Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

What is polycythaemia vera?

A

Myeloproliferative disorder

Caused by clonal proliferation of haematopoietic progenitor cells

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2
Q

What is primary polycythaemia?

A

Due to mutation - inherited or acquired

Main cause is polycythaemia vera

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3
Q

What is secondary polycythaemia?

A

Due to increased EPO production

Hypoxia induced rise:
smoking, CLD, COPD, obesity, OSA

Inappropriate EPO rise
Renal cell cancer, Wilm’s
Adrenal tumours

Illicit EPO use

Androgen use, testosterone replacement

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4
Q

What is relative polycythaemia?

A

Increase in haematocrit or Hb count in presence of normal red cell mass
Decrease in plasma volume

Dehydration e.g. diarrhoea, vomiting, diuretics use

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5
Q

What is the pathogenesis of polycythaemia vera?

A

98% patients have JAK2 mutation - tyrosine kinase

V617F mutation, mutations in exon 12

Mutations result in proliferation of haematopoeitic precursors

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6
Q

What are the clinical features of polycythaemia vera?

A

Some asymptomatic with raised Hb/haematocrit incidentally on blood tests

If presenting symptomatic - may have gradual creeping onset, non-specific due to increased blood viscosity

Headache, visual disturbance
Tinnitus, itching, fatigue
Vertigo, paraesthesia

Bruising, excoriation, conjunctival infection, splenomegaly, erythromelalgia

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7
Q

What are the investigations for polycythaemia vera?

A

FBC raised Hb or haematocrit

Raised serum EPO suggestive of secondary polycythaemia

Raised WCC and platelet count suggestive of PV

Serum ferritin, serum uric acid

Genetic testing for JAK2 V617F in exon 14 or mutations in exon 12

Bone marrow biopsy to distinguish PV from secondary polycythaemia

USS to identify splenomegaly, identify renal or hepatic tumours;
CT, MRI, PET-CT

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8
Q

When can a diagnosis of polycythaemia vera be made following investigations?

A
  1. High haematocrit (> 0.52 in men, > 0.48 in women) OR raised red cell mass (>25% above predicted)
  2. Mutation in JAK2
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9
Q

What is masked polycythaemia vera?

A

Haemoglobin and haemtocrit count normal despite presence of disease

Typically occurs in setting of iron deficiency where effect of JAK2 mutation blunted

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10
Q

What is the management of polycythaemia vera?

A

Reduce complications, symptoms and reduce risk of transformation to myelofibrosis or acute leukaemia

Maintain haematocrit at <0.45

Venesection - 200-500mls at a time

Low dose aspirin, 75mg once daily to reduce thrombotic events

Cytoreduction therapy in high risk patients -
hydroxycarbamide (antimetabolite)
or interferon-alpha, ruxolitinib and busulfan

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11
Q

Who can be considered for cytoreductive therapy?

A

Age >65 years and/pr
Prior PV associated arterial or venous thrombosis

Also considered in low risk with 
Thrombocytosis
Progressive splenomegaly
Progressive leucocytosis
Poor tolerance of venesection
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12
Q

What is Budd Chiari syndrome?

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis

Lead to tender hepatomegaly, ascites, and sudden severe abdominal pain

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13
Q

What complication can arise from Polycythaemia Vera?

A

AML transformation

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14
Q

What is primary myelofibrosis?

A

Proliferation of haematopoietic stem cells in the marrow and at other sites leading to fibrosis

Marrow is replaced with scar tissue

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15
Q

At what age is primary myelofibrosis most prevalent?

A

60yo

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16
Q

What signs and symptoms are commonly seen in primary myelofibrosis?

A

Typically elderly present with anaemia
B Symptoms
Massive splenomegaly

\+/-
Spontaneous bleeding
DCIS
Oesophageal varices
Petechiae
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17
Q

What investigation findings would you expect with myelofibrosis?

A

Anaemia
WCC and platelets high in early disease then low

Bone marrow aspiration = dry tap
So need to do trephine biopsy

“Tear drop” poikilocytes (RBC’s) on blood film

Poikilocytosis - varying sizes of red blood cells
and immature red and white cell blasts

High urate and LDH

Homozygous JAK2 or MPL mutation

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18
Q

How is primary myelofibrosis managed?

A

Allogenic stem cell transplant is the only cure

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19
Q

What is the palliative/symptomatic management for primary myelofibrosis?

A

Red cell transfusion/EPO for anaemia

hydroxyurea or splenectomy - splenomegaly

prednisolone - cytopenic

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20
Q

What are the complications of primary myelofibrosis?

