Misc - Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Goodwill in Consolidation = CV or PP - FV

A

Carrying value more denotes goodwill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CONSOLIDATION - Goodwill impairment impacts _____________

A

CV of investment in Parent’s books

and

Equity Earnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bonds Payable 4000000
Discount on bonds payable 40000
BIC 30000
Gain on Bond redemption(plug) 50k
Cash (retired value) 3880000

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

COnsolidation, equity method

A

Investment in Sub (NI) 150
Equity in Earnings(IS) 150

TO dep excess
Equity in earnings 20
Inv in sub 20

To record impairment
Equity in earnings 5
INv in SUb cr. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If co. is publicly traded, consider FV of stock to calculate NCI and Goodwill

100 shares @ 8 = 800

A

Otherwise calc by calc total value of the firm 90% bought for 900

total value = 900/90% = 1000
NCI = 1000*10% = $100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

COST METHOD - Inter company dividends only need to be eliminated when Cost method is used coz dividends are Income in cost method and

EQUITY METHOD - No need to eliminate dividend if parent uses equity method as it’s a reduction in investment or CV of inv and dividend is not considered as income in equity method.

A

Div declared - need to be eliminated in both methods

Div declared but not paid

Equity - just 1 entry to eliminate div declared

DIv payable 15000
Div receivable 15000

COST METHOD - 2 Entries when div is declared
1. eliminating entry
Div Income 15000
RE 15000

  1. DIv payable 15000
    Div receivable 15000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FUnctional classification - statement of activities

A

Natural - by function in the notes of FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Eliminate profit from RE - COnsolidation

A

RE 5600
Inventory 5600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

To eliminate Bonds

A

Bonds Payable 1000
Gain 100
Inv in Bonds 900

ELimination of int expense of 8% on 1000 face value bonds

Accrued int payable 80
Accrued int receivable 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Assets

A

COst > Progress billings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EFT collections

A

on company book side: not on bank side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cash paid to employees for GENERAL and ADMINISTRATIVE expenses

A

Operating Activities (this or salaries is an income statement item. Cash transactions reported on the income statement are operating items.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A NEW SEPARATE CONTRACT IS FORMED WHEN _____

A
  1. Additional products in the contract modification are DISTINCT from the products in the original contract
  2. Consideration for the additional products reflects an appropriate standalone selling price.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Allowance for sales returns and allowances is a CONTRA ASSET to AR and

A

Contra assets have a natural credit balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

AFS impairment - need 3 numbers to calculate
1. FV
2. PV
3. Amortized cost or book value

If FV> Amortized value =unrealized gain (OCI)

Valuation account (BS)Dr. XX
Unrealized gain (OCI) XX

FV< Amort = Impaired
Impaired = FV - AMort
Calc ECL (PV-AMortized cost )

Calculate PV at market rate

A

(1)If impaired amount < Expected credit loss (ECL)
Credit loss Dr, (at ECL amount)
Allowance for credit loss (at ECL amount)

If impaired amount > ECL then record:
Credit loss (at ECL amount) Dr.
Allowance for credit loss (at ECL amount)

Unrealized loss on AFS (Impaired - ECL)
Valuation account (Impaired - ECL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Revenue recognition - Product 1 is relected as a conditional contract asset in JE until the delivery of product 2 occurs. ____________

A

Once both products 1 and 2 have been delivered, Rhonda has an unconditional right to payment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NFP - NOT CLASSIFIED AS NET ASSETS (LIABILITY OR REFUNDABLE ADVANCE)

Accounts such as conditional pledge receivable or conditional revenue are never used.

A
  1. A donor provides a deposit to a NFP that will ultimatetly fund the construction contigent upon securing operating funding for the program which it is to use.

2/A donor promises to contribute funds to defray construction costs of a new building contingent upon securing operating funding for the program which it is to house.

NFP - Purchase of equity of another organization - INVESTING

OPERATING - (1) CASH RECEIVED with MATCHING conditions attached should be deferred. Deferred items should be classified as cash flow from oeperations.

(2) Interest earned on endowment

Revenue = worked of skilled workers and work of unskilled general laborers as they “enhanced a physical asset”. (15k + 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The day care persuades the benefactor to give $200,000 to help the provider persuade the bus line that the benefactor is serious

A

Cash 200000
Refundable advance 200000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FV more than CV denotes

A

Bargain purchase option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CARINBIG (Eliminating Common stock-sub, APIC-sub and RE-sub against Investment in subsidiary)

100,000 shs at $10 each =1000000
MV @$17.60 each = 17,60,000

Common stock Dr. 600000
APIC Dr. 100000
RE Dr. 50000
Investment in SubsidiaryCr. 17,60,000 (FMV)
NCI Cr. Zero (100% acquisition)
PP&E(excess of FV over BV) Dr. 950000
Goodwill Dr. 60000

A

Common stock - sub Dr.
APIC-sub Dr.
RE-sub Dr.
Ivestment in Sub, (FMV mkt vaklue of stockor acquisition price) (Cr.)
NCI (non controlling interest) (Cr.)
Balance sheet adjustment to FV of Sub or Plant and Equipment (e.g. PPEexcess of FMV or BV) Dr.
Identifiable intangible assets to FV Dr.
Goodwill Dr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adjustments to Goodwill JE,

Goodwill is not amortized

A

Impairment expense 2,000
Goodwill 2,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ELiminate intercompany transactions associated with the income statement

A

Dividend income from Sub Dr. 10k
Dividends Paid 10k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Right to recover goods
Sale 3k
return 15% =450

A

AR 2550
Right to recover goods 450
Sales revenue 2550
Refund liability 450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Equioment sold to Sub in Yr 3 for $120,000 cost 100,000 in Yr 1 . P 10 year SL Dep.
Sub 8 year Dep . Eliminating JE

A

Gain on sale (CV-SP) 40000
AD(CY SUb dep) 15000
Dep expense (diff) 5000
Equipment cost (new-old) 20000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Eliminating entry Profit

Step 1 calculate ending inventory of sub
Step 2 calculate profit % of parent = gross profit/sales
Step 3 = Multiply profit % of parent * ending inventory of Sub

A

Sales (to sub) 50000
Inventory 8000
COGS 42000 (plug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Eliminate intercompany transactions with the BS exclusive of investments

A

Intercompany payable 30k
Intercompany receivable 30k (snippet of example in consolidation tab of july plan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In consolidated BS, Equipment will be reported at _____

A

CV (Cost - AD) of Sub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It’s not of concern post consolidation whether the parent carries its investment in the subsidiary______

A

using the cost or the equity method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

An unlimited right of return does not necessarily preclude rvenue being recognized. However, if payment is __________ and NO REVENUE is recognized.

A

Contingent upon customer reselling the goods, then collection is uncertain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Consolidation or Parent Cost of Sales

A

Parents COGS + Sub’s COGS - Intercompany sales + Profit in ending inventory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cost method : Consolidation

A

Parent will recognize the parent’s share of the subsidiary’s dividends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Equity method - report only parent’s share of Equity and do not include ____

A

what was paid during acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Purchased 15% (30000 shs)of Stanton industries at 31 per share and paid legal fee of 35,000

A

Investment in Stanton 930000+35000 legal fee Dr.
Cash Cr. 965000

To record dividend
Cash 2.1530000 = 64500 Dr.
Dividend Income 15%
RE 59,250
Investment in Stanton (reduction in excess of RE ownership %) = 5250 plug

year end entry
Investment in Stanton 120000
Unrealized holding gain 120000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intercompany receivables and payables are not eliminated unless consolidated financial statements are prepared. With parent having only 15% int in Sub, consolidated fin statements would not be prepared.

A

Thus, on the 12/31 balance sheet, Parent should separately report the total amount of the receivable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

________ will not be eliminated through an eliminating entry

A

Goodwill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Goodwill is the _______

A

non-current asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Although the cost of the investment was equal to Book Values, the cost of the investment was greater than the FV, because the CV of sub’s building was more than its FV.

