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Self Made Shizz > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Arsenic sources (3) + treatment (2)

A

Pesticides, contaminated water (I.e wells), pressure-treated wood; Dimercaprol British, DMSA succimer

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2
Q

Substances causing methemoglobinemia (3) + treatment (2)

A

dapsone, nitrites, local/topical anesthetics; methylene blue or vitamin C

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3
Q

How long after ingestion can you give activated charcoal

A

~1-2 hours up to 4

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4
Q

What is sarin, soman, and tabun?

A

Organophosphate chemical weapons that have a slightly fruity smell

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5
Q

What is a Geiger-Müller counter?

A

Detects radiation exposure

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6
Q

Snake bite treatment and indication

A

Crotalidae polyvalent immune Fab (FabAV); only for people with symptoms, abnormal coagulation, or cardiovascular compromise as it can cause severe anaphylaxis

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7
Q

Treatment for decompression sickness

A

IV fluids, 100% oxygen and hyperbaric oxygen therapy

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8
Q

Treatment of High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)

A

Dexamethasone

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9
Q

When to give activated charcoal for acetaminophen OD

A

> 7.5g ingested, 4 hours or less of ingestion

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10
Q

Normal post-void residual; Post-void residual in overflow incontinence; post-void in urge incontinence

A

<100ml; >200ml; <50ml

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11
Q

Lab changes in Cushings

A

Hypertension, Hyperglycemia, Hypernatremia, Hypokalemia

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12
Q

Renal blood flow (RBF) formula

A

RPF/(1-Hct); RBF usually 20-25% of cardiac output

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13
Q

Renal plasma flow (RPF) formula

A

UV/P of PAH

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14
Q

Filtration fraction (FF) formula; Normal FF?

A

GFR/RPF; Normal: 20%

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15
Q

Filtered load (mg/min) formula

A

GFR x plasma concentration

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16
Q

Treatment for Stable Ectopic Pregnancy

A

Methotrexate

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17
Q

Treatment for unstable Ectopic pregnancy

A

Surgery

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18
Q

Other name for teratoma

A

Dermoid tumour

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19
Q

Parkland Formula for fluid resuscitation in burns

A

4mL x body weight (kg) x TBSA (%)= total crystalloid fluids in first 24 hours

Half total volume in first 8 hours, half given over following 16 hours

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20
Q

CCB that can be used in heart failure

A

Amlodipine

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21
Q

Chromium deficiency manifestation (1)

A

Impaired glucose control

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22
Q

Copper deficiency manifestation (3)

A

Brittle hair
Skin depigmentation
Neurological dysfunction

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23
Q

Selenium deficiency manifestation (3)

A

Thyroid dysfunction
Cardiomyopathy
Immune dysfunction

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24
Q

Zinc deficiency manifestation (5)

A

Alopecia
Pustular skin rash
Hypogonadism
Impaired wound healing
Impaired taste

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25
Q

Niacin deficiency manifestation (3)

A

Dermatitis
Diarrhea
Dementia

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26
Q

Entamoeba Tx

A

Metronidazole/Tinidazole PLUS Paromomycin

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27
Q

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis dx tests; Risk factors for curve progression (5)

A

Unilateral thoracic/lumbar prominence on forward bend test. Cobb angle >10 degrees consistent with scoliosis, >25 degrees is severe.

“SAFES”
Skeletal immaturity, Age <12, Female, Early puberty, Severe curvature >25

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28
Q

Legionnaires Disease features

A

Atypical pneumonia, confusion, GI features, hyponatremia, bradycardia

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29
Q

Differentiation b/w Vascular Dementia and Alzheimer’s

A

Vascular dementia will have executive dysfunction rather than memory loss. Urinary and reflex abnormalities are moreso seen in vascular dementia

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30
Q

JVP Waveform correlations (A, C, x, V, y)

A

A: Atrial contraction
C: Ventricular contraction
x: Atrial relaxation
V: Maximal atrial filling
y: Atrial emptying

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31
Q

What can cause pulsus paradoxus? (3)

A

Decrease in Blood Pressure >10mmHg during inhalation
-Cardiac tamponade, asthma, COPD

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32
Q

Rituximab to treat which leukemia?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

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33
Q

Imatinib is used to treat which leukemia?

