Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

when does pre prosthetic surgery take place

A

before the fabrication of a denture

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2
Q

what is included in pre prosthetic surgery

A
  • maxillary and mandibular tori
  • exostoses
  • sharp prominents mylohyoid ridges
  • epulis fissuratum
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3
Q

what is denture stomatitis

A

a localized or generalized chronic inflammation of the denture bearing mucosa

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4
Q

what is the clinical presentation of denture stomatitis

A

redness and a burning sensation with or without discomfort

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5
Q

what is the most likely cause of denture stomatitis

A

trauma and secondary fungal infection

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6
Q

what is the treatment of denture stomatitis

A
  • improved oral hygieve
  • tissue rest
  • antifungal therapy
  • resilient tissue conditioners
  • new, well fitting denures
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7
Q

acute atrophic candiasis presents as:

A
  • a red patch or atrophic or
  • erythematour red and painful mucosa
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8
Q

antibiotic sore mouth, a common form of atrophic candidiasis should be suspected on a patient that develops symptoms of:

A
  • oral burning
  • bad taste
  • sore throat during or after therapy with broad spectrum antibiotics
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9
Q

what patients are susceptible to atrophic candidiasis

A
  • chronic iron deficiency anemia
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10
Q

what kind of candidiasis is denture stomatitis

A

chronic atrophic candidiasis

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11
Q

where is papillary hyperplasia found

A

in the palatal vault

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12
Q

what are the causes of papillary hyperplasia

A
  • poor fitting dentures
  • poor oral hygiene
  • leaving denture in 24 hours a day
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13
Q

what is the treatment for papillary hyperplasia

A
  • educate pt on OH
  • advise patient to leave denture out at night
  • soak dentures for 30 minutes in a 1% solution of sodium hypochlorite and rinse thoroughly
  • use tissue conditioners
  • patient should brush irritated area lightly with a soft brush
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14
Q

what is epulis fissuratum

A

a chroniccally ill fitting denture causes inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia adjacent to its border
- reactive growth in relation to an overextended or ill fitting denture flange

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15
Q

what are the causes of epulid fissuratum

A
  • long term neglect or settling subsequent to residual ridge resorption
  • traumatic occlusion of natrual teeth opposing an artificial denture
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16
Q

what is the treatment of epulis fissuratum

A

surgical removal of the hyperplastic tissue

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17
Q

what is the treatment for hyperplastic tissue

A
  • tissue rest
  • soft reline of existing dentures
  • change in denture habits- not wearing them 24 hours a day
  • surgical removal of the tissue
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18
Q

what is the best impression technique for a patient with loose hyperplastic tissue

A

to register the tissue in its passive position

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19
Q

what is the most important reason for treatment of hyperplastic tissue before construction of a denture

A

to provide a firm, stable base for the denture

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20
Q

what is Kelly’s combination syndrome

A

a specific pattern of bone resorption in the anterior portion of edentulous maxilla

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21
Q

when does kelly’s combination syndrome happen

A

when a mandibular partial denture is opposed by a maxillary complete denture

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22
Q

what is the cause of kelly’s combination syndrome

A
  • prostheses lose some degree of support as a result of alveolar resorption
  • as resorption occurs under mandibular extension bases support for the posterior prosthetic teeth is decreased
  • the occlusal forces are concentrated within the anterior sextants, increases forces in anterior maxilla may result in absorption, downward growth of the tuberosities and tipping of the occlusal plane
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23
Q

how is kelly’s combination syndrome treated and how does this fix the issue

A
  • continuous reline or placement of implants in mandibular posterior locations
  • this results in more stable occlusal plane and a more equitable distribution of forces to the maxillary denture
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24
Q

what is tissue conditioner

A

soft materials that are applied to the intaglio surface of a complete or partial denture to allow a more equitable distribution of forces throughout the dental arch
- non- irritating
- non-toxic
- soft, elastic does not undergo permanent deformation

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25
Q

what are tissue conditioners used to treat

A

unhealthy or abused oral tissues

26
Q

how long does the softness of tissue conditioner last

A

about 1 week which then can become hard and an irritant

27
Q

how often must the tissue conditioner be changed

A

every 3-5 days

28
Q

what is tissue conditioner made of

A
  • powder and liquid
  • powder is an acrylic polymer, usually ethyl methacrylate
  • the liquid is usually a mixture of ethyl alcohol and aromatic ester
  • the two combine to form a gel that remains pliable for several days
29
Q

what is the mechanism of action of tissue conditioner

A

a combination of improved force distribution and a short term cushioning effect

30
Q

the intaglio surface of the RPD is checked using:

A

pressure indicating paste

31
Q

when is tissue conditioner applied

A

after intaglio surface is checked with PIP and occlusion is checked normally

32
Q

how is tissue conditioner applied

A
  • the cameo surface of the prosthesis is painted with separator
  • after the tissue conditioner is mixed, flowed onto the intaglio surface of denture
  • tissue conditioner distributed evenly using a small spatula
  • denture is seated in the mouth under light pressure
  • pressure is maintained
  • border tissues should be manipulated to border mold the conditioner
33
Q

for a mandibular RPD, the tongue should be brought:

A

forward and forcibly placed into each cheek to define the lingual extension accurately

34
Q

with tissue conditioner if posterior artifical teeth are present:

A

patient must close the teeth together while the conditioner is still flowable to align the artifiial teeth properly with the opposing occlusion

35
Q

how long should the patient sit with tissue conditioner under the gel stage has been reached

A

4-5 minutes

36
Q

excess tissue conditioner should be removed using:

A

a sharp blade

37
Q

areas of contact in tissue conditioner should be removed using:

A

laborator burs

38
Q

what should you do with dentures out of the mouth with tissue conditioner on it

A
  • do not let it dry
  • submerge in water or a cleansing solution
39
Q

how is wrought wire made

A

drawing the metal from which it is made into a wire

40
Q

wrought wire clasp must have an elongation percentage of:_________ and why?

A

more than 6% to allow the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties such as fracture

41
Q

what is cast metal

A

any metal that is melted and cast into a mold

42
Q

what is a wrought metal

A

when casting is cold-worked in some manner to provide the required article or appliance

43
Q

which have better mechanical properties: wrought wire or cast structure

A

wrought wire

44
Q

the wrought wire has ___greater ________ than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated

A

25%; strength, hardness and tensile strength

45
Q

the wrought wire has greater _______ than the cast clasps and are ______ than cast clasps

A

flexibility and adjustability; tougher and more ductile

46
Q

what does the success of wrought wire clasps depend on

A

their physical properties and the changes that may occur during fabrication

47
Q

laboratory procedures can compromise desirable physical properties of wrought wire due to:

A

improper heating and cooling

48
Q

what is the mechansim of action of lab errors in fabricating wrought wire

A
  • too much heat
  • change in the fibrous microstructure of the wrought wire and getting replaced by a grain or crystalline mcirostructure
  • process is known as recrystallization or grain growth
49
Q

what is the most undesirbale occurrence in wrought wire retentive arms

A

recrystallizatino or grain growth

50
Q

the popularity of chromium Cobalt alloys for fabrication of cast frameworks for RPDs has been attributed to their:

A
  • low density (weight)
  • high modulus of elasticity (stiffness)
  • low material cost
  • resistance to tarnish
51
Q

chromium cobalt allows are ____ in comparison to gold or pallidum alloys

A

more rigid

52
Q

how can the stiffness of chromium- cobalt allows be overcome

A

by including wrought- wire retentive elements in the framework

53
Q

what does chromium, coblat, and nickel do in chromium alloys for RPDs

A
  • chromium: ensures that the allow will resist tarnish and corrosion due to formation of a complex chromium oxide film
  • cobalt: contributes strength, rigidness and hardness
  • nickel: increases ductility
54
Q

what are the minor constituents and their effects on chromium alloys for RPDs

A
  • carbon: effect on strength, hardness and ductility
  • tin, indium: improve bonding
55
Q

the gold allows are _____ as flexible as the chromium- cobalt alloys

A

twice

56
Q

what are the advantages of chromium cobalt alloys

A
  • high modulus of elasticity and therefore lower flexibility
  • low material cost
  • low density (weight)
57
Q

what are the possible causes of failure of chromium cobalt alloys

A
  • cold working
  • shrinkage porosity
  • low percent elongation
  • excessive carbon in the alloy
58
Q

why does cold working cause failure of chromium cobalt alloys

A

reduces the percentage of elongation that causes a decrease in hardness

59
Q

why does shrinkage porosity cause failure of chromium cobalt alloys

A

the alloys shrink about 2.3% and the result is porosity

60
Q

why does low percent elongation cause failure of chromium cobalt alloys

A

directly related to greater brittleness

61
Q

why does excessive carbon in the alloy cause failure of chromium cobalt alloys

A

reacts with the other constituents to form carbides

62
Q
A