A

For consolidated statement purposes, the building would be written down to its lower FV (which means Depreciation expense would be decreased) and the excess of cost over FV would be assigned to recognize goodwill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Consolidation NI

A

Income of the sub is also recorded by the parent and adjusted for excess depreciation on assets where acquisition date FMV is greater than cost basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

AFS to trading -

A

any unrealized holding gain(loss) is removed from AOCI and recognized in earnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Profit will be added in COGS

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Trading and AFS are reported at _________

A

FV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AFS

A

Component of income from continuing operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HTM

A
  1. Any difference between Face value and CV is amortized interest income
  2. Unrealized holding gains or losses are not recognized but disclosed in notes to fin statements

**If FV option is elected
(1) report on BS at FV instead of amortized cost
(2) Unrealizzed holding gains and losses report in Income statement or current earnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

No significant influence (use cost method)

A

Cannot use equity method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

OCI includes

WHen sec is reclassified from AFS to HTM - unrealized gain or loss is recognized under OCI and balance is amortized over the remaining life of the security

A

unrealized gains and losses when reclassified to HTM Security , unrealized gains and losses due to mkt risk (non-credit risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

NI (FV)

A

Unrealized holding gains and losses due to market risk if FV is elected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Income statement , FV is readily determinable or FV option is BEING ELECTED (Equity securities)-less than 20% ownership

A

Include in IS , when equity method is being used and FV OPTION IS BEING ELECTED
1. Dividends
2. Unrealized holding gains and losses due to market value
3. Realized Gains and losses (permanent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Investment credit losses are reported in income from continuing operations as a

A

Credit loss expense (any decline in FV due to credit risk is reported as a credit loss expense in income). The security is reported at FV on the balance sheet using a contra account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

AFS : Non credit (or market) related
AFS: Credit related
AFS: FV method is elected
AFS: Intends to sell the sec due to impairment

A
  1. OCI
  2. Net Income or IS
  3. Report in IS
  4. Report in IS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Investment Income = only earnings under equity method

A

Dividends are not included (they are adjusted for BS purpose only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Factors to consider regarding investor’s significant influence

A
  1. Participation in POLICY MAKING
  2. EXTENT OF OWNERSHIP IN RELATION TO THE CONCENTRATION OF OTHER SHAREHOLDING
  3. REPRESENTATION ON BOD
  4. Material Intra-entity transactions
  5. Interchange of Managerial personnel
  6. TECHNOLOGICAL DEPENDENCY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

GAAP to non-GAAP is considered as ______

A

Correction of error, to be reported net of income taxes in the current RE as an adjustment of the opening balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Unrealized gain on HTM securities is only disclosed in the ________

A

NOTES to the financial statements. or a footnote or parenthetical disclosure only.

Gains are only reflected in the FS when they are realized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Disclosure requirmeent tto risks and uncertainties

  1. estimates of the effects of changes in significant estimates
  2. A statement that actual results could differ from the estimates included in FS
  3. Disclosure of the relative importance of each business when an entity operated multiple businesses
A

Identified CONCENTRATIONS only need to be disclosed if following all criteria is met:

  1. The concentration exists at FS date
  2. Concentration makes the entity vulnerable to the risk of a near term severe impact
  3. It is at least reasonably possible that the events that could cause the severe impact will occur in the near-term.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Accrued interest is recorded separately as __________

ST marketable debt security would be carried at_____________

A

receivable.

FV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

For HTM impairment, if PV<Amortized cost = Impairment loss = ECL and record

PV to be considered at market rate

A

Credit loss (PV-Amortized cost) Dr. XX
Allowance for creidt losses XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sinking fund =

A

restricted cash (check on tenure if its current or non-current)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

FV Measurement - the requirement for disclosing the amounts and reasons for transfers between level 1 and level 2 was removed as it was not considered cost beneficial to track and disclose.

A

Not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

FORWARD CONTRACT, FX

A

Dec 12, company contracted to sell Euro 100,000 at $0.90 per Euro for delivery in 90 days. On Dec 31, the forward rate increased to $0.93 but the original contract is still in force, meaning the company is obligated to sell Euros for less than they are currently worth. THerefore, a loss and liability of $3000 is recognized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cash payment to Suppliers
Add: Increase in A/P (credit)
Deduct: Increase in inventory (debit)
____________________
COGS (Accrual basis)

A

True (expenses : follow opposite signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cloud computing arrangements that include a software license are capitalized as intangible assets. Arrangements without software licenses are expensed as service contracts as benefits are received.

A

Implementation costs are capitalized and amortized over the life of the software asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Enterprise fund - Net position information be provided for an activity which means income determination.

A

User charges cover the costs of general public services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bad debt Method

A

Income Statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. Asset valuation rather than income
  2. Bad debt method
A
  1. Aging the AR focused on balance sheet
  2. Focuses on Income statement

Allowance method of AR will not impact Assets or NI as that’s a separate account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

No accrual, loss or disclosure should be made for GENERAL OR UNSPECIFIED BUSINESS RISKS and that they need not be disclosed. GENERAL OR UNSPECIFIED BUSINESS risks do not meet the conditions of loss being probable and the amount of the loss being reasonably estimated

A

Accrual and disclosure do not apply to reserve for contingencies for general or unspecified business risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

FV measurement disclosures require both that FV amounts be disclosed for each FV hierarchy level and quantitative FV measurement disclosures must be in ______________

A

Tabular format

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DNC (Dance mnemonic) - Declare dividends only for noncumulative (non voting stock, cannot give investor significant influence)
Cumulative - deduct annual dividend (regardless if declared or paid) , ignore dividends in arrears
Common stock - use equity method for more than 20% ownership and no dividend is recognized as that’s treated as return on capital

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ROU asset will include both PV of Purchase option and PV of equipment e.g. (20k + 50k) and it will be depreciated on 70k.

A

True, at useful life of the asset since purchase option is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

IRC used the term prepaid

A

GAAP uses the term unearned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Higher taxable Income
Lower Taxable Income

A

DTA (pay less in taxes later)-EXPENSES THAT ARE RECOGNIZED IN FINANCIAL INCOME THIS YEAR AND DEDUCTIBLE NEXT YEAR

DTL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

(1) NPF - Statement of FInancial Position categories
(2) Statement of Activities
(3) SOCF - operating, financing and investing
(4) Disclosure Functional expenses (per becker) as displayed on the statement of activities analyzed by object classification

A

(1) Assets, Liabilities and Net Assets (Equity)
(2) Change in Net Assets
(3) required for all NFPs (cash receipts and cash payments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

JE for noninterest bearing notes in exchange for merchandise sold

A

Notes receivable (face amount) XX
Discount on notes receivable XX
Sales Revenue XX

Year end adjusting entry
____________________________________________________
Discount on notes receivable XX
Interest revenue XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

To increase the marketability of a debt instrument (bonds), the issuing company may provide bondholders the right to buy a certain number of shares of the company at a fixed price for a specific time period. This right is known as a ___________

A

Stock warrant. If the warrant can be sold separately in a secondary market, it is called a detachable stock warrant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Market value $45. EPS is 3.60 and annual dividend $1.50

A

Price-earnings ratio = Market value/EPS
=45/3.60=12.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cash flow hedge change in FMV or unrealized gain or loss will go to ___________________

A

OCI and not to NET INCOME

Cash flow hedge is part of OCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Deduct Yearly dep from original cost for SL

A

SL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

3 criterias for LT contracts revenue to recognize over time

A
  1. Being consumed as they are delivered
  2. Goods or services being controlled by the customer while they are created
  3. No alternative use for the goods or services existing for the selling entity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cash flow statement = Stock option is recorded at FV , Operating activity

A

Receipt of Note payable will be an operating activity when merchandise was sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CV of the bond does not include Accrued Interest

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

If used for tax purposes, this method must also be used for financial reporting purposes

A

LIFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Related party transaction disclosures

A
  1. Nature of relationship
  2. Description of all transactions for years presented
  3. Dollar amounts of transactions
  4. Receivables to or from parties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Full disclosure Principle

A

FS should present all information needed by an informed reader to make an economic decision. This principle is sometimes referred to as the adequate disclosure principle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Costs of start-up activities, including organization costs, should be_________as incurred.

