where is the blood in an aortic dissection?

A

Between intima and media

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36
Q

3 conditions linked to aortic dissection?

A

Marfans
EDS
Osteogenesis imperfecta

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37
Q

2 classification systems for aortic dissections?

A

Stanford - A and B

DeBakey 1, 2 (A) and 3 (B)

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38
Q

Classification of ascites?

A

Transudative (high SAAG)

Exudative (low SAAG - because high protein in ascitic fluid)

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39
Q

Causes o transudative ascities?

A

Increased portal venous pressure - crirrhosis, heart failure/pericarditis (constrictive), Budd Chiari, thoracic duct obstruction
Low albumin - protein losing enteropathies,liver failure, starvation/cachexia, nephrotic/nephritic syndrome

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40
Q

4 Ps of causes of exudative ascites?

A

Pancreatitis, peritoneal metastasis, peritonitis (incl TB), post-irradiation

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41
Q

What is atherosclerisis?

A

Artery wall thickens as a result of accumulation of fatty materials such as cholesterol

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42
Q

Pathophysiology of atherosclerosis?

A

Endothelial dysfunction resulting in migration of macrophages, some of which form foam cells and lipid core
Migration of vascular smooth muscle forming a fibrous cap
Eventually causes stenosis and rupture of the cap can lead to thromboembolism

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43
Q

Define wound healing?

A

Process by which tissue restores its normal architecture, structure and function, with return of tissue integrity and tensile strength

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44
Q

What are the 2 ways by which wounds can heal?

A

Resolution - no scar

Organisation adn repair - scar

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45
Q

Which cells are particularly important in healing by secondary intention?

A

Myofibroblasts - cause wound contraction and deposit collagen

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46
Q

What is healing by tertiary intention?

A

Relook surgery - e.g. open fractures

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47
Q

Stages of wound healing?

A

Haemostasis and platelet aggregation/coagulation
Acute inflammation
Proliferative/fibroblastic
Maturation and remodelling

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48
Q

Why might a wound fail to heal?

A

Local factors - ischaemia, infectino, surgical techinque, radiotheapy
Stystemic - DM, steroids/immunospresi/ chemo, heart/renal/liver failure, malnutrtion cancer or hypoxia

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49
Q

What are mycobacterium?

A

Gram positve, aeoribc, non motile and non-spore forming rods

Acid fast

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50
Q

Testing for active TB infection?

A

Fluid sample e.g. BAL, aspirate - for AFB, Ziehl Neelson staining
PCR - guide type of mycobacterium adn drug resistance
CXR, CT chest/abdo pelvis

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51
Q

Testing for latent TB infection?

A

Quantiferon

Mantoux or tuberculin skin test

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52
Q

Probelems with mantoux test?

A

May be falsely positive in people who have had bCG or galsely negative in immunocompromised

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53
Q

Drug treatment of TB?

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

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54
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

Collection of macrophages - often surrounded by rim of lympocytes

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55
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Energy-independent pathological cell death related to inflammation

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56
Q

5 kinds of necrosis? examples?

A

Coagulative - kidney, heart, spleen. also dry gangrene
liquefactive - brain. also wet/gas gangrene is a type of this
caseous - seen in TB
fat - due to trauma, e.g. breast or pancreas
fibrinoid - type 3 hypersensitivty, SLE, vasculitis

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57
Q

What is apoptopsis?

A

Energey dependent programmed cell death, resulting in apoptotic bodies which are phagocytosed and do not stimulate inflammatory response

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58
Q

What is grading of a cancer?

A

How well/poorly differentiated the cancer is histologically - therefore potential for growth and prognosis

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59
Q

What is staging of a cancer?

A

Spread and size. Requires clinical examination and imaging

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60
Q

Broadly describe Dukes staging for CRC?

A

A - confiend to bowel wall - 95% plus 5 5year survival
B - Through bowel wall but no LN mets
C - LN mets - 30%
D - distant mets - 5-10%

61
Q

Staging systems for melanoma?

A

Breslow thickness
Clarks level
TMN

62
Q

Give an example of a grading system used in cancer?

A

Gleason score - prostate

63
Q

Define acute kidney injury? Cut off system?

A

Abrupt fall in rate of glomerular filtration resulting in ability of kidney to filter waste products
RIFLE or AKIN
Rise in creat over 1.5-2x baseline, or absolute by 26.5

64
Q

Normal range urea and creatinine?

A

2.5-6.7

70-150

65
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis?

