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OITE Prep > Misc > Flashcards

Misc Flashcards

0
Q

Smooth cafe au lait spots

A

Neurofibromatosis

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1
Q

Rough cafe au lait spots

A

McCune-Albright

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2
Q

Most common fracture associated with pediatric elbow dislocation

A

Medial epicondyle

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3
Q

Sequelae of lateral condyle fractures

A

Cubitus valgus (gunstock), tardy ulnar nerve palsy

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4
Q

Stripe wear is caused by

A

Lift off separation during instability, dislocations

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5
Q

Three cancers occurring in Paget’s

A

Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, spindle cell sarcoma

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6
Q

Molecule that binds calcium in bone

A

Osteonectin

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7
Q

ACL tight in flexion, tight in extension

A

Tibial tunnel too anterior

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8
Q

ACL: tight in flexion, lax in extension

A

Femoral tunnel too anterior

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9
Q

ACL: lax in both flexion/extension

A

Failure to cycle knee prior to tibial fixation

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10
Q

“Flowing wax” bone deformity

A

Melorheostosis; benign, non hereditary lesions, treat symptomatically

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11
Q

Stains for vimentin, epithelial membrane antigen

A

Synovial sarcoma

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12
Q

Treatment of EPL rupture after cast treatment of distal radius fracture

A

EIP to EPL tendon transfer

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13
Q

The only large joint without intracapsular metaphysis

A

Knee. (metaphyseal osteo will not spread to joint)

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14
Q

Contents of rotator interval

A

Biceps tendon, coracohumeral ligament, superior glenohumeral ligament

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15
Q

Highest risk factor for for nonhealing of surgically repaired rotator cuff

A

Age >65

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16
Q

Carotid tubercle is located at

A

C6

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17
Q

Innervation of disc

A

Medial branch of dorsal primary rami

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18
Q

Location of artery of adamkiewiz

A

T9-T11, branch off segmental artery

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19
Q

Location of superior cluneal nerve related to PSIS

A

8cm laterally

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20
Q

Scale used to evaluate joint laxity, and components in the scale

A

Beighton-Horan; 1) dorsiflexion 5th MCPJ 2) thumb touches forearm 3) hyperextension of elbow 4) hyperextension of knee 5) palms touch floor

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21
Q

Most common long term complication of birth brachial plexus palsy

A

Glenoid hypoplasia and retroversion

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22
Q

Normal glenoid version

A

3 degrees retroversion

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23
Q

Quadriceps are active during which phase of gait

A

Stance

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24
Q

Treatment of parosteal osteosarcoma

A

Wide excision alone

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25
Q

Hornblower’s test is for

A

Teres minor, posterior branch of axillary nerve

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26
Q

Tumors staining for S100

A

Melanoma, nerve tumors, clear cell sarcoma

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27
Q

MOA of osteoprotegerin

A

Binds RANK-L and inhibits osteoclast differentiation

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28
Q

Osteoblasts secrete…

A

RANK-L

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29
Q

Most common sites of giant cell tumor

A

Distal femur, proximal tibia, distal radius, sacrum

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30
Q

Indications for repair of partial rotator cuff tears

A

Articular side: depth >6mm

Bursal side: >3mm

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31
Q

Primary restraint to AP translation of AC joint

A

Superior/posterior ACJ capsule

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32
Q

Location of trapezoid ligament

A

3cm medial to ACJ

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33
Q

Location of conoid ligament

A

4.5cm medial to ACJ

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34
Q

Age cutoff for surgery in Blount’s

A

36 mos

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35
Q

Most common soft tissue sarcoma in a child

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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36
Q

Most common soft tissue sarcoma in the foot

A

Synovial cell sarcoma

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37
Q

Lateral ulnar collateral ligament is ___ in extension and ___ in flexion

A

Lax in extension, tight in flexion

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38
Q

GIRD leads to ___ motion of the humeral head during throwing

A

Posterosuperior

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39
Q

Radiation dose for HO ppx

A

600 cGy (6 Gy)