A

expensed (BOTH) per GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Revenue recognition profit % calc =

A

Actual cost/ (Actual cost+estimated cost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

An unrecognized tax benefit is reported as a _____________ representing the potential income taxes a company might have to pay in the future due to the UTP.

A

liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Layer is calculated on base cost

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Bonds issued and retired as part of financing ongoing operations.

A

Retiring is part of continuing operations in Income statement

Loss when they retire at a higher price and issue at a discount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Regardless of method, the same total amount of premium is amortized. At maturity, the total amortization will be the same at the time of _________under both methods. Therefore, Bond carrying amount will not get affected if Effective interest methos is used instead of SL or vice-versa.

A

Maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

For a troubled debt restructuring involving only a modification of terms, the sum of the total _________under the new terms for the debtor is compared with the existing debt’s CV to determine a _____________

A

FUTURE CASH PAYMENTS

Restructuring gain or loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Steps upon initial recognition of an ARO

Record ACCRETION EXPENSE
CV of ARO liability * Credit adjusted risk-free interest rate

A
  1. Allocate ARO cost to expense over the useful life of the related asset
  2. Measure the asset retirement cost at FV
  3. Capitalize the ARO cost by increasing the carrying amount of the related asset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

An UNCONDITIONAL redemption feature on common stock must be reported as a ________

Mandatorily redeemable financial instruments are classified as liabilities if following 2 criterias are met :

  1. They require or may require the issuer to settle the obligation by transferring assets
  2. They are obligations to repurchase the firm’s equity shares or are indexed to such an obligation.
A

LIABILITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Bank Reconciliation

A

When the bank receives a direct deposit or charges bank service fees, the company must record the items on their books. Any company checks that are not mailed at year end are added back to the books.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When a county does not have administrative or direct financial involvement in the construction of the capital assets; grant should not be recorded in county’s ___________

A

general fund.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

General fund

A

Available and Measurable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Enterprise Fund

A

Revenue is recognized in the period earned regardless of when cash is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

For a lease term longer than 1 year, at lease inception, the lessee records a ROU asset and a corresponding lease liability at the PV of lease payments

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Compensating balance (legally restriced) - report as current asset (besides cash) or LT asset, depending on the length of time of the borrowing agreement. These r restricted deposits that a lender may require of a borrower.

A

Compensating balance (informally restricted) - report as cash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Impairment loss

A

We check value of undiscounted cash flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

TO reduce the risk to investors, bonds can be issued with a requirement for the issuer to establish a sinking fund (i.e. savings account) used to retire the bonds (ie. repay the loan).

A

On the company’s balance sheet, the entire balance of the sinking fund, including amounts deposited and earnings, is reported as a noncurrent asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

=Operating profit/Sales

A

Operating profit margin

Operating profit = Sales - COGS - General and aministrative expenses

Profit margin=NI/Net sales

Return on sales = EBIT/Net sales

Gross profit margin = Gross profit/Net Sales

ROA = NI/Avg total assets

ROE = NI/Avg Total equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Composite method is used for collection of somewhat dissimilar assets with different lives. The group method usually refers to a collection of similar assets with approximately the same useful lives.

A

The composite depreciation method does not recognize gain or loss on the retirement of single assets in the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Recording property dividends (CV-FV
reported as a reduction in Income from continuing operations
as a gain/loss
$1 par value common stock
CV = $1.50 , FV=4.50
CV-FV = Loss
FV-CV = Gain

increase in FV immediately after date of distribution has no effect on the gain recorded.

A

Date of declaration

Asset (FV-CV) XX
Gain on asset XX

RE (FV) XX
Dividends Payable (FV) XX

Date of record = no entry

Date of payment
Dividends payable (FV) XX
Asset (FV) XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A change due to a change in ownership such as a business combination reported under ______________ is NOT a change in reporting entity.

A

the acquisition method,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

change in reporting entity____

A

retrospectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Expenses per accrual

A

Increase in prepaid expenses (Subtract)
Increase in Accrued liabilities (Add)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Finance lease, SL amortization

A

ROU asset or PV value
____________________________
Shorter of the two (lease or useful life of the asset)

Useful life of the asset when Title transfers to the lessee and when Purchase option is reasonably certain to exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When land with an existing building is acquired, none of the purchase price is allocated to the building if the intent is to demolish it.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Change in equity method from FV to Equity or cost to Equity method should be accounted for __________

A

Prospectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Calculate DRD on net earnings which means (Equity Less Dividends) for the purpose of DTL.

A

Equity 150k
Div 30k

DRD to be calculated on 120k *65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Sale without recourse

A

Factor or buyer will asssume the risk for uncollectible accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Allowance for credit losses is decreased by write-offs and ____________by recoveries or reinstatements.

A

INCREASED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

RE XX
Common stock XX
APIC XX

A

When small stock div is declared (FV to be considered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

To correct a prior-year accounting erros, the cumulative effect of the adjustment must be reflected in the _________.

On the INCOME STATEMENT, all prior periods affected by the error can be restated directly only if comparative F/S are issued. If only some (or none) of the prior periods affected are presented,, an adjustment for any remaining income effects is reflected in the BEGINNING BALANCE of RETAINED EARNINGS or AOCI.

A

Current CV of assets and liabilities on the balance sheet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Int expense is recorded on only the portion of debt that was not used for _________

A

construction

Avoidable interest is calculated by first applying weighted avg accumulated expenditures to construction-spefici debt and then applying any remainder to general debt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Contract modification

A

Blended price for the products from the original contract and the modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Income statement Equity method, 30% significant influence : report only earnings portion in the IS

A

Dividends are a reduction in the investment account under the equity method (BS?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Only GAAP to GAAP is considered as change due to _________

A

Accounting principle (rest all is change due to correction of error)

(Change in accounting principle - retrospectively). All the presented financial statements are restated and the affected BS accounts (ASSETS AND LIABILITIES) are adjusted with an offsetting adj to beginning RE for the earliest period presented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

If there are maintenance service agreements(PV $50000) in a lease contract (PV $1000,000), they are separated from the balance sheet lease components and _____________

A

expensed as incurred.

Finance lease obligation will only be 1,000,000 in that scenario and will NOT include $50,000 of maintenance and service obligations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Lease

A

useful life is used for purchase option or title transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Diviends declared on common stock are not reported in IS however, they are recorded as a reduction to the investment .

A

Dividends declared on noncumulative preferred stock are reported in IS (DD-NCE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Int expense is the cost of borrowing funds via lending arrangements (i.e. loans) such as notes payable. Typically int is an expense and reported on the IS.

A

Imputed int on a noninterest bearing note is included in int expense over the term of the note.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Lease payments

A

*Fixed and/or variable lease payments
*Purchase option
*Residual value guarantee
*Nonrefundable deposit ot upfront fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Noncumulative : Only declared dividends

A

Cumulative: Deduct annual dividend (both declared and/or paid); ignore dividends in arrears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Net effect or effect of transactions

A

Property dividends are recorded at FV of the property on the date of declaration. If the FV differs from the net CV, a gain or loss is recognized. RE are decreased by the FV of the property and eirher increased for any gain or decreased for any loss recognized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Cash flow hedge is part of ____________

A

OCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Form 8-K (filed within 4 days of major event or transaction)

A
  1. major corporate events such as corporate asset acquisitions and disclosures.
  2. Accountant changes
  3. Corporate Governance and management changes
  4. Bankruptcy filings and changes in fiscal years
  5. entering into or terminating a material agreement
  6. Liquidation, Regorganization
  7. Acquisition or disposal of assets (PPE, Intangibles, long term investments)
  8. Change in directors, CEO or Auditors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The registration statement is used when companies issue new _______ (S-1)

A

securities

Form 10-Q (for first 3 quarters) is unaudited and 10-K annual report is filed in the last quarter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Form 20-F is the annual report filed by _____________ companies who register with the SEC

A

non U.S., non-Canadian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Form 4 is a statement of changes in ________

A

beneficial ownership and it related to stock transactions by individuals who are in higher levels of executive management or owners of more than 10% of any class of equity security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Cost method of Treasury stock means no APIC to be recorded during purchase of Tstock

A

Treasury stock XX
Cash XX

DURING SALE OF T STOCK
Cash XX
Tstock XX
APIC-Tstock XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Par Value of Treasury stock means record APIC during purchase of Tstock

A

Treasury stock XX
APIC-C/S XX
Cash XX
APIC - T/S XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

NFP received pledges without donor restrictions for $300,000 payable in 3 years from institutional donors who have made contributions of this character in prior years

A

Implied time restriction to be reported as Revenue WITH DONOR RESTRICTION.