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

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34
Q

Cytarabine used to treat which leukemia?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

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35
Q

Treatment for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)

A

Hyper-CVAD
-Cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Dexamethasone

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36
Q

Adverse effects of each DMARD (Methotrexate, Leflunomide, Hydroxychloroquine, Sulfasalazine, TNFa-inhibitors)

A

Methotrexate: Hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, cytopenias
Leflunomide: Hepatotoxicity, cytopenias
Hydroxychloroquine: Retinopathy
Sulfasalazine: Hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, hemolytic anemia
TNFa-inhibitors: infection, demyelination, CHF, malignancy

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37
Q

Drug of choice for small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO)

A

Rifaximin

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38
Q

What is a Gastric Bezoar?

A

Accumulation of undigestible materials (hair, foreign objects) in stomach; leads to gastric outlet obstruction (GOO)

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39
Q

What is a succussion splash?

A

Splash sound heard when abdomen is rocked from retained food in stomach, heard in gastric outlet obstruction (GOO)

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40
Q

What is a trachoma?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia

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41
Q

Causes of Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis)

A

“CAST Bent LEGS” - Corticosteroids, Alcoholism, Sickle cell, Trauma, Bend (decompression), LEgg-Calve-Perthes, Gaucher, Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

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42
Q

Aflatoxin increases risk of which malignancy?

A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

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43
Q

Bordetella Pertussis Tx

A

Macrolide (Azithromycin, Clarithromycin)

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44
Q

Ogilvie Syndrome causes (6) and treatment (2)

A

Causes: Major surgery, injury, infection, electrolyte derangement, medication (opiates, anticholinergic), neurological disorders
Treatment: NG/rectal decompression. Neostigmine if no improvement within 48hrs

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45
Q

Antibody associated with Autoimmune Pancreatitis

A

Immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4)

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46
Q

Most specific antibody for Autoimmune Hepatitis

A

Anti-Liver Kidney Microsomal Antibody (Anti-LKM-1); other antibodies are ANA and anti-smooth muscle

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47
Q

Skin infection associated with Parkinson’s + Cause + Treatment

A

Seborrheic Dermatitis; Malassezia; Topical Ketoconazole

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48
Q

Chest XRay findings in pulmonary embolism (3)

A

Westermark sign: Peripheral hyperlucency of pulmonary arterial tree
Hampton hump: Peripheral, wedge-shaped opacity representing infarction
Fleischner sign: Enlargement of pulmonary artery

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49
Q

What is Hyposthenuria? What condition is it associated with

A

Kidneys unable to concentrate urine resulting in abnormally low specific gravity; Associated with Sickle Cell Disease

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50
Q

Treatment of Postherpetic Neuralgia (PHN)

A

-Anticonvulsants (Gabapentin, Pregabalin)
-TCAs (Amitriptyline, Desipramine, Nortriptyline)
-Topical Capsaicin

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51
Q

How to differentiate Biliary Colic from Acute Cholecystitis

A

Biliary colic has quick resolution and lack of fever, abdominal tenderness, and leukocytes which helps distinguish it from cholecystitis

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52
Q

Imaging modality for pancreatic tumor in head vs body/tail

A

Head: Ultrasound
Body/tail: Abdominal CT scan

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53
Q

Antibody & MSK pathology associated with PBC and treatment

A

Antimitochondrial antibody ; Osteoporosis/Osteomalacia ; Ursodeoxycholic acid

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54
Q

Cause of pill esophagitis (other than tetracycline or bisphosphanates)

A

NSAIDS, iron, and potassium chloride

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55
Q

Pancreatitis causes (11)

A

“I GET SMASHED”
I- Idiopathic
G- Gallstones (2nd most common cause)
E- Ethanol (most common cause)
T- Trauma
S- Steroids
M- Mumps/Malignancy
A- Autoimmune (IgG4)
S- Scorpion
H- Hypertriglyceride (>1000) or Calcium
E- ERCP
D- Drugs (HCTZ, Didanosine, Pentamidine, Bactrim, Azathioprine)

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56
Q

Findings on slit-lamp for keratitis (bacteria vs HSV vs fungi)

A

Bacteria: Central, round ulcer
HSV: Branched, dendritic ulcers
Fungi (i.e., candida): Ulcers with feathery margins

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57
Q

Hepatopulmonary syndrome pathology and clinical findings

A

Intrapulmonary vascular dilations in setting of chronic liver disease; Platypnea (dyspnea when upright) and orthodeoxia (oxygen desat when upright)

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58
Q

Blood transfusion-related hypocalcemia

A

Increased citrate levels, binding calcium

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59
Q

Diagnosis/treatment of Upper Airway Cough Syndrome (UACS)(postnasal drip)