A

progress to blast phase - like AML
portal hypertension
splenic infarct
immune deficiency

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21
Q

What is essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Failure in platelet production regulation

Malignant megakaryocyte proliferation

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22
Q

At what age do people get essential thrombocythaemia?

A

60yo

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23
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Burning sensation in hands

Mixed thrombosis and bleeding in any system:
Dusky extremities
TIA and amaurosis fugax
Arterial and Venous thrombosis (leg, MI, hepatic, renal)
Bleeding - GI, gums, eyes, urinary

Sweating/Fever
Hepato/splenomegaly

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24
Q

Why can you see bleeding in essential thrombocythaemia?

A

clotting factors run out

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25
Q

How do you diagnose essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion

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26
Q

What is found in investigations of essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Platelet count >600
High WCC, RBC but low Hb

thrombocytes on blood spear

hypercellular bone marrow with giant megakaryocytes and increased reticulin

Impaired platelet aggregation

Philadelphia chromosome absent

Heterozygous JAK2 or MPL mutation

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27
Q

What factors puts a patient with essential thrombocythaemia at high risk?

A

> 60yo
History of thrombosis
Very high platelet count

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28
Q

How do you manage Essential Thrombocythaemia patients?

A

Aspirin
Hydroxyurea
Interferon-alpha

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29
Q

Why is hydroxyurea used in essential thrombocythaemia?

A

anti-metabolite –> reduce platelets

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30
Q

What are the main complications of essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Thrombosis
Haemorrhage
AML transformation

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31
Q

What is encompassed in a VTE?

A

Pulmonary embolism (PE): acute/chronic occlusion of pulmonary arteries. Clot breaks off and travels to the lungs (emboli).

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT): acute/chronic occlusion of deep vein(s). Commonly affects the lower limbs through the formation of a clot forms (thrombus).

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32
Q

Where can a DVT be located?

A

Distal - below popliteal trifurcation, can resolve spontaneously without symptoms

Proximal - above popliteal, may affect popliteal, femoral or iliac veins
50% develop PE within 3 months

Other - name according to vessel or location of thrombus

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33
Q

What can cause a DVT?

A

Provoked - transient or persistent risk factors, typically within three months of event

Unprovoked - no identifiable risk factor, not easily correctable

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34
Q

What are some of the risk factors for VTE?

A
Intrinsic factors
Hx of DVT
Cancer
Obesity
Acquired or inherited thrombophilia
Inflammatory disorders
Varicose veins
Smoking
Male sex
Older age >60 years
Transient factors 
Hospitalisation
Recent major surgery
Recent major trauma
Significant immobility
Hormone therapy e.g. COCP or HRT
Long distance flights
Dehydration
Acute infection
Pregnancy + 6 weeks PP
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35
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Pathophysiology of DVT based on this

Venous stasis
Hypercoaguable state
Endothelial injury

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36
Q

What are the clinical features of DVT?

A

Classically with painful, unilateral leg swelling
Warm to touch, surrounding erythema

Calf asymmetry - diameter >3cm increases likelihood
Venous distention
Oedema
Tenderness along deep veins

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37
Q

What are some examples of thrombophilias?

A
Antiphospholipid syndrome (this is the one to remember for your exams)
Antithrombin deficiency
Protein C or S deficiency
Factor V Leiden
Hyperhomocysteinaemia
Prothombin gene variant
Activated protein C resistance
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38
Q

What VTE prophylaxis is given when admitted to hospital?

A

If at increased risk
LMWH e.g. enoxaparin unless contraindicated (active bleeding or existing anticoagulation with warfarin or NOAC)
Antiembolic stockings (unless significant peripheral arterial disease)

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39
Q

What is the Well’s score and its meaning?

A

10 criteria, score 0-9

Score >2 - DVT likely, proximal leg vein US within 4 hours or d-dimer, interim anticoagulant, US in 24 hrs

Score <1 - DVT 5%
D-dimer
If positive, proceed to leg vein US testing

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40
Q

What is the d-dimer test?

A

D-dimer is fibrin degradation product

Created when blood clots broken down by fibrinolytic system

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41
Q

What should be done if d-dimer positive but scan negative?

A

Interim anticoagulation should be stopped
Patient offered repeat proximal leg vein ultrasound in 6-8 days

Looks for possible extension of a distal DVT into the proximal veins that require treatment

42
Q

What anticoagulation is given in DVT?

A

LMWH
DOACs
Vit K antagonists e.g. warfarin

If stable, no renal impairment or co-morbidities - apixiban, rivaroxaban
Active cancer DOAC e.g. edoxaban
Renal impairment LMWH

If starting warfarin, must have two consecutive INR readings >2 before stopping LMWH (bridging therapy)

43
Q

What long term management is required for DVT?