134
Q

NFP or foundation received $150,000 specifically payable to various charities named by the donor.

A

This is agency transactions that would be recorded as an agency liability and not reflected as revenue.

135
Q

Equity in earnings of unconsolidated affiliate

A

should be subtracted from NI just like gain to caclulate SOCF operating activities

136
Q

NPF - Conditional promises to give are not recorded as revenue.

Unconditional pledges are recorded as revenue in the statement of activities or pledge receivable valued at their PVs.

A

E.g. Doogood promised to contribute $500,000 to the Daberville Day Care, a NPF corp organized to provide services to disadvantaged families and must secure operating funds from the Federal headstart program.

137
Q

NFP - Goodfaith deposits are recorded as a LIABILITY OR REFUNDABLE ADVANCE and are not recorded as revenue.

Matching contributions are considered as A refundable advance is similar to deferred revenue (i.e. cash received prior to satisfying donor-imposed conditions)

A

e.g. Darberville requests and receives $50,000 from Doogood as evidence of his goodfaith to fund the construction and to demonstrate community support as part of its Federal grant application.

138
Q

Lease incentives payable to the lessee will _____________the value of the lease payments payable by the lessee.

A

decrease

139
Q

During a period of rising prices, which GAAP inventory method reports the most inventory costs on the income statement and on the balance sheet.

A

Income statement - LIFO
Balance sheet - FIFO

140
Q

Realized gain on Sale of AFS security in yr 2 sold on sep yr 2

Cost 67k
Market value 12/31/yr 1 =59k
Market value 9/30/Yr 2=71k
$71000-$67,000=$4,000

Realized gain in case of trading security
=SP - CV
=71000-59000=12000

A

Cash received or market value less Original Cost

Cash 71000
Unrealized loss OCI 8000
AFS Security 59000
Realized gain 4000

Trading security
Cash 71000
Trading security 59000
Realized gain 12000

141
Q

Land, Building or equipment basket value-Cost paid to have the assets appraised

A

Include appraisal cost as well to calculate

142
Q

July 1, Year 1, Plato Inc sold $500,000, 10% 10 year bonds at 103. On July 5, Yr 1, Socrates Inc. a wholly owned subsidiary purchased half of P’s bonds at 101. What amount of gain(loss) related to this transaction should Plato recognize on its consolidated IS at Dec 31, Yr 1

A

It will be considered as extinguishment of debt and a gain or loss must be recorded as if the debt has retired.

Bonds payable 250000(par)
Bond premium 7500
Investment in Bonds 252000 (PP)
Gain on extinguishment 5000

143
Q

The restructuring gain is equal to the ____ and the debt forgiven.

A

FV

144
Q

NFP - Underwater endowment funds are reported together with accumulated losses in net assets with donor restrictions (and not separately as with or without donor restrictions)

A
145
Q

Operating lease -answer zero depreciation when they ask dep on the leased machine by lessee

A

Leased machine itself will not be depreciated on the books of the lessee. An ROU asset will be booked, which will be amortized by the lessee.

146
Q

Even though the loan itself does not state an interest rate, there is an implied int rate embedded in the transaction

A

PV of loan - Pay back total = Interest amount

147
Q

If a lessee accounted for a lease as a finance lease, that would mean that lessor would also account lease as a finance lease

A

Both must report the same. Lease is not an off-balance sheet item.

148
Q

HTM should be disclosed as a note, however it can be reported as either a current or non-current asset.

A

To classify an investment as HTM, BOTH the intent and the ability to hold the security until maturity MUST Be there.

149
Q

NFP - zero to be reported

A

No int in net assets is recognized in the event when agreement is absent amongst the beneficiary organizations regarding the distribution of the foundation’s resources or stipulations by the donor, None of the entities would include the int in net assets resulting from the gift in their financial statements.

150
Q

NFP - the amount of assets released from restrictions does not include the investment loss due to change in total value or FMV

A

True

151
Q

Income from continuing operations include losses due to employee strike but does not include income from discotinued operations

A

True

152
Q

At the end of a 5 year accretion period, the accumulated dep (SL) associated with an ARO on a company’s books is equal to $510,437. Given an accretion rate of 8%, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A

At the beg of the 5 years, the estimated future liability was $750,000.

An ARO will be booked initially as an asset.

Asset retirement cost XX(PV of est future liab) Dr.
Asset retirement obligation Cr. XX

If the acc dep after 5 years is equal to $510,437 over a 5 yr period at a rate of 8%, is equal to $750,000.

510,4371.081.081.081.08*1.08

153
Q

Regardless of how junky the bonds were, they cost something. Once the bonds were determined to be worthless, that cost would have been written off as a __________

A

Loss in income statement

154
Q

Equity method

A

Dividends do not factor into income under the equity method. Just take NI *ownership % of the parent

155
Q

NOL carryforward is allowed only for 80% of taxable income of the nex year

A

true

156
Q

Ratio, return on sales=EBIT/Net sales

A

EBIT = Income before int income, int expense and taxes

157
Q

Times interest earned ratio = EBIT/Int expense

A

EBIT = income before int expense and taxes

or Income before tax+ Int expense

158
Q

GASB - The general fund is the main operating fund of the government and accounts for all transactions that are not accounted for elsewhere. As a result, there is only one general fund. This fund accounts for the majority of general fund accounts for significant activity.

A

Contracted law enforcement services are current expenditures for law enforcement that would appear in the general fund just as if the city paid for salaries and related operating expenses.

159
Q

NFP

A

Gross revenue include scholarships net of refund

Gross revenue + Scholarship - Refund

160
Q

n(n+1)/2 = Sum of year digits denominator calc

Accelerated method
this one does not take into account AD

A

Non accelerated method = Units of production method = current year units/total production

multiply by Asset cost - Salvage value which is CV

161
Q

Services provided by 1 governmental unit to other governmental units on a cost-reimbursement basis are accounted for in an ________

A

Internal service fund

162
Q

Overstatement is an error which must be accounted for by ________PY FS

A

restating

163
Q

Factoring is a transaction in which an entity sells its AR for cash to a 3rd party (i.e. a factor) at a discount (i.e. factoring fee).

A

This method allows the entity to collect cash faster than it would be by waiting the full collection period for the receivables to be paid. Factoring can be done with or without recourse.

164
Q

Non deductible penalties and non deductible Insurance premium should be added back to calc Taxable income

A

True

165
Q

On a NFP org statement of activities, all expenses will decrease net assets without donor restrictions. However, an expenditure of restricted resources must first be released from net assets with restrictions to net assets without restrictions before recording an expense.

NFP Characterization of net assets = RESIDUAL INTEREST and (not equity as in for profit )

NFP - Functional presentation and natural presentation

NFP - both grants to other organizations and depreciation are included in total expenses

expenses are always considered in the category without DONOR restrictions in NFP

A

Once properly classified, recording the expense will decrease net assets without donor restrictions.

166
Q

Support services

A

Fundraising and Management and general, membership development

167
Q

A probable contingent liability must be ____________ in the Financial Statements.