A

First-gen H1 receptor antagonists (I.e., chlorpheniramine)

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60
Q

Photosensitivity-causing drugs

A

“SAN LIGHT”
-Sulfonamides
-Amiodarone
-NSAIDS
-Loop diuretics
-Isotretinoin
-Griseofulvin
-Hydrochlorothiazide
-Tetracyclines

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61
Q

SJS-causing drugs

A

“SANA”
-Sulfonamides
-Anticonvulsants (I.e, lamotrigine)
-NSAIDS
-Allopurinol

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62
Q

MMR; precautions for each

A

Measles: Airborne
Mumps, Rubella: Droplet

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63
Q

Influenza and Pertussis precaution

A

Droplet

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64
Q

Tuberculosis precaution

A

Airborne

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65
Q

Varicella precaution

A

Airborne

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66
Q

What is seen in Felty Syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, Neutropenia, Splenomegaly

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67
Q

What is seen in Caplan Syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis

68
Q

Most common joint involved in OA with names of nodules

A

Most common: distal interphalangeal (DIP)
Nodules: Heberden (DIP), Bouchard (PIP)

69
Q

Hand joint involved with RA; hand findings

A

-Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) common in RA
-May see Boutonnière (ulnar deviation) and Swan Neck deformities

70
Q

Most common risk factors for Pseudogout (2)

A

Hemochromatosis and Hyperparathyroidism

71
Q

Belimumab MOA & Use

A

B-cell inhibition to control progression of Lupus

72
Q

Most dangerous complication of Sjogren syndrome

A

Lymphoma

73
Q

Treatment for scleroderma renal crisis

A

ACE inhibitor

74
Q

Drugs causing GOUT

A

“Too much seafood on your PLATE”
Pyrazinamide
Loop diuretics
Aspirin (low dose)
Thiazides
Ethambutol

75
Q

Main causes of Reactive Arthritis (6)

A

Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, CDiff, Yersinia, Chlamydia

76
Q

Schirmer test

A

Test used in Sjogrens to measure amount of tears produced

77
Q

Antibody in Limited vs Diffuse scleroderma

A

Limited (CREST): Anti-Centromere
Diffuse: Anti-Scl70 (Anti-topoisomerase 1), Anti-RNA polymerase III

78
Q

Drug of choice for lupus + ADR

A

Hydroxychloroquine; Retinal toxicity

79
Q

LBBB and RBBB EKG findings

A

-Thumbs up (I/II and aVF)
-LBBB: M-shaped V6
-RBBB: Rabbit ears V1

80
Q

Differentiating CHF exacerbation vs COPD exacerbation

A

CHF: Low CO2, resp alkalosis 2/2 tachypnea
COPD: High CO2, resp acidosis 2/2 trapping

81
Q

Causes of increased DLCO (2)

A

Pulmonary hemorrhage, Polycythemia

82
Q

Sepsis criteria

A

“TPRW” (SIRS)
-Temperature >38C or <36C
-Pulse >90
-Respirations >20 or pCO2 >32mmHg
-WBC >12,000 or <4,000

+ source of infection

83
Q

Wernickes Triad + Causes

A

Encephalopathy, Ataxia, Nystagmus

Causes: EtOH abuse, anorexia, malignancy, hyperemesis gravidarum

84
Q

Prominent x & y descents on JVP tracings

A

Constrictive pericarditis

85
Q

Causes of pulsus paradoxus

A

Drop in systolic blood pressure >10mmHg on inspiration

Asthma, COPD, cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathy

86
Q

Therapy to decrease mortality in HFpEF

A

SGLT2 inhibitors (Dapagliflozin, Empagliflozin)

87
Q

Dx of RV dilations due to myocytes being replaced by fibrofatty tissue

A

Arhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia (ARVD)
-Autosomal dominant
-2nd MCC of SCD in young adults (2nd to HOCM)
-Avoid physical activity
-Tx with ICD, b-blockers, anti-arrhythmic, anticoagulation

88
Q

Pathophysiology of Refeeding Syndrome

A

Hypophosphatemia due to chronic malnutrition (I.e., alcohol, anorexia)-> reintroduction of carbohydrates stimulates insulin secretion-> insulin drives phosphate into cells, further depleting it-> severe phosphatemia with symptoms of muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, rhabdomyolysis, arrhythmias, CHF…