A

Acute damage to renal tubular cells resulting from ischaemic insult or nephrotoxin build up

66
Q

Causes of ATN?

A

Hypovolaemia, haemorrhage
Sepsis
Cardiac failure
Renal artery stenosis

67
Q

Minimal normal UO for adult vs child?

A

0.5ml/kg/hr for adult

1ml for child

68
Q

Define oliguria? vs anuria?

A

UO les than 0.5ml/kg/hr for 6 hours, or less than 400ml in 24 hrs
Anuria is no urine output

69
Q

Give an example of a document used to guide end of life care?

A

One Chance to Get it Right - 2014

70
Q

How do brainstem death testing?

A

2 doctors, one a consultant, both qualified over 5 years with full GMC licence, not involved with patients who may receive organs
Exclude reversible causes
Fixed pupils non reactive to light
absent corneal relfexes
absent oculovestibular reflexes
no motor response in CNs in response to stimulation - no gag or cough to bronchila stimulation
apnoea tes t - no spontaneous breathing

71
Q

Absolute contraindications to organ donation after brain death? Relative ones?

A 
CJD
HIV disease (not just infection)

Rleative include TB, age over 90, sepsis, recent disseminated cancer

72
Q

Differentials for acute limb ischaemia/ pale pulseless limb?

A 
Artieral dissection
Acute venous thrombosis
Chornic limb ischaemia
Tramautic vascular injury
Neurological e.g. spinal cord infarct
73
Q

AMPLE history?

A 
Allergies
Medications
PMH
Last ate
Events leading to admission
74
Q

What to examine when assessing for ?acute limb ischaeima?

A 
Abdominal exam ?masses ?AAA
Lower limb pulses - femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial
ABPI
Buerger's test
Doppler US
75
Q

How calculate ABPI?

A

Check brachial on each arm (twice) and DP / PTA on each foot

Systolic over systolic - highest each time

76
Q

Causes of acute limb ischaemia?

A 
Thombosis - most common
Embolism
Mural thrombi
Proximal aneurysms
Infective emboli
77
Q

Classification of acute limb ischaemia in terms of salvagability?

A

1 - not immediately threatened - audible doppler, no sensorimotor deficit
2a - salvageable if prompt - sensory deficit, no motor
2b - salveagable if immediate - incomplete sensorymotor deficit
3 - amputate - complete sensoryimotor deficit

78
Q

How does the classification of acute limb ischaemia guide whether investigations are done and how quikcly?

A

1 or 2a may have time to complete investigations, especially if thrombotic to define extent and level of occlusion

79
Q

5 specific complications to embolectomy?

A 
Reperfusion
Intimal damage
Arterial puncture
Psuedoaneurym formation
Amputation
80
Q

Where is the femoral artery - surface marking?

A

Below inguinal ligament at midinguinal point, half way between pubic symphysis and ASIS

81
Q

What is in the femoral sheath?

A

Artery, vein, canal

82
Q

Physiological function of the femoral canal?

A

To allow expansion of the femoral vein e.g. during exercise

83
Q

Boundaries of femoral canal?

A

Anteriorl y- inguinal ligaement
Medially - lacunar ligament
Laterally - femoral evin
posteriorly - pectineal ligament

84
Q

Describe split of popliteal artery in leg?

A

Divdes into tibioperoneal trunk and anterior tibial artery (ant comp)
Tibioperoneal divides to peroneal (lateral comp) artery and posterior tibial (posterior 2)

85
Q

Define pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with acutal or potential tissue damage

86
Q

What 3 stimuli are nociceptors responsive to?

A

Thermal
Mecahinkcal
Chemical

87
Q

3 orders of neurones transmitting pain?

A

first order - cell bodies in DRG, synapse in cord
second order - spinothalamic tract
third - thalamus to primary somatosensroy cortex

88
Q

What are the different kinds of fibres involved in pain reception?

A 
A-delta = sharp, loclised
C = dull, poorly localised
89
Q

How do NSAIDS work for pain?

A

Inhibit cyclo-oxygenase enzymes to inhibit inflammatory prostaglandin production

90
Q

6 RFs for chronic post surgical pain?

A 
Prolonged surgery
Nerve injury
Pre-op pain
Chemo/radiotherapy
Severe post op pain
Patient psychological factors
91
Q

What causes allodynia?

A

Cross talk between sympathetic/A beta fibres and nociceptive fibres

92
Q

Shelf life of RBCs when appropriately stored?

A

35 days

93
Q

Define massive transfusion?