A

disclosed

168
Q

Revenue recognition - numerous projects

Short duration projects

A

Completed contract method is applicable

169
Q

GAAP requires companies to record an allowance for credit losses when they expect to have uncollectible accounts receivable (A/R)

A

In addition, credit loss expense is recognized in the same year that the revenue from the A/R is earned.

170
Q

Higher taxable income =DTA

A

Higher book income = DTL

171
Q

When recording int payments, premium amortization _________ int expense.

If there is no premium amortization, int expense is overstated; net income and shareholder’s equity are understated.

A

REDUCES

172
Q

NFP-Statement of activities

A

Depreciation expense should be included as an element of expense.

173
Q

NPF - Grants paid = Operating activities

A

Cash collection on contributions receivable OR Cash received from service receipients OR cash paid to suppliers and employees = Operating acctivites,

174
Q

NFP - An entity need not recognize contributions of works of art, historical treasures and similar assets if the donated items are added to collections that meet all of the following conditions:

A
  1. The item is a part of collection, which is held for PUBLIC VIEWING, EXHIBITION, EDUCATION OR RESEARCH (and not for investment or financial gain)
  2. The collection is cared for, preserved and protected by the org
  3. The org has a policy that requires any proceeds from the sale of donated items to be reinvested in other collection items or used to support the direct care of existing collections.
175
Q

NPF should report reclassifciation of netassets in the statement of activities if a donor

A

withdraws previously imposed restrictions on a gift of cash

When donor restrictions are either satisfied or withdrawn,

176
Q

Quasi endowments funds means restriction by board or trustees

A

to be part of NET ASSETS WITHOUT DONOR RESTRICTION always

177
Q

Supporting services

A
  1. management and general
  2. Fundraising
  3. Membership development
178
Q

NFP - permanent endowment in which the NFP is the sole beneficiary is an e.g. of __

A

regular or pure endowment

179
Q

Program services NFP

A

Research

180
Q

Depreciation in NPF will be recorded same as for business in the __________

A

statement of activities

181
Q

Sale with recourse to a factor(buyer)

A

Factor (buyer) assumes risk for uncollectible accounts, no liability recorded by seller

182
Q

Sale with recourse

A

Company liable for uncollectible accounts, records estimated recourse liability

183
Q

Factoring (i.e. selling) the receivables to a 3rd party for a fee. The company must SURRENDER control of the receivables for the transaction to be a sale. In general, an amount called a factor’s holdback is withheld from the proceeds to protect the buyer from noncredit losses (e.g. sales returns, disputed accounts)

Factor’s holdback accounts for the proceeds retained by the factor to cover estimated sales discounts, sales returns and sales allowances. When all amounts have been collected by the factor. the balance in factor’s margin is returned to the seller. This account is a receivable reported as a CURRENT ASSET on the balance sheet.

A

Factoring may occur with our without recourse. When receivables are sold with recourse, the company (seller) bears the risk of uncollectible accounts. If sold without recourse, the factor will generally charge a higher fee to compensate for the additional risk it assumes for uncollectible accounts.

WITH RECOURSE - Seller bears the risk
WITHOUT RECOURSE - buyer or factor will bear the risk and will charge a higher fee for additional risk it assumes

184
Q

An UPO (Unconditional purchase obligation) is a legal commitment to purchase goods at a set price for a specific period). If the mkt price _______ below the contract price at year end, a loss for the difference is accrued on the FS.

A

falls

Report loss as an estimated liability

Gains from increases in mkt price are not recorded

185
Q

Maturity value is disclosed as contingent liability in the footnotes of the FS and not receivable thats being discounted or factored and not the amount_________

A

That was received from the bank at the time of factoring.

186
Q

Proprietary funds record ________

A

depreciation and not the govt funds

(modified accrual method of governmental accounting operates on expenditure principle and so it ignores the capitalization of assets and dep expense)

187
Q

Recoveries of (5000) will also reinstate AR therefore, no impact on AR as +5000 and -5000

A

No impact on total AR

Recovery JE
AR XX
Bad Debt expense XX

188
Q

AR or TRADE AR

A

Sales return Credit
Write off - credit
Assignment entry at NRV - credit

Loan receivable from an officer is not part of Trade Account receivable

Write-off AR JE

Allowance for Doubtful Debts XX
AR XX

189
Q

Permanent differences are items recorded on the books (e.g. fines) that are not allowed for tax purposes. Perm diff have no effect on ________

A

deferred taxes because no future tax liability or benefit is involved.

190
Q

In a specific ASSIGNMENT of receivables, collections on the assigned accounts are generally remitted to the assignor.

A

True

191
Q

A transfer of receivables in which the transferee can require the transferor to repurchase the receivables may not be considered a _________

A

Sale

192
Q

The difference b/w the amount of receivables sold to a factor in a borrowing transaction and the total of the factor’s holdback plus the proceeds is recorded in a “discount on transferred AR” or int expense account.

A

This account represents int cost and should be recognized over the term of the receivables. If int expense is debited, an adjusting entry to defer some of the int as discount would be required if some of the discount pertains to a later period.

193
Q

Accumulated Depreciation is a contra account in BS.

A

Depreciation - Non cash item to be reported in IS.

194
Q

No gains or losses are permitted for Treasury stock transactions on IS.

A
195
Q

Property dividends will reduce Retained earnings

Form 14A is for proxy voting.

A
196
Q

QUASI Endowment means it is restricted by the ________

A

board and therefore, falls under contri wWITHOUT donor restriction

197
Q

Discontinued ops after tax

A
198
Q

Prepaid insurance Dr.
Insurance Expense

A

True

199
Q

Interest expense XX
Accrued interest XX

A
200
Q

Include Freight in ______
Include Freight Out ______

A

in COGS
in Selling Expenses

201
Q

Cash to Accrued

A

Add: Increase in AR
Add: Increase in Prepaids
Subtract: Decrease in Payables

202
Q

Factoring: Sale of ST A/R

A

Discounting: Sale of LT N/R

203
Q

fACTORING WITHOUT RECOURSE IS CONSIDERED AS _______

A

SALE (Credit AR TO TAKE IT OFF THE BOOKS)

204
Q

Units of production

A

Total units in life

205
Q

DIscount amortization is added to the Net Income of SOCF

A

Premium amort is subtracted

206
Q

CHanges in mgt structure and relocation of business from one location to another is an example of exit activity

A

Outsourcing a customer service is not an example of exit activity

207
Q

Consider ___________ when no reliable amount is provided to record the patent

A

FV of shares

208
Q

lease-initial direct costs are not included in Lease liability . they are part of __________

A

ROU asset

209
Q

AFS credit losses - recorded in allowance contra account

A

Mkt losses - Unrealized holding gains and losses in asset valuation account

210
Q

DTA reduces taxable income in future periods. This is because the company expects to pay less tax in the future when the deductible expense is recognized for tax purposes.

A

DTA example - If a company has recorded an expense for accounting purposes (e.g. warranty expense or bad debt provision) but that expense will not be deducted for tax purposes until a later date, a DTA is created.

DTL example - (installment sales or reevnue from LT contracts_ but that revenue is taxable in future periods. a DTL is created.

211
Q

Contingent loss

A

e.g. pending litigation

212
Q

Ending inventory vs. COGS

COGS vs. NI

A

Opposite relation

Opposite relation

213
Q

CECL applies to a wide range of financial assets, including loans, lease receivables, trade receivables, and held-to-maturity debt securities. It does not apply to available-for-sale securities, which are subject to a different impairment model.

A

HTM

214
Q

Dupont model or Return on Equity

A

Profit MarginAsset TurnoverEquity Multiplier

NI/Sales * Sales/Total Assets * Total Assets/Equity

215
Q

Change to LIFO

A

PROSPECTIVELY (PL acronym)

216
Q

Non-GAAP to GAAP

A

ERROR CORRECTION

217
Q

Rate of return on assets

A

=NI/Avg Assets

218
Q

Consolidation = profit to be eliminated from ending inventory

A
219
Q

QUICK RATIO

A

CASH+ AR+ MKTABLE SECURITIES
_____________________________________
CL

OR CA-INVENTORY
___________________
CL

220
Q

Vested rights are those rights which are NOT contingent on an employee’s future service; the employer has an obligation to make payment even if an employee__________employment

A

terminates

221
Q

__________rights are rights which have been earned in the past and which carry over into future periods, but which are LOST if an employee terminates employment.

