Misc Flashcards

0
Q

Smooth cafe au lait spots

A

Neurofibromatosis

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1
Q

Rough cafe au lait spots

A

McCune-Albright

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2
Q

Most common fracture associated with pediatric elbow dislocation

A

Medial epicondyle

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3
Q

Sequelae of lateral condyle fractures

A

Cubitus valgus (gunstock), tardy ulnar nerve palsy

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4
Q

Stripe wear is caused by

A

Lift off separation during instability, dislocations

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5
Q

Three cancers occurring in Paget’s

A

Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, spindle cell sarcoma

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6
Q

Molecule that binds calcium in bone

A

Osteonectin

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7
Q

ACL tight in flexion, tight in extension

A

Tibial tunnel too anterior

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8
Q

ACL: tight in flexion, lax in extension

A

Femoral tunnel too anterior

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9
Q

ACL: lax in both flexion/extension

A

Failure to cycle knee prior to tibial fixation

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10
Q

“Flowing wax” bone deformity

A

Melorheostosis; benign, non hereditary lesions, treat symptomatically

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11
Q

Stains for vimentin, epithelial membrane antigen

A

Synovial sarcoma

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12
Q

Treatment of EPL rupture after cast treatment of distal radius fracture

A

EIP to EPL tendon transfer

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13
Q

The only large joint without intracapsular metaphysis

A

Knee. (metaphyseal osteo will not spread to joint)

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14
Q

Contents of rotator interval

A

Biceps tendon, coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament

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15
Q

Highest risk factor for for nonhealing of surgically repaired rotator cuff

A

Age >65

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16
Q

Carotid tubercle is located at

A

C6

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17
Q

Innervation of disc

A

Medial branch of dorsal primary rami

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18
Q

Location of artery of adamkiewiz

A

T9-T11, branch off segmental artery

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19
Q

Location of superior cluneal nerve related to PSIS

A

8cm laterally

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20
Q

Scale used to evaluate joint laxity, and components in the scale

A

Beighton-Horan; 1) dorsiflexion 5th MCPJ 2) thumb touches forearm 3) hyperextension of elbow 4) hyperextension of knee 5) palms touch floor