89
Q

Appearance of Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) on imaging

A

Well-circumscribed, solitary, <5cm, hyper-dense with a central, stellate scar

Benign, asymptomatic, caused by anomalous arteries, seen in young females

90
Q

Metabolic Syndrome criteria

A

At least 3 of the 5:
-Abdominal obesity (>40 in males, >35 in females)
-Fasting glucose (>100-110)
-BP (>130/80)
-Triglycerides (>150)
-HDL (<40 in men, <50 in women)

91
Q

Lab findings in VIPoma

A

Hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, VIP >75pg/mL

92
Q

Urine pH in each RTA

A

Type 1 (distal): >5.5
Type 2 (proximal): <5.5
Type 4: <5.5

93
Q

Causes of each RTA

A

Type 1: Genetic, medication, Autoimmune >5.5
Type 2: Fanconi <5.5
Type 4: Obstructive uropathy, congenital adrenal hyperplasia <5.5

94
Q

Three types of hernias

A

Reducible: Return to native position with gentle pressure or valsalva
Incarcerated: Trapped in hernia defect, will not return
Strangulated: Trapped hernia loses blood supply and requires groin exploration

95
Q

Hepatorenal Syndrome Pathophysiology + Drug treatment (3)

A

Portal HTN->Local release of vasodilators->Splanchnic vasodilation->Decreased arterial blood volume->Decreased renal perfusion->Increased RAAS causing Na retention and ascites->Overwhelming renal vasoconstriction causing acute renal failure

-Octeotide, Midodrine, terlipressin

96
Q

Feared outcome of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Arterial/Venous thrombosis

97
Q

Internal vs external hordeolum (Stye)

A

Internal: Infectious blockage of Meibomian gland

External: Infected eyelash follicle

*both painful and

98
Q

Diagnosis of painless blocked meibomian gland

A

Chalazion

*vs painful which is caused by hordeolum

99
Q

Treatment of Hordeolum (Stye) vs Chalazion

A

Hordeolum: Allow spontaneous drainage, warm compress

Chalazion: Warm compress, antibiotic eyedrops, surgery if needed

100
Q

Rosacea treatment, papulopustular vs erythematotelangiectatic type

A

Papulopustular: Topical Metronidazole

Erythematotelangiectactic: Laser or topic brimonidine (a2 agonist)

101
Q

Fundoscopic findings in Glaucoma

A

Optic disc atrophy with cupping with elevated intra-ocular pressure (IOP)

102
Q

Infectious causes s/p liver transplant <1 month, 1-6 months, and >6 months

A

<1 month: Bacterial
1-6 months: Opportunistic pathogens
>6 months: Community-acquired

103
Q

Who would be considered low (<10%) pre test probability of coronary artery disease

A

-Asymptomatic people of any age
-Atypical chest pain in women <50

104
Q

Who would be considered intermediate (20-80%) pre test probability of coronary artery disease

A

-Atypical chest pain in men all ages
-Atypical chest pain in women >50
-Typical chest pain in women 30-50

105
Q

Who would be considered high (>90%) pre test probability of coronary artery disease

A

-Typical chest pain in men >40
-Typical chest pain in women >60

106
Q

What is Samter’s Triad

A

Asthma, nasal polyps, sensitivity to NSAIDs.

Associated with Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)

107
Q

Sickle Cell Pulmonary Hypertension Pathophysiology

A

Chronic intravascular hemolysis releasing free heme into plasma depletes nitric oxide, leading to pulmonary vasoconstriction.

108
Q

Contraindications to taking lithium vs valproate

A

Lithium: Avoid in renal disease

Valproate: Avoid in liver disease

109
Q

Contraindications to taking Naltrexone vs Acamprosate

A

Naltrexone: Don’t take if taking opioids or with liver disease

Acamprosate: Don’t take with renal disease

110
Q

5 P’s of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)

A

-Painful abdomen
-Port-wine urine
-Polyneuropathy
-Psychological disturbances
-Precipitated by drugs

111
Q

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda associations and triggers

A

Associations: Hepatits C, HIV

Triggers: Alcohol, OCPs, Smoking

112
Q

Potassium Citrate use

A

Urine alkalization for stones, Tx renal tubular acidosis

113
Q

Memantine MOA and Use

A

NMDA receptor antagonist ; Alzheimer’s

114
Q

What is Holiday Heart Syndrome

A

Afib induced by alcohol binge-drinking

115
Q

All drugs causing Digoxin toxicity

A

Amiodarone, verapamil, quinidine, propafenone

116
Q

Treatment of frequent allergic conjunctivitis

A

Mast cell stabilizers (e.g. Olopatadine, Azelastine)

117
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) shows features of what? Has which marker? Most common cause of death?