A

Transfusing entire circulating volume in 24 hours, or over 50% in 4 hours

94
Q

4 complications of massive transfusion?

A

Fluid overload
Coagulopathy
Electrolytes - hyperkaelamia, hypocalecamia
Hypothermiaa

95
Q

Alterantives to blood transfusion for e.g. Jehovah’s witnesses? Other measures surrounding surgery?

A

Subsitutes - colloids, crystalloids
Pharmacological - iron tabs, TXA, epo, factor 7a, cell saver for autologous transfusion
Surgical - meticulous haemostasis
Anaesthetic - monitor BP, prveent hypothermia

96
Q

Things that need excluding prior to brainstem death testing?

A

Reversible causes
e.g. metabolic derangements - Na, Mg, Ca etc, drugs/benzos/alcohol etc, hypothermia, addisons/myxoedema coma
also non-neurological causes of apnoea e.g. c spine injury, myaesthenia/NMJ disorders

97
Q

How do perfrom apnoea testing in brainstem death?

A

adequately preoxygenate
hypoventilate to CO2 of at least 6, pH of less than 7.4
disconnect from cicruit and maintain oxygen flow
observe for 5 mins for apnoea
repeat ABG - if rise in CO2 over 0.5 confirms loss of respiratory drive

98
Q

Differences between CSF and plasma?

A

CO2 higher in CSF so pH lower
protein very low, less buffering capacity
glucose concentration lower
chloride higher

99
Q

What is a steroid?

A

Organic compound with characteristic arragement of 4 cycloalkane rings joined together

100
Q

Give 5 examples of endgenous steroids?

A 
Cholesteroll
Cortisol
Testosterone
Aldosterone
Progesteron
101
Q

Layers of adrenal cortex and produce?

A

Zona glomerulosa - aldosterone
Zona fasciculata - glucocorticoids
Zona reticularis - androgens and oestrogens

102
Q

Potential blood loss volume for limb fractures/ pelvis?

A

Tibia or humerus 750ml
Femur 1.5L
Pelvis entire circulating volume

103
Q

Describe transfusion regimes in trauma?

A

Local policiiy but NICE advocate inital volume replacement (Pack A) then coagulation factor replacement (Pack B - FFP, platelets, cryo) - O neg
Then continue to transfuse at ratio of 1:1:1 e.g. red cells to FFP

104
Q

Discuss different suture classifications?

A

Aborbable vs non aborsable
Synthetic vs natural
Monofilament vs braided

105
Q

Give examples of absobrable sutures?

A

Synthetic - monofilament = monocryl, PDS braided - vicryl,

Natural - collagens

106
Q

Give examples of non-absorbable sutures?

A

Synthetic - prolene, ethilon (nylon) - both monofilament

Natural - braided silk, steel

107
Q

What would you close vascular anastomosis with?

A

Non-absorbable suture such as prolene

108
Q

What would you close a hand sewn bowelanastomsis with?

A

Absorbable suture such as vicyrl

109
Q

Common uses for absorabble sutures?

A

Skin or fast healing deep tissues
Bowel anastomosis
Biliary or urinary suturing
Tying off small vessels near skin

110
Q

Complete absoprtion times for vicryl rapide and vicryl?

A

42 days for rapide, 60 for vicryl

111
Q

Complete absorption time for monocryl?

A

100 days

112
Q

Complete absorption time for PDS?

A

200 days

113
Q

What kind of things are non-absorbable sutures useful for?

A

Ones which need constant reinforcement e.g. vascular anastomosis
Fascia/tendon repairs
Abdo wall erpairs

114
Q

Which of synthetic and natural sutures are more comonly used ? Why? Give example of a commonly used natural

A

Natural used less as incite more of a tissue reaction

However silk used for e.g. drain sites

115
Q

Differences between mono/polyfilament sutures?

A 
Mono = less risk of infection but poor knot security/ease of handling
Poly = higher risk infection, easier to handle and knot more securely
116
Q

2 examples of braided sutures?

A

Silk

Vicryl

117
Q

What are reverse cutting needles goof for?

A

Tough tissue such as tendons, fascia

118
Q

What is the difference between a true and false diverticulum?

A 
True = all layers of structure involved
False = only part of wall e.g. sigmoid diverticulum, pharyngeal pouch
119
Q

What enzymatic process is implicated in pathogenesis of pancreatitis?

A

Premature and inappropriate activation of trypsinogen to trypsin starting activation cascade of autodigestion

120
Q

Enzymes invovled in pathogenesis of pancreatitis?