A

Minimum of 3 months
3-6 months for active cancer

Exploration of cause if unprovoked DVT
Thrombophilia testing
Cancer

44
Q

What is a classical complication of DVT?

A

Most concerning is PE

Post thrombotic syndrome - chronic swelling, pain, skin changes from venous stasis

45
Q

What cell lineages are affected in myeloproliferative diseases?

A

Myelofibrosis - haematopoietic stem cell

Polycythaemia vera - erythroid cells

Megakaryocyte - essential thrombocytopenia

46
Q

What is myelofibrosis and its pathophysiology?

A

Can be result of primary myelofibrosis, PV or ET.

Proliferation of cell line causes fibrosis of bone marrow, replaced by scar tissue - because cytokines released from proliferating cells e.g. fibroblast growth factor.

Means haematopoiesis starts to occur elsewhere - liver and spleen
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, portal hypertension

If occurs round the spine can cause spinal cord compression

47
Q

What is the presentation of myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Can be asymptomatic
Fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, fever

Anaemia, splenomegaly, abdo pain, portal hypertension - ascites, varices, abdo pain
Low platelets
Thrombosis

48
Q

What are three key signs on examination in polycythaemia vera?

A

Conjunctival plethora - excessive redness to the conjunctiva in the eyes
A ‘ruddy’ complexion
Splenomegaly

49
Q

What is myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Caused by myeloid bone marrow cells not maturing properly
Not producing healthy blood cells

Causes anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

50
Q

Who is myelodysplastic syndrome more common in?

A

Those over 60

Patients who have previously had treatment with chemo or radiotherapy

51
Q

What is the management of myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Watchful waiting
Supportive treatment e.g. blood transfusions if severely anaemia
Chemotherapy
Stem cell transplant

Risk of transforming into acute myeloid leukaemia

52
Q

What are differentials of abnormal or prolonged bleeding?

A

Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
Haemophilia A and haemophilia B
Von Willebrand Disease
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (usually secondary to sepsis)

53
Q

What is the management for ITP?

A

Prednisolone (steroids)
IV immunoglobulins
Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells)
Splenectomy

54
Q

What is HIT?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Development of antibodies against platelets in response to exposure to heparin

Target protein on the platelets called platelet factor 4

Binds to platelets, activates clotting mechanisms
Causes hypercoaguable state
Leads to thrombosis
Breaks down platelets, causes thrombocytopenia

55
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

Production and maturation of T, B and Plasma cells

Removal of unwanted bacteria - encapsulated

Reservoir for blood cells

56
Q

How does splenomegaly present?

A

LUQ mass

Early satiety

Abdominal discomfort

Pancytopaenia

57
Q

What is noted on examination of a splenic mass?

A

Heads towards RLQ
Moves on respitation
Dull to percuss
Can’t palpate above

58
Q

What causes MASSIVE splenomegaly?

A
CML
Myelofibrosis
Malaria 
Gaucher's syndrome (hereditory)
Visceral Leischmaniasis (parasite)
59
Q

What FBC results would you see with hyperspenism and why?

A

Pancytopaenia due to pooling and destruction of cells

60
Q

Where are blood cells destroyed in the spleen?

A

Reticulo-endothelial system

61
Q

How does hypersplenism present?

A

Anaemia
Infection
Bleeding

62
Q

What are the causes of splenomegaly?

A

Haematological: malignancies, haemolytic anaemia, sickle cell sequestration crisis

Infectious: Hep, TB, malaria, EBV

Congestive: HF, splenic vein obstruction, liver cirrhosis, Budd-Chiari

Abscess or cyst

Autoimmune/inflammatory: SLE, RA, sarcoid

63
Q

What are the indications for splenectomy?

A

Spontaneous rupture

Hypersplenism

Malignant Infiltration

Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura

64
Q

What are the complications of splenectomy?

How could you prevent the consequences of one of these complications?

A

thrombocytosis –> peak within 7-10 days. Give prophylactic aspirin

infection with encapsulated bacteria

65
Q

Give examples of encapsulated bacteria

A

Haemophilus Influenzae
Neisseria Meningitidis
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Salmonella Typhi

66
Q

If a patient has raised Hb but low circulating volume, what is this indicative of?

A

Relative polycythaemia i.e. concentrated

lower plasma volume caused by burns, dehydration, fluid loss –> apparent Hb rise

67
Q

You find a raised Hb and then note that circulating volume, WCC and platelets are all high, what does this indicate?