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21
Q

Most common long term complication of birth brachial plexus palsy

A

Glenoid hypoplasia and retroversion

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22
Q

Normal glenoid version

A

3 degrees retroversion

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23
Q

Quadriceps are active during which phase of gait

A

Stance

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24
Treatment of parosteal osteosarcoma
Wide excision alone
25
Hornblower's test is for
Teres minor, posterior branch of axillary nerve
26
Tumors staining for S100
Melanoma, nerve tumors, clear cell sarcoma
27
MOA of osteoprotegerin
Binds RANK-L and inhibits osteoclast differentiation
28
Osteoblasts secrete...
RANK-L
29
Most common sites of giant cell tumor
Distal femur, proximal tibia, distal radius, sacrum
30
Indications for repair of partial rotator cuff tears
Articular side: depth >6mm | Bursal side: >3mm
31
Primary restraint to AP translation of AC joint
Superior/posterior ACJ capsule
32
Location of trapezoid ligament
3cm medial to ACJ
33
Location of conoid ligament
4.5cm medial to ACJ
34
Age cutoff for surgery in Blount's
36 mos
35
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in a child
Rhabdomyosarcoma
36
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in the foot
Synovial cell sarcoma
37
Lateral ulnar collateral ligament is ___ in extension and ___ in flexion
Lax in extension, tight in flexion
38
GIRD leads to ___ motion of the humeral head during throwing
Posterosuperior
39
Radiation dose for HO ppx
600 cGy (6 Gy)
40
Epiphyseal lesions
Chondroblastoma, GCT, clear cell chondrosarcoma
41
Estrogen receptor beta-positive
Desmoid tumor (extra-abdominal fibromatoses)
42
Best view for Bankart lesion
West Point view
43
Best view for Hill-Sachs lesion
Stryker notch view
44
Inserts on Sublime tubercle
Anterior bundle of UCL of elbow (anteromedial coronoid)
45
Shoulder Bennett lesion in a thrower
Ossification of posterior-inferior glenoid, benign
46
Three nerves with excellent recovery potential
Radial, musculocutaneous, femoral nerves
47
Name 5 components of forearm interosseous membrane
Central/accessory bands, proximal/dorsal oblique cords, distal oblique bundle
48
HAGL involves the ___
Anterior band of inferior glenohumeral ligament
49
Stener lesion caused by interposition of ___
Adductor pollicis (between thumb UCL and bone)
50
Sites of PIN compression (3)
ECRB edge, Arcade of Frohse (proximal edge of supinator), leash of Henry (recurrent radial artery)
51
Most common site of lung metastasis
Spine
52
Most common site of pathologic fracture
Humerus
53
Most common site of pathologic fracture secondary to metastasis
Proximal femur
54
Equation for pelvic incidence
Sacral slope + pelvic tilt
55
Long thoracic nerve arises from
C5-7
56
Prevalence of female abuse within 12 months of MSK injury
32%
57
Non-orthopedic drug associated with osteoporosis
Antiepileptics
58
C2 synchondrosis appears and closes at
3-6 years, 12 years
59
Normal thoracic kyphosis in adolescents
20-40 degrees
60
Cause of osteoblastic metastatic lesion
Tumor secretion of endothelin-1 (60% breast, 90% prostate)
61
Metastatic lesions distal to elbows/knees are most likely
Lung or renal
62
Most common source of metastatic adenocarcinoma
Lung
63
Two most common sites of mets for osteosarcoma
Lung, bone
64
Most common sites for chondrosarcoma
Pelvis, femur, scapula
65
Most common glenoid wear pattern in OA
Posterior
66
Tendon transfers for PIN palsy
FCR to EDC, PL to EPL
67
Muscle lying on posterior aspect of IO membrane of leg
PT. FDL is medial, FHL is lateral (behind fibula).
68
What innervates the ECRL
Radial nerve. ECRB is PIN
69
Most common causes of re-triggering after A1 release in a child
FDS decussation, A3 pulley
70
Estimated circulating blood volume in pediatric patient
75-80 mL/kg
71
Unipennate lumbricals
1st and 2nd
72
Fibrillations on EMG indicate
Denervation
73
Location of MPFL origin
Between adductor tubercle and medial epicondyle
74
Worst recovery potential for nerves
Ulnar, peroneal
75
BMP equivalent to bone graft in tibial nonunion
BMP-7
76
Associated with improved outcomes per SPORT trial
Worsening symptoms, low MCS, >6 mos, married, age>41, no workers comp
77
Superior and inferior gluteal nerves are named in relation to
Piriformis. Both in greater sciatic notch.
78
Most common nerve injured during repair of distal biceps
LABC
79
FABER test is for
SI joint pathology for ankylosing spondylitis
80
Risk factors for THA dislocation (4)
FEMALE, proximal femoral fracture, AVN, inflammatory arthritis
81
Tumor associated with renal disease
Brown tumor (hyperparathyroidism and phosphate retention)
82
Optimal position for hip arthrodesis
5 deg ER, 0 deg add, 20 deg flexion
83
Nerve layer that cushions against external pressure
Epineurium
84
Treatment for failed tarsal coalition resection
Triple arthrodesis
85
Five sites of ulnar nerve compression
Arcade of struthers, medial intramuscular septum, medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel, flexor-pronator mass
86
Three stages of Charcot arthropathy
Fragmentation, coalescence, reconstruction
87
Exercises that stress SLAP repair the most (2)
Resistive elbow flexion, passive ER at 90 degrees of ABD
88
Stains for S100
Nerve tumors, clear cell sarcoma, melanoma, EOG
89
Target sign on MRI
Schwannoma
90
Optimal pore size for THA femoral component
50-150 uM
91
PASTA is
A partial articular sided rotator cuff tear
92
Antibiotic used in RA
Doxycycline
93
Treatment of rheumatoid forefoot
First MTP arthrodesis, lesser MT head resections
94
Excision of lateral process of talus leads to
Insufficiency of lateral talocalcaneal ligament
95
Femoral calcar screw should be ___ to midline
Posterior
96
Arise from posterior cord of brachial plexus
Radial, axillary, thoracodorsal, upper/lower subscap nerves
97
Which HTO is useful for PCL deficient knee
Medial Opening wedge (increases tibial slope)
98
Risk factors for nerve palsy in THA are the same for dislocation EXCEPT FOR
AVN is NOT a risk factor for nerve palsy
99
Teres major innervates by
Lower SUBSCAPULARIS nerve
100
Dupuytren's involves ____ ligament
Grayson's
101
Five sites of median nerve compression
Supracondylar process, LIGAMENT of struthers, lacertus, heads of pronator teres, FDS aponeurosis
102
How much calcium is in a glass of milk
300mg
103
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is also known as
Pleiomorphic sarcoma
104
What is treatment for Madelung deformity?
Release Vicker's ligament
105
Initial treatment of adhesive capsulitis
"Supervised neglect"
106
An ABC with osteoid on histology is concerning for
Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
107
Locked plating improves ____ strength but decreases ____ strength
Axial, torsional
108
Treatment for flexible claw toe
FDL to extensor transfer (girdlestone)
109
Ossific nucleus of the proximal femur is visible on radiographs by what age
6 months
110
What percentage of patients over 60 have asymptomatic rotator cuff tears?
30-55%
111
Innervation of abductor pollicis brevis and longus
Recurrent motor branch of median, and PIN
112
Ulnar nerve innervates which muscles in forearm
FCU and the ulnar half of FDP
113
Function of sclerostin
Inhibits wnt pathway to decrease bone mass (SOST gene)
114
Which structure "of struthers" affects the ulnar nerve?
Arcade Ligament compresses median nerve.
115
Thumb proper and accessory ulnar collateral ligaments are tight in
Flexion (proper) and extension (accessory)
116
Define Enneking staging
``` I = low grade II = high grade A= intracompartmental B= extracompartmental III = mets ```
117
Define cathepsin K
Enzyme secreted by osteoclasts that resorbs bone.