A

Typsin and other proteases - pancreatic parenchymal damage
Elastases - vascular damage
Amylase
Lipase

121
Q

Radiological scoring system for pancreatiits?

A

Balthazar score

122
Q

Modified glasgow score for pancreatitis includes what?

A 
PaO2 under 8
Age over 55
Neutrophilia ovre 15
Calcium under 2
Renal - urea over 16
Enzymes - LDH or AST
Albumin low
Sugar - BM high
3 or more of above within first 48 hours suggests severe
123
Q

Theoretical risk of giving morhpine in pancreatitis?

A

Thought to contract sphincter of oddi

124
Q

Blood supply to pancreas?

A 
Superior pancreaticodudodeanl (celiac) and inferior pancduod (SMA) to head
Splenic artery (celiac) to rest
125
Q

How high should amylase be to diagnose pancreatitis?

A

3x UL of normal

126
Q

Differentials for BPH?

A

Bladder outlet obstruction secondary to prostatic carcinoma, urethral stricture, bladder neck dysfunction or urethral sphincter dyseynergia
Bladder dysfunction due to oversensitivity, detrusor overactivity or low detrusor contractility

127
Q

What is bladder outlet obstruction?

A

Urodynamic condition implying voiding with high pressure and low flow rate

128
Q

What does PSA do?

A

Peptidase that liquifies semen to allow sperm to move freely and dissolve cervical mucus

129
Q

How would you manage raised PSA and abnormal PR exam?

A

Repeat PSA
TRUSS and biopsy
MRI +/- bone scan
Urology MDT

130
Q

How is the gleason score used?

A

2-10 where 10 is worst

2 scores of 1-5 for most commonly seen histological patterns

131
Q

Grading vs staging of tumours?

A 
Grading = level of cell differentiation, roughly corresponds to rate of growth
Staging = size and spread
132
Q

How frquently should PSA be checked post radical prostattectomy for prostae Ca?

A

6 weeks after treatment, then every 6 months for 2 years, then annually

133
Q

If PSA is even slightly raised at first check (6 weeks) post radical prostatectomy, what does this suggest? Why?

A

Disseminated malignancy - because half life is only 2-3 days, so should be undetectable within 4-6 weeks

134
Q

Mechanism of hormone therapy in prostate Ca? Example?

A

Competitive antagonism of androgen receptors, preventing testosterone from binding to prostate cancer cells and inhibiting their growth
Bicalutamide

135
Q

Prophyalctic antibiotics are indicated for which surgeries?

A

Clean involving prosthesis or implant
Clean contaminated
Conatminated

136
Q

What and when are the key parts of the WHO surgical safety checklist done?

A

Sign in - before induction of anaesthesia
Time out - before skin incision
Sign out - after operation

137
Q

What instrument is typically use to grasp umbilicus for laparoscopic surgery?

A

Littlewoods

138
Q

What ratched forcep is typically used to handle e.g. bowel in an atraumatic fashion?

A

Babcock

139
Q

What non-ratched forcep is non-toothed and used to grasp tissues without damaging them? What is its toothed alternative?

A

Debakey

Lanes is toothed

140
Q

What is the self retaining retractor for deep wounds called?

A

Norfolk and Norwhich

141
Q

What is the self retaining retractor for superficial wounds called?

A

Travers

142
Q

How might an incision for a lipoma excision vary vs a sebaceous cyst?

A

Lipoma often short as it will squeeze through
More elipitcal incisions centred around punctum for sebaceous cysts
Ensure length is 3x width for incision

143
Q

What are the 2 phases of acute inflammation?

A

Vascular - vasodilation, incrsaed permeability, exudate and incresaed tissue lfuid
Cellular - neutrophil migration - margination, rolling, adhesion and emigration - then phagocytosis

144
Q

4 stages of wound healing by primary intention?

A

Haemostasis
Inflmamation
Proliferation incl angiogenesis and formation of granulation tissue, collagen via fibroblasts
Remodelling - collagen deposition and fibroblast apoptosis

145
Q

Which cells are more important in secondary intention than primary for wound healing?

A

Myofibroblasts

146
Q

When is suturing appropraite to close a wound?

A

Lac greater than 5cm
Deep dermal wounds
Locations prone to flexion, tension or wetting

147
Q

Scoring system for severity of otitis externa?

A

Brighton Grading system

148
Q

Incision for Ivor Lewis procedure?

A

Right thoracotomy and laparotomy

MRCS Part B (25 decks)

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