A

Variable features of SLE, systemic sclerosis, polymyositis, rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein (anti-U1RNP). Most common of death from pulmonary hypertension

118
Q

Demeclocycline off-label use

A

SIADH. Antagonist of ADH

119
Q

What would be seen in lesion of left paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)

A

Conjugate gaze of BOTH eyes to right side

120
Q

What would be seen in lesion of left medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)

A

On attempted coordinated horizontal gaze to the right, the left eye will not be able to properly adduct and typically result in nystagmus

called Internuclear Opthalmoplegia (INO), seen in Multiple Sclerosis patients

121
Q

What would be seen in lesion of left frontal eye fields

A

Conjugate gaze deviation of BOTH eyes toward the lesion

122
Q

Multiple sclerosis treatment for acute setting, refractory, maintenance, and spasticity

A

Acute: IV Steroids
Maintenance: Beta interferon, fingolimod, natalizumab
Refractory: Plasmapheresis
Spasticity: Baclofen or Tizanidine

123
Q

Treatment of CLL

A

Ibrutinib, Fludarabine

*if suspected, start with quantitative immunoglobulin assay (flow cytometry)

124
Q

Adverse effect of HIV drug Abacavir

A

Life threatening systemic reaction (fever, rash, respiratory distress) in HLA-B5701 positive patient

125
Q

Treatment of Chagas Disease

A

Benznidazole and Nifurtimox

126
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis associations

A

A- Ashleaf spots
S- Shagreen patches
H- Heart rhabdomyomas
L- Lung lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)
E- Epilepsy from cortical tubers
A- Angiomyolipoma in kidney
F- Facial angiofibromas

127
Q

Cholangitis clinical findings

A

Charcot’s Triad: RUQ pain, Fever, Jaundice

Reynold’s Pentad: Triad + hypotension and AMS

128
Q

VACTERL Anomalies

A

Vertebral (X-ray)
Anal (imperforate)
Cardiac (Echo)
Tracheal
Esophageal
Renal (ultrasound)
Limbs (thumbs in particular)

129
Q

Pathophysiology of annular pancreas

A

Adherence of ventral bud of pancreas to duodenum causing obstruction

130
Q

Which kidney stone has the highest occurrence rate

A

Calcium Oxalate

131
Q

Shape of each type of kidney stone (6)

A

Calcium oxalate: Biconcave dumbbell/bipyramidal envelope
Calcium phosphate: Wedge-shaped prisms
Uric acid: Rhomboid/Rosette
Struvite: Rectangular coffin-lid
Cystine: Hexagon-shaped
Xanthine: Amorphous

132
Q

What is the “law of double effect” and example in health-care

A

Carrying out an action that may cause harm but with a primary ethical intent

Giving pain meds to COPD patient with metastatic cancer even if the only way to relieve pain was enough opioids that breathing ends up being impaired, causing early death.

133
Q

Normal pregnancy weight gain

A

11.4-15.9kg (25-35lbs)

*Equivalent to caloric intake increase of 350kcal/day in 2nd trimester and 450kcal/day in third semester

134
Q

Most common cause of Bacterial Conjunctivitis in adults? Treatment?

A

Staph Aureus; Erythromycin ointment or polymixin-trimethoprim drops

*Fluoroquinolone drops in contact lens wearers

135
Q

Dx in patient with maximal heel pain on first stepping out of bed. Pain/tenderness at medial plantar heel, worse with dorsiflexion

A

Plantar fasciitis

136
Q

Dx in patient with posterior heel pain, swelling/tenderness 2-6cm proximal to tendon insertion

A

Achilles tendinopathy

137
Q

Dx in patient with heel pain worse with activity, reproduced by medial-lateral squeezing of calcaneus

A

Calcaneal stress fracture

138
Q

Dx in patient with pain, paresthesia, and numbness on sole of foot. Percussion tenderness over posterior tibial nerve

A

Tarsal tunnel

139
Q

Dx in patient with pain, paresthesia, and numbness on sole of foot. Percussion tenderness over posterior tibial nerve

A

Tarsal tunnel

140
Q

Dx in patient with episodic spastic contraction of anal sphincter unrelated to defecation

A

Proctalgia fugax

141
Q

Treatment of lymphangitis

A

Cephalexin

142
Q

Dx with chronic lateral hip pain that is worse with hip flexion or lying on affected side

A

Greater trochanteric pain syndrome (GTPS)

143
Q

What is the most common congenital foot deformity

A

Flexible metatarsus adductus; resolved by 1 year.