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40
Q

Epiphyseal lesions

A

Chondroblastoma, GCT, clear cell chondrosarcoma

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41
Q

Estrogen receptor beta-positive

A

Desmoid tumor (extra-abdominal fibromatoses)

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42
Q

Best view for Bankart lesion

A

West Point view

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43
Q

Best view for Hill-Sachs lesion

A

Stryker notch view

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44
Q

Inserts on Sublime tubercle

A

Anterior bundle of UCL of elbow (anteromedial coronoid)

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45
Q

Shoulder Bennett lesion in a thrower

A

Ossification of posterior-inferior glenoid, benign

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46
Q

Three nerves with excellent recovery potential

A

Radial, musculocutaneous, femoral nerves

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47
Q

Name 5 components of forearm interosseous membrane

A

Central/accessory bands, proximal/dorsal oblique cords, distal oblique bundle

48
Q

HAGL involves the ___

A

Anterior band of inferior glenohumeral ligament

49
Q

Stener lesion caused by interposition of ___

A

Adductor pollicis (between thumb UCL and bone)

50
Q

Sites of PIN compression (3)

A

ECRB edge, Arcade of Frohse (proximal edge of supinator), leash of Henry (recurrent radial artery)

51
Q

Most common site of lung metastasis

A

Spine

52
Q

Most common site of pathologic fracture

A

Humerus

53
Q

Most common site of pathologic fracture secondary to metastasis

A

Proximal femur

54
Q

Equation for pelvic incidence

A

Sacral slope + pelvic tilt

55
Q

Long thoracic nerve arises from

A

C5-7

56
Q

Prevalence of female abuse within 12 months of MSK injury

A

32%

57
Q

Non-orthopedic drug associated with osteoporosis

A

Antiepileptics

58
Q

C2 synchondrosis appears and closes at

A

3-6 years, 12 years

59
Q

Normal thoracic kyphosis in adolescents

A

20-40 degrees

60
Q

Cause of osteoblastic metastatic lesion

A

Tumor secretion of endothelin-1 (60% breast, 90% prostate)

61
Q

Metastatic lesions distal to elbows/knees are most likely

A

Lung or renal

62
Q

Most common source of metastatic adenocarcinoma

A

Lung

63
Q

Two most common sites of mets for osteosarcoma

A

Lung, bone

64
Q

Most common sites for chondrosarcoma

A

Pelvis, femur, scapula

65
Q

Most common glenoid wear pattern in OA

A

Posterior

66
Q

Tendon transfers for PIN palsy

A

FCR to EDC, PL to EPL

67
Q

Muscle lying on posterior aspect of IO membrane of leg

A

PT. FDL is medial, FHL is lateral (behind fibula).

68
Q

What innervates the ECRL

A

Radial nerve. ECRB is PIN

69
Q

Most common causes of re-triggering after A1 release in a child

A

FDS decussation, A3 pulley

70
Q

Estimated circulating blood volume in pediatric patient

A

75-80 mL/kg

71
Q

Unipennate lumbricals

A

1st and 2nd

72
Q

Fibrillations on EMG indicate

A

Denervation

73
Q

Location of MPFL origin

A

Between adductor tubercle and medial epicondyle

74
Q

Worst recovery potential for nerves

A

Ulnar, peroneal

75
Q

BMP equivalent to bone graft in tibial nonunion

A

BMP-7

76
Q

Associated with improved outcomes per SPORT trial

A

Worsening symptoms, low MCS, >6 mos, married, age>41, no workers comp

77
Q

Superior and inferior gluteal nerves are named in relation to

A

Piriformis. Both in greater sciatic notch.