A

primary polycythaemia - usually polycythaemia vera

68
Q

Hb and circulating volume high
WCC and platelets low

What does this indicate?

A

secondary polycythaemia

Hypoxia = EPO release (COPD, local renal hypoxia, sleep apnoea, altitude)

EPO production increased (Cushings, cerebellar haemangioma)

Exogenous intake (often athletes)

69
Q

What diseases can cause increased EPO production?

A
hydronephrosis
Polycystic kidneys/liver
Renal/Hepatic carcinoma
Cushings
Cerebella haemangioma
70
Q

What are signs of primary causes of raised platelets?

A

symptoms
+
hepatosplenomegaly

71
Q

What can cause a raised platelet count?

A
Reactive: infection, surgery
Iron deficiency anaemia
Myeloproliferative disorder
Other malignancy
Hyposplenism
72
Q

What can cause a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)?

A

Marrow damage: malignancy, virus, alcohol
Increased clearance: DIC, TTP, ITP, HELLP
Splenomegaly eg malaria, liver cirrhosis
Dilutional following red cell transfusion

73
Q

What can cause neutropenia?

A
Drugs: clozapine, carbimazole
Virus: HIV, EBV
Marrow failure: malignancy
Reduced B12 or folate
Immune diseases: RA, SLE
Benign ethnic neutropenia
74
Q

What can cause neutrophilia?

A

reactive: infection, inflammation (IBD, RA)
malignancy: myeloproliferative, CML
Hypo/asplenism
Hypoxia
Drugs: lithium, steroids

75
Q

What can cause lymphadenopathy

A

Malignancy
Infection
Granulomatous diseases: TB, sarcoid
Collagen vascular diseases: SLE, RA, sjogrens

76
Q

where is a bone marrow sample often taken from?

A

Posterior superior iliac crest

77
Q

What is the difference between a bone marrow aspiration and a trephine?

A

aspiration is liquid portion of the marrow

trephine take a solid piece

78
Q

What is advanced care planning and what is an advanced decision to refuse treatment?

A

Care planning: not legally binding but sets out the persons wishes on any aspect of future care

ADRT: legally binding if valid and applicable. It states which treatments under which circumstances a person does not wish to have

79
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

Cancer picked up early so although screening appears to prolong life, life is not prolonged just time with cancer is longer

80
Q

What is length time bias?

A

Screening picks up slow growing cancers that the person may never have noticed or been harmed by. Screening appears to prolong life of those found +ve whereas actually it may never have harmed them

81
Q

In what cancers can Cushing’s syndrome be seen

A

SCLC
NSCLC
Pancreatic cancer

82
Q

What causes Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Excess production of ACTH precursors

83
Q

How does Cushing’s syndrome present?

A

Rapid onset weakness
Hyperpigmentation
Metabolic disturbance

84
Q

How is Cushing’s syndrome treated?

A

Depend on cancer

Bilateral adrenalectomy OR
Metyrapone

85
Q

What cancers can cause hypercalcaemia?

A

NSCLC
Head and neck cancers
Renal tumours

86
Q

What cancers cause peripheral neuropathy?

A
SCLC
Myeloma
Hodgkins
Breast
GI
87
Q

How do cancers cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

Autoimmune axonal degeneration/demyelination

88
Q

What are key investigations for investigating metastatic disease of unknown primary?

A

FBC, U&Es, LFT, calcium, urinalysis, LDH
Chest-xray
CT chest abdomen pelvis
AFP and hCG

Myeloma screen if lytic bone lesions
Endoscopy directed towards symptoms
PSA in men
CA 125 in women with peritoneal malignancy or ascites
Testicular US in germ cell tumours
Mammography
89
Q

What cancers if AFP associated with?

A

Liver cancer, germ cell tumours e.g. testicular cancer

90
Q

What is B2M associated with?

A

Myeloma
CLL
Lymphoma

91
Q

What is bHCG associated with?

A

Choriocarcinoma

Germ cell tumours

92
Q

What is CA15-3 and CA27.29 associated with?

A

Breast cancer

93
Q

What is CA19-9 associated with?

A

Pancreas, gallbladder, bile duct, gastric cancers

94
Q

What is CA125 associated with?

A

Ovarian cancer

95
Q

What cancer is calcitonin associated with?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

96
Q

What is CEA associated with?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen

Associated with colorectal cancer

97
Q

What is CgA associated with?

A

Neuroendocrine tumours

Chromogranin A

98
Q

What is fibrin/fibrinogen in the urine associated with?

A

Bladder cancer

99
Q

What is LDH associated with?

A

Melanoma, leukaemia, lymphoma

100
Q

What is PSA associated with?

A

Prostate cancer