*rigid type treated with casting

144
Q

Dx in patient with chronic watery diarrhea, normal mucosa, and a biopsy showing mucosal subepithelial collagen deposition

A

Collagenous colitis

145
Q

Types of strabismus

A

Nasal deviation (esotropia), temporal deviation (exotropia)

146
Q

Von Hippel Lindau symptoms

A

C- Cerebellar hemangioma
A- Retinal “A”ngioblastona
R- Renal cell carcinoma

P- Pheochromocytoma
E- Epidydymal nodule and tumour
E- Endolymphatic sac tumour
P- Pancreatic tumour and cyst

147
Q

Measles vs Rubella

A

Measles: High-grade fever with rash, generalized lymphadenopathy, common in children, conjunctivitis, cough

Rubella: Mild fever preceding rash, localized lymphadenopathy (postauricular, suboccipital), common in adolescent and young adults

*both centrifugal rash

148
Q

Prognosis of congenital hydrocele

A

Spontaneous closure of processes vaginalis by age 1; Ligation if spontaneous closure fails to occur

149
Q

Associations with Fabry disease

A

“HARP”
Hypohidrosis
Angiokeratomas
Renal failure
Peripheral neuropathy

150
Q

What is Heyde syndrome?

A

Triad of aortic stenosis, vWD, and GI bleeding due to angiodysplasia

151
Q

Consequence of iron poisoning within 2 days and within 2-8 weeks

A

Within 2 days: hepatic necrosis
Within 2-8 weeks: pyloric stenosis

152
Q

Treatment of leptospirosis

A

Gram negative. Contact with urine of infected animals

First line Doxycycline. Alternatively Azithromycin

153
Q

Dx in patient with FOOSH, anterior shoulder flattening, arm held in adduction and internal rotation

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation

154
Q

Dx in arm drop positive and decreased abduction with intact sensation

A

Rotator cuff tear

155
Q

Dx in axillary nerve damage, flattened deltoid, prominent acromion, abducted and externally rotated shoulder

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation

156
Q

Dx in trauma or injury with tenderness upon adduction of arm across torso, palpable deformity at superior aspect of shoulder

A

Acromioclavicular joint dislocation

157
Q

Amantadine MOA, Use, adverse effect

A

Weak NMDA receptor antagonist, improve motor symptoms in Parkinson’s. Adverse Livedo reticularis and peripheral edena in 5% of cases

158
Q

Kawasaki symptoms

A

“CRASH and BURN”
-Conjunctival injection
-Rash (palms/soles to trunk)
-Adenopathy
-Strawberry tongue, oral fissures
-Hand/foot erythema
-Burn (Fever >5 days)

Tx: ASA + IVIG

159
Q

What is Mentzer index

A

Used to differentiate between iron deficiency anemia and beta thalassemia

MCV divided by RBC count. Under 13 typically thalassemia, above 13 typically iron deficiency

160
Q

Mastitis treatment

A

Continue breastfeeding, cover staph aureus with dicloxacillin or cephalexin

161
Q

What is a positive Stemmer sign?

A

Inability to lift skin on dorsum of second toe. Highly specific for lymphedema

162
Q

What is ortner syndrome?

A

Left atrial enlargement causing recurrent laryngeal nerve compression resulting in voice hoarseness

163
Q

HLA associated with Psoriatic Arthritis

A

HLA-B27

164
Q

What is an asthma action plan?

A

An Asthma Action Plan is a written, individualized worksheet that shows you the steps to take to keep your asthma from getting worse. It also provides guidance on when to call your healthcare provider or when to go to the emergency room.

Takes into account symptoms and peak flow measurement. Green=Go, Yellow=Quick-relief medicine, Red=Seek medical attention

165
Q

What is the Dawn Phenomenon

A

Early morning (2-8AM) fasting hyperglycemia due to circadian increase in growth hormone and cortisol secretion

166
Q

Diet and exercise can decrease risk of which type of heart failure

A

HFpEF

167
Q

What is paradoxical vocal fold motion (PVFM)

A

Also called vocal cord dysfunction, vocal cords inappropriately adduct (close) during inspiration causing obstruction.

Diagnose with laryngoscopy

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