A

Accumulated

222
Q

In a specific assignment of receivables, AR assigned are identified by placing them in an AR assigned account.

A

A FINANCE CHARGE is assessed on assignment transactions that are borrowings.

223
Q

Co. pledges its AR as security for a loan
and the debtor collects the proceeds

A

Parenthetical or note disclosure only

224
Q

Co. sells AR to a factor in a transaction considered a borrowing

A

Cash XX
Factor’s holdback XX
Int expense (discount) XX
Liability of transferred AR XX

225
Q

Co. transfers a Note receivable by surrendering control over it. The transfer was on a without recourse basis

A

Cash XX
Loss on Sale of NR XX
NR XX
Interest revenue XX

226
Q

ARO 257000
Add:Discounted cash flow estimates 68000
Less:Paid towards settlement -87000
Add:Accrtion expense 26000

Ending balance, ARO	264000
A
227
Q

When an entity holds a foreign currency receivable that is fixed in terms of the amount of foreign currency that will be received, the entity will typically incur a ____________

A

Transaction gain or loss

SHown in IS, NI (non-operating items)

228
Q

To record the amount spent for actual repairs in contingency (1% sales first year and 4% sales second year) cash sales of 10k in 2001
warranty repairs $60

A

Warranty expense 400
Estimated warranty liability 400

Estimated warranty liability 60
Cash/parts inventory 60

229
Q

If the contract can be modified - loss not accrued, just footnote disclosure

A

If the contract cannot be modified, loss must be accrued. Inventory is recorded at mkt value, and a loss in recognized. Mkt value-contract price

230
Q

JE to record Current and DTL

JE to record Year 2 reversal of the DTL

A

Income tax expense - current xx
Income tax expense - deferred xx
DTL xx
Income tax payable xx

DTL 5250
Income tax benefit-deferred 5,250

DTA reversed
Income tax expense-deferred XX
DTA XX

231
Q

USe enacted rates for deferred taxes

A

Correct

232
Q

Change in tax rate in yr 2 from 20% to 21% , Beg DTL balance is provided

A

Subtract beginning from new DTL at 21%

6300-2000=4300

233
Q

CARES act (during pandemic) A NOL arising in 2018, 2019 or 2020 tax years can be carried back 5 years (to the oldest yr first) and carried forward indefinitely to offset taxable income.

NOLs carried forward to taxable years beginning in 2021 or later are limted to 80% of taxable income before the NOL deduction.

e.g. JE to record a NOL that can be used to obtain a refund of $30,000 taxes previously paid

A

Operating losses = DTA =+e.g Gift certificates

  • Not subject to a taxable income limitation
    -Taxpayers can elect not to carryback and just carryforward

Tax Refund receivable 30,000(BS)
Tax Benefit 30,000 (IS)

234
Q

DTA Valuation allowance

A

Not expected to be used (future years NOL coz there will be no future taxable income)

235
Q

DRD

Ownership 0-19% = 50% exclusion
20-80% =65% exclusion
over 80% = 100% exclusion

A

Permanent difference

236
Q

BS disclosures - DTA , DTL

A

All DTL
All DTA
The valuation allowance for DTA

Other balance sheet disclosures include:

  • the net change during the year in the total valuation allowance
  • C corp to S corp election
    -tax effect of each type of temp difference and carryforward that is significant to the DTL or DTA
237
Q

Income Statement Disclosures

A
  1. Tax expense allocated to shareholders’ equity items
  2. Adj of deferred taxes from changes in tax laws or rates
  3. Adj of the BOY deferred tax asset valuation due to changes in expectations
  4. The tax benefit of NOL carryforward in the same manner as Income statement location
238
Q

Treasury stock at cost provided at the end after equity, it means examiner is using __________

A

COST METHOD

239
Q

PAR METHOD

A

Treasury stock is deducted at the top from COmmon stock

240
Q

Return on sales

A

Net Operating profit/Sales

241
Q

Credit whatever u want to take off the books or ________

A

retire. e.g. T stock

242
Q

When there is FV option is elected -report AFS and HTM unrealized gains or losses in _________

A

Net Income (component of income from continuing operations)or current earnings

HTM - report on Balance sheet at FV if FV option is elected

243
Q

Mark up 40% of cost

A

cost/ sales = 1/1.4 =0.71
or 71%

244
Q

Gains and losses from forward contracts used for speculation purpose are reported in ____________

A

Net Income or IS or earnings

245
Q

DIscontinued ops loss (decided in Yr 1 to discontinue in Yr 2)

A

Operating Loss from Year1
+
Impairment loss from yr 2
______________
Total loss net of tax = Loss from discontinued operations

246
Q

Billings in excess of CIP on LT contracts is ________________

A

current liability

247
Q

Direct quotation or direct exchange rate, states the domestic price of 1 unit of a foreign currency

A

$0.11 = 1 JPY (direct quotation for a US entity when buying JPY)

Indirect quotation for US entity = $1 = 0.89 JPY

248
Q

cost of sales = COGS

A

Purchases = Cost of goods manufactured

249
Q

Dividends per share payout ratio (it measures the % of earnings distributed in the form of cash dividends). Growth oriented companies tend to reinvest earnings in the company and have LOWER payout ratios; mature companies typically pay out more to investors.

A

=Dividends per share/EPS

(this is always per common stock)

or Total Dividends
_________________________*100
NI

*EPS measures NI earned on each share of commons stock. Higher EPS indicates greater value because investors will pay more for a company that earns higher profits relative to its share price.

250
Q

Consignor or seller (1) reports goods as inventory
(2) has legal ownership of merchandise
(3) Bears the risk of unsold merchandise
(4) reports sales revenue and COGS

A

Retailer or consignee or dealer only has physical possession of merchandise and reports commission revenue

251
Q

Examples of Special Purpose Frameworks

A
  1. Cash receipts and disbursement basis
  2. Income tax basis
  3. Method prescribed by a regulatory or contractual agreement
  4. other basis with substantial support (e.g. price level basis)

Lending institution is NOT A COMPREHENSIVE BASIS

252
Q

ACCRUAL BASIS

A

REPORT REVENUE WHEN EARNED

253
Q

All transactions involving T stock affect only shareholders’ equity accounts (never income

A
254
Q

AFS - portion of change due to CREDIT risk loss or reversal is recorded in ________

A

NI

Change due to MARKET risk is recorded in OCI

255
Q

GAAP - Organization cost - Expense immediately

A

Org cost (legal and filing fees)
Advertising
Supplies
salaries for training
new market, product, supplier research
travel related costs
accounting, tax and training costs

256
Q

10k, Part II - Annual

A

Part II-Annual, Item 7 (explain company’s performance, market trends, uncertainties)

7 - MD&A
7A-Quantitative and qualitative disclosures about market risk
8 - Audited FS and supplementary data (BS-2 years, IS-3 years, SOCF and Statement of Comprehensive income)

Part III
Item 11 - Executive compensation

257
Q

10 Q, Part I

A

1 - FS (Balance sheet - quarter and prior fiscal year end)
Income STatement - quarter and YTD, current and prior years.
Statement of Cash flows - YTD, current and prior years
2 - MD&A
3-Quantitative and qualitative disclosures about market risk (int rates, exchange rate risk, mkt risk, commodity risk)

258
Q

Type of Filer Mkt Value of O/S sec

Large $700 mn and up (can file reports quickly)

Accelerated $250-700 mn

NA $75 - $250 mn

*SRC - small regulated companies if <250 mn public float (equity held by nonaffiliated investors) or <700 mn public float or <100 mn annual revenues

A

Annual revenues 10k (audited) 10Q

            N/A              60 days     40 days

 $100 mn and up    75 days    40   days                              

$100 mn and up       90 days    45   days
259
Q

Example of contingent shares to be included in DEPS

A

DEPS get impacted by Stock options or warrants, Preferred stock, convertible preferred stock, and/or Convertible debt.