78
Q

Most common nerve injured during repair of distal biceps

A

LABC

79
Q

FABER test is for

A

SI joint pathology for ankylosing spondylitis

80
Q

Risk factors for THA dislocation (4)

A

FEMALE, proximal femoral fracture, AVN, inflammatory arthritis

81
Q

Tumor associated with renal disease

A

Brown tumor (hyperparathyroidism and phosphate retention)

82
Q

Optimal position for hip arthrodesis

A

5 deg ER, 0 deg add, 20 deg flexion

83
Q

Nerve layer that cushions against external pressure

A

Epineurium

84
Q

Treatment for failed tarsal coalition resection

A

Triple arthrodesis

85
Q

Five sites of ulnar nerve compression

A

Arcade of struthers, medial intramuscular septum, medial epicondyle, cubital tunnel, flexor-pronator mass

86
Q

Three stages of Charcot arthropathy

A

Fragmentation, coalescence, reconstruction

87
Q

Exercises that stress SLAP repair the most (2)

A

Resistive elbow flexion, passive ER at 90 degrees of ABD

88
Q

Stains for S100

A

Nerve tumors, clear cell sarcoma, melanoma, EOG

89
Q

Target sign on MRI

A

Schwannoma

90
Q

Optimal pore size for THA femoral component

A

50-150 uM

91
Q

PASTA is

A

A partial articular sided rotator cuff tear

92
Q

Antibiotic used in RA

A

Doxycycline

93
Q

Treatment of rheumatoid forefoot

A

First MTP arthrodesis, lesser MT head resections

94
Q

Excision of lateral process of talus leads to

A

Insufficiency of lateral talocalcaneal ligament

95
Q

Femoral calcar screw should be ___ to midline

A

Posterior

96
Q

Arise from posterior cord of brachial plexus

A

Radial, axillary, thoracodorsal, upper/lower subscap nerves

97
Q

Which HTO is useful for PCL deficient knee

A

Medial Opening wedge (increases tibial slope)

98
Q

Risk factors for nerve palsy in THA are the same for dislocation EXCEPT FOR

A

AVN is NOT a risk factor for nerve palsy

99
Q

Teres major innervates by

A

Lower SUBSCAPULARIS nerve

100
Q

Dupuytren’s involves ____ ligament

A

Grayson’s

101
Q

Five sites of median nerve compression

A

Supracondylar process, LIGAMENT of struthers, lacertus, heads of pronator teres, FDS aponeurosis

102
Q

How much calcium is in a glass of milk

A

300mg

103
Q

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is also known as

A

Pleiomorphic sarcoma

104
Q

What is treatment for Madelung deformity?

A

Release Vicker’s ligament

105
Q

Initial treatment of adhesive capsulitis

A

“Supervised neglect”

106
Q

An ABC with osteoid on histology is concerning for

A

Telangiectatic osteosarcoma

107
Q

Locked plating improves ____ strength but decreases ____ strength

A

Axial, torsional

108
Q

Treatment for flexible claw toe

A

FDL to extensor transfer (girdlestone)

109
Q

Ossific nucleus of the proximal femur is visible on radiographs by what age

A

6 months

110
Q

What percentage of patients over 60 have asymptomatic rotator cuff tears?

A

30-55%

111
Q

Innervation of abductor pollicis brevis and longus

A

Recurrent motor branch of median, and PIN

112
Q

Ulnar nerve innervates which muscles in forearm

A

FCU and the ulnar half of FDP

113
Q

Function of sclerostin

A

Inhibits wnt pathway to decrease bone mass (SOST gene)

114
Q

Which structure “of struthers” affects the ulnar nerve?

A

Arcade

Ligament compresses median nerve.

115
Q

Thumb proper and accessory ulnar collateral ligaments are tight in

A

Flexion (proper) and extension (accessory)

116
Q

Define Enneking staging

A 
I = low grade
II = high grade
A= intracompartmental
B= extracompartmental
III = mets
117
Q

Define cathepsin K

A

Enzyme secreted by osteoclasts that resorbs bone.

OITE Prep (13 decks)

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