260
Q

Simple Capital structure - Company only has common stock and nonconvertible preferred stock
Income from Continuing operations - Always reported on IS
(BEPS and DEPS )

Income from discontinued operations - May be on IS or in Notes

A

Complex capital structure - Stock options or warrants, Preferred stock, convertible preferred stock, and/or Convertible debt (Do both EPS and DEPS)

261
Q

Dilutive NI-Preferred shares + Saved Int expense on bonds net of tax (to be adjusted for amortization of discount (+) and amortization of premium (-)
__________________________________________
CS + incremental shares

DEPS treasury method (options and warrants)
NI $550,000 , CS - 100,000 EPS 5.50

20,000 stock options o/s entire year.
Exercise price of the options $30, AVg mkt price $40

A

when market price > Strike or exercise price (DILUTIVE)

=20000*30 (exercise price)=600000 (cash proceeds)
=600000/40 (mkt price)
=15000

Increase in shares = 20000-15000 =5000 (incremental shares)

CV (beginning) * YTM = Int expense (when bond is not issued at par)

Discount = Int expense > coupon (bad news)
Premium = Int expense < coupon (good news)

262
Q

NFP - Contribution for the construction of a new building as cash flows from ____________

A

Financing

Donor-restricted cash contributions for LT purposes within financing activities

CASh flow from operating activities start with TOTAL CHANGES IN NET ASSETS

263
Q

Consolidation - equity method

A

The Sub’s NI is not included. Since parent uses the EQUITY method to account for its investment in sub, Parent’s NI will include its share of the net earnings of SUB.

If no equity method, then consider Sub’s NI after acquisition at 12/31 not at the time of consolidation.

264
Q

NCI interest in sub

A

FV NCI
+% NCI in NI of Sub
-%NCI in DIvidend Income of Sub
______________________________
NCI in Net Assets

265
Q

Elmination entries consolidation

Profit % of parent = Gross profit/sales

Ending Inventory of Sub

A

Intercompany profit elimination
COGS XX
Inventory XX

Intercompany sales elimination
Sales XX
COGS XX

266
Q

Avg construction expenditure

A

calculate avg cumulative expenditure

actual int

lesser of the two

267
Q

P/E ratio

A

Market price per share
_____________________________
EPS

268
Q

Annuity due = at the beginning of the term

A

Ordinary annuity = at the end of the term

Amortization expense against ROU Asset

269
Q

Lease expense in JE =

A

Annual lease payment e.g. 100000

270
Q

CALLABLE for violation - Current Liability
Violation Waived - Non Current or LT Lialibility
Grace period granted - Non current or LT liability

A

Interest-coverage ratio = EBITDA
_____________________
Int expense

271
Q

JE noninterest bearing note. On May 1, Co. borrowed 700,000 cash from first bancorp under a 6 month non interest bearing note, with a 12% discount rate.

Annual effective rate of interest % calc
=Int for 6 months 2
_______________________=42000
2(to make it annual rate) = 12.76%
Net amount borrowed ________________
658000

A

May 1___________
Cash 658,000
Discount on notes payable 42000 (6 months)
Notes Payable 700,000

___Nov 1___
Int expense 42000
Discount on notes payable 42000
Notes payable 700,000
Cash 700,000

272
Q

DTA reduces taxable income in future

A

DTL increases taxable income in future, Credit DTL in JE

273
Q

JE

A

Tax Expense XX
Tax payable XX
DTL XX

274
Q

NOL carryback provides an immediate tax refund

A

NOL carryforward creates a DTA (no tax is payable in the year an NOL occurs)

Receivable - IT refund 29
DTA 20
Income tax benefit - operating loss 49

275
Q

DTA, DTL valuation allowance - eg it is more likely than not that some portion (3 million of DTA) or all of a deferred tax asset will not be realized. JE=

A

Income tax expense 3
Valuation allowance - DTA 3

276
Q

Direct write-off or tax method recognizes credit loss expense when a specific account is determined to be uncollectible and written off.

Recognizing the credit loss expense and writing off occur in the same entry (Dr. expense and credit A/R).

Because no allowance for credit losses (contra-asset account) is used with the direct write-off method, A/R are reported at GROSS amount in tax method. Hence, A/R is overstated. It also violates the matching and conservatism principles of GAAP.

The expense is not recorded in the period in which the revenue was earned (not matched) and A/R are carried at Face amount which overstates assets (not conservatism)

GAAP does not permit the use of the direct write-off method.

A

Credit loss model under Financial reporting

Credit loss expense is estimated at the end of each period. Reported AR at NET CV (AR less allowance)

277
Q

Note payable first payment

A

Int expense 1585
Note payable 3415
Cash 5000

278
Q

Bill and hold sale - substantive reason for buyer delaying possession.

A

Seller identified the inventory as buyer’s and appliances are ready for immediate transfer. Because contract qualifies as a bill and hold arrangement, seller may recognize the revenue associated with the contract.

279
Q

Required disclosures for FV measurements are:

  1. The valuation techniques applied (Income, cost and market) including judgements and assumptions
  2. The level of inputs that were applied in measuring fair value
  3. The UNCERTAINTY in the FV measurements as of the reporting date
  4. The disposition of changes in FV (income or comprehensive income)
A

NOT CONSIDERED:

amount of and reasons for transfers between level 1 and level 2

(not considered to be cost-beneficial to track and disclose)

280
Q

AFS -if management intends to sell the AFS security, the holding (unrealized 2k) loss and valuation accounts are removed, investment is written down to FV(42k) and loss is recognized is ____

Cost yr 4 jan=50k
Yr 4 , dec FV = 48k
Yr 5 , dec = FV 42k

A

Net income in Income statement rather than OCI

More likely than not the impairment will require the asset to be sold before cost is recovered or when mgt intends to sell. All DECLINES related to Non credit or market risk.

Credit loss - report in income statement,

281
Q

Correction of error, failed to report 40k depreciation in PY . tax rate 20%.

(IF an error made in this period is discovered BEFORE the financial statements are complete, it is corrected through adjustment directly to the financial statement accounts for this period)

A

RE 32,000
Taxes payable 8000
Accumulated DEP 40,000

(PRIOR PERIOD ADJUSTMENT is net of TAX IMPACT in RE as IS has been closed to RE)

282
Q

Periodic ending inventory will be less and perpetual will be more as per ____________

A

LIFO (Same in FIFO)

283
Q

BIC = bond issue costs are the fees associated with the issuance of bonds including accounting and legal fees, commissions, printing, registration and underwriting.

A

They are AMORTIZED on a SL BASIS OVER THE PERIOD FROM ISSUE DATE UNTIL MATURITY DATE

284
Q

Accumulated depreciation is a credit or negative balance in trial balance account

A

___________negative or credit (contra entry same as Credit for allowance)

285
Q

Cost method, no significant influence - Income statement report (unrealized gain on security + dividends only)

A

Equity method, Income statement = report only share of earnings
20% of Net income 100000 = $20,000

286
Q

Lacks Significant influence or does not qualify for equity method and when FMV is readily determinable, the investment will be reported at FMV _________

A

with increases and decreases recognized in income

No impact on OCI

287
Q

Non interest bearing note

A

PV * Imputed rate of int
=62092*10% = Int expense = 6209

288
Q

BARGAIN PURCHASE OPTION, Lease

A

use PV using a single sum PV factor

289
Q

NFP-contribution revenue if

A
  1. The recipient org is granted variance power by the resource provider (2) the recipient org and the beneficiary are financially interrelated orgs. In the case at hand, the resource provider granted variance power to the receipient org.
290
Q

Non-Cash expense like Dep and Amortization will NOT impact Cash flow from operating activities
in case _______

A

company forgot to record depreciation expense.

291
Q

Bond is issued at premium when stated rate or coupon rate is more than ________

A

the market rate or yield rate

292
Q

Gain or losses from the early extinguishment of debt should be _______

A

recognized in income before taxes in the period of extinguishment

293
Q

Infrequent and usual - extraordinary item - Early extinguishment of debt __________

A

DOES NOT fall into this category

294
Q

BIC (BOND ISSUE COSTS) are treated as a reduction in bond proceeds and and net Bond liability and______

A

are amortized over the bond term to interest expense.

295
Q

DTA, DTL = effective tax rate

A

= current year taxes/Pretax income

=57000/200000

296
Q

Income approach

A

THe income approach of FV determiines FV by converting future amounts, including cash flows or earnings to a single discounted amount. This would require the use of a discount rate.

297
Q

Cash to accrual basis

A

Treat prepaid expenses same as AR

298
Q

When the shipping terms are FOB destination, the seller bears all costs of transporting goods to the buyer such as __________

A

Buyer does not bear these costs

1) PAckaging for shipment
2) SHipping
3) SPecial Handling charges

299
Q

Cheques not mailed (not considered a disbursement until mailed) are still under the control of the company and should be included in the current assets and cash overdraft should be _________

A

subtracted

300
Q

Selling and admin expenses + Depreciation

A

= Gross selling and admin expenses

301
Q

A/R XX
Sales XX

A/R on sales

WHen vendor receives a payment in cash, it is against AR so AR will get reduced and hence will be credited

Cash XX
A/R XX

A

Bought Raw material on account from a vendor
Inventory XX
AP XX

302
Q

Cost and Par value method

Cost (Direct buy back entry)
____________________________
Treasury stock at cost XX
Cash XX

PAR
______________________________
Treasury stock at Par XX
APIC -C/S XX
RE XX
Cash XX

A

Credit balance - APIC-T/S will be credited
Debit balance - RE will be debited

303
Q

Increase in cash flow hedge is a gain recognized through _______

Purchased derivative at $4.15 per bushel, closing the year at $4.29 per bushel

A

OCI

304
Q

1.Preliminary project phase - Expense the cost

  1. Application Development phase (ready for intended use) - Capitalize Software (implementation cost), software licensing, 3rd parthy software development fees, external materials, coding fees and testing fees.

expense - training, manual data conversion, maintenance costs and support costs

  1. Post implementation fee - expense - Maintenance, additional training, enhancements and upgrades. -
A
305
Q

Lawsuit loss Dr. 2,750,000
Lawsuit Liability Cr. 2,750,000

A

Contingency

306
Q

(estimate 6% of net sales of 100000)
actual incurred expense 5k

A

Warranty expense 6000
Estimated warranty payable 6000

307
Q

Unusual and Infrequent

A

Non-operating loss, part of Income from continuing operations before tax

Depreciation exp (deducted from) - Operating portion of NI

308
Q

When management plans to dispose of an asset, it shall be reported at the lower of —–

A

CV OR FV less cost to sell

309
Q

When recoverability of a building’s CV is determined to be impaired, the building’s FV is best measured as the ____

A

Price that can be received based on observable inputs in the principal market

310
Q

Interest incurred to finance an asset for a company’s OWN USE is capitalized and reported

A

On BS (it’s not expensed) as it’s for company’s own use

311
Q

DTA - A valuation allowance account is established if it is likely that a DTA (not DTL) will not be realized.

A

Valuation allowance changes are ordinarily included in NET INCOME because those changes will increase or decrease income tax expense.

312
Q

Expected value method - when there are 2 possible outcomes and the co. Has experience with contracts with SIMILAR characteristics

A

User to determine the transaction price for a contract that includes variable consideration.

313
Q

ARO - Consider discounted estimates

A

For all other topics, consider UNDISCOUNTED

314
Q

Common occurrence /usual

A

No separate disclosure required

315
Q

Govt Uniform Budget Status =

Appropriations = 50k
ENcumbrances =6k
Expenditures = 40k
VOuchers payable (no impact) = 3k

A

Appropriations 50,000
(-) O/S Encumbrances -6000
(-) Expenditures -40000
_______________________
Appropriations available to use =4000

316
Q

Redeemed a bond issued at a discount for an amount that was 105% of Face value

A

Bonds payable (Face value) XX
Loss on Redemption (Plug) Xx
Discount on Bonds payable (unamortized) XX
Cash (10% of FV) XX

317
Q

AFS securities are carried at FV. Temp unrealized losses resulting from mkt risk are reported in a contra-valuation account; they are not used to directly adjust the cost of the investment. Unrealized gains are recognized as an increase to the investment account using a valuation account.

  1. If FV is lower than the original cost, the diff is credited to AFS Securities - Unrealized losses (Contra-valuation account)
A
  1. If FV is higher than the original cost, the difference is debited to AFS Securities-unrealized gains (valuation account)
  2. If FV is lower than cost in one period and higher than cost in a subsequent period, the AFS SEC-UNREALIZED LOSSES account is ELIMINATED and the excess FV is recognized in AFS SEC-UNREALIZED GAINS
318
Q

Interest accrual on Bonds will be from __________

A

Dated date and not the issue date

319
Q

Dividends in arrears represent undeclared dividends, they are not a liability and therefore, not accrued.

A

However, they are disclosed in the notes to financial statements.

320
Q

Bond Issue cost monthly amortization

A

= Total bond issue costs
_____________________________________
# of outstanding from issue date (not the dated date)

321
Q

What basis of accounting should be used when preparing a governmental funds statement of revenues, expenditures and changes in fund balances?

A

MODIFIED ACCRUAL

322
Q

FS NOTE DISCLOSURES

A
  1. Summary of significant accounting policies
  2. LT Obligations
  3. Related party transactions
  4. Contingencies
  5. Subsequent events
323
Q

Repurchase asset at less than original selling price

A
  1. Lease
  2. Sale with a right to return
324
Q

If repurchase price is equal to or greater than the original selling price,

A

Financing arrangement (if more than expected market value) or

a sale with a right to return - if the repurchase price is less than or equal to the expected market value of the asset and the customer does not have a significant economic incentive to exercise the right.

325
Q

Bill-and-hold arrangements are contracts in which the entity bills a customer for a product
that it has not yet delivered to the customer. Revenue cannot be recognized in a bill-and-hold
arrangement until the customer obtains control of the product. Generally, control is transferred
to the customer when the product is shipped to or delivered to the customer (depending on the
terms of the contract).

A

For a customer to have obtained control of a product in a bill-and-hold
arrangement, all of the following criteria must be met:
There must be a substantive reason for the arrangement (e.g., the customer has requested
the arrangement because it does not have space for the product).
The product has been separately identified as belonging to the customer.
The product is currently ready for transfer to the customer.
The entity cannot use the product or direct it to another customer

326
Q

Only DIVIDENDS PAID is part of ______________

A

FINANCING OUTLOW (not dividends declared) . Calculate Div paid if RE balances and div declared has been provided.

327
Q

Art for sale at an auction and museum will use the funds for its general operating activities

A

Asset-art for resale XX
COntribution revenue without restrictions XX

328
Q

6000 Contract Asset product 1 - since payment of product 1 is conditional on the delivery of product 2

A
329
Q

1.Machinery XX
A/P XX

  1. A/P XX
    Foreign currency gain XX
  2. Foreign currency loss XX
    A/P XX
A

Purchase machinery

Revalue AP

330
Q

Purchase of fx

Settle AP by paying Euros to European manufacturer

A

Investment in Euros 435000
Cash 435000

A/P 435000
Investment in Euros 435000

331
Q

Div 1000 shs 6% $10 par value cumulative preferred stock have not been declared or paid for 3 years

WHat amount of retained earnings should be appropriated as a result of these items

Ans ZERO

A

DIVIDENDS IN ARREARS are not accrued or appropriated but are disclosed in the notes to the financial statements.

332
Q

Cash restricted for the retirement of bonds does not fall under the category Appropriation of RE

A

Cash restricted for a certain purpose (i.e. debt repayments) is reported separately as an asset on the balance sheet.