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OCS Prep > Misc > Flashcards

Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the Five types of Incontinence

A
  1. Stress- Involuntary loss during exertion
  2. Urge- Loss with Urgency
  3. Mixed- Both Stress and Urge
  4. Overflow- Overfull bladder
  5. Reflex- Present with Neurologic Lesions
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2
Q

What is the Female Athlete Triad?

A
  1. Eating Disorders
  2. Ammenorhea
  3. Osteoporosis
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3
Q

Define Independent and Dependent Variable

A

Independent Variable- The Variable manipulated by the researcher
Dependent Variable- The Variable Measured by the researcher

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4
Q

Define Measurement Validity

A

An indication of whether the measurement is an accurate representation of the phenomenon of interest

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5
Q

Describe a Between Subjects/ Completely Randomized design

A

A Single Independent Variable is used and assigns different groups of subjects to each level of that variable
Each individual subject is measured on only one level of the independent variable (Three Different Braces)

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6
Q

Describe a Within Subjects/ Repeated Measures Design

A

Uses a single independent variable and measures each subject under all levels of that variable
Each subject measured on all levels (Medication doses of 200, 400, 600 mg)

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7
Q

Describe a Factorial Design

A

Uses two or more independent variables

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8
Q

Describe as Completely Randomized Factorial Design

A

Uses Two or more independent variables and each subject is tested at only one level of each variable
If two variables and three levels each, would require 9 groups of subjects

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9
Q

Describe a Within Subjects Factorial Design

A

Measures each subject in all levels of all variables

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10
Q

Describe a Mixed Factorial Design

A
  • Measures at least one of the variables at only one level and at least one of the variables in all levels
  • Combination of between subjects and repeated measures
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11
Q

When is a correlation coefficient used?

A

To learn about the association between two variables
- (relationship between thigh girth and knee extensor force)

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12
Q

When is a Regression Analysis used?

A

When the question concerns prediction
- (If the pnt has 50-60 deg ROM the second day after surgery, how much longer will he remain in the hospital?)

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13
Q

When would you use a Chi Square, ANOVA, or t-test?

A

To question whether a treatment has an effect
- (Does Spinal traction reduce the symptoms of root compression?)

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14
Q

What is Sensitivity?

A

The proportion of patients with a disorder who also have a positive clinical test

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15
Q

What is Specificity?

A

The proportion of patients without the disorder who also have a negative clinical test

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16
Q

How do you calculate Positive Likelihood Ratios?

A

Sensitivity divided by 1 minus the Specificity

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17
Q

How do you Calculate Negative Likelihood Ratio?

A

1- Sensitivity divided by the Specificity

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18
Q

What is Number Needed to Treat and how do you calculate it?

A
  • The number of people who need to be treated to affect a change in one person
  • One - Control Group divided by Experiment Group
  • Control Group and Experiment group are numbers of people per group who did not respond to the treatment
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19
Q

Briefly Describe the Convex-Concave rule

A

Convex on Concave - Opposite Directions
- Concave on Convex - Same Directions

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20
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • Symmetric Arthritis of small joints in hand (except for DIPs)
  • Same in the Wrists, Feet, And Knees all with morning stiffness
  • Rheumatoid Factor may be present
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21
Q

What X Ray changes occur with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Periarticular Osteopenia occurs first
Erosions may develop at joint margins
Loss of Joint Space, malalignment, and progressive Osteopenia

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22
Q

What are the most common hand deformities in RA?

A

Swan Neck
Boutoniere
Ulnar Deviation at MCPs

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23
Q

What are the types of Juvenile RA?

A

Pauciarticular- Involving < or equal to 4 joints- Most Common
Polyarticular- Similar in Nature to Adult RA
Systemic Onset- Fever, Arthritis, Rash, and other organ involvement

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24
Q

What are some common blood tests to diagnose RA?

A

Rheumatoid Factor (Sensitive)
- Anti CCP Ab- Anticyclic Citrullinated peptide Antibodies (Specific)

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25
Q

What areas of the spine are affected by RA?

A
  • The Synovium of the Odontoid Process and The Transverse Ligament that holds C2 to C1 via the Dens
  • RA can lead to Axis Joint Instability
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26
Q

What is a Darrach Procedure and when is it indicated?

A

Excision of the Distal Ulna
For relief of pain following distal RU disruption and/or RU arthritis
Typically used in the elderly with low physical demands

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27
Q

Describe Typical Lupus Arthtitis

A

Arthralgia without visible joint swelling
When inflammation present, typically involves small joints of hands
Arthritis is not erosive (unlike RA) although joint deformities may be seen

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28
Q

Name the Seronegative Arthropathies

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis
Reiter Syndrome
Psoriatic Arthritis
Arthritis associated with inflammatory Bowel Disease
These have an increased incidence of HLAB27 but negative in Rheumatoid Factor and Anti Nuclear Antibody

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29
Q

What is Reiter Syndrome?

A

A Seronegative arthropathy that is triggered by infection, typically Chlamydia, Shigella, or Yersinia

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30
Q

Name some typical findings of Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Onset in late teens to 20s
Insidious in nature
Increase pain with rest
Decreased pain with Activity
+++Stiffness

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31
Q

What causes Gout and Pseudogout?

A
  • Gout- Uric Acid Crystals in Synovial Joints
  • Pseudogout- Calcium Pyrophosphate
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32
Q

What is a typical onset of Gout?

A
  • Begin with sudden onset of burning pain
  • Often Starts at Night
  • Joint appears red, Swollen, and hot to touch
  • Usually resolve within 7-10 days with RICE and NSAIDs
33
Q

How is definitive diagnosis of Gout or Psuedogout made?

A

Examination of joint fluid under Microscope

34
Q

What is differential Diagnosis of a single, red, hot joint?

A
  • Infection
  • Gout
  • PsuedoGout
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Seronegative Arthropathy
35
Q

What is Virchows Triad?

A
  • Classic pathogenesis for Deep Vein Thrombosis
  • Endothelial Damage
  • Alteration in Blood Flow
  • Hypercoagulability
36
Q

What are some symptoms of DVT?

A
  • Calf Pain
  • Swelling
  • Warmth
  • Low Grade Fever
  • Palpable Cord and Pain along the course of the involved nerve
37
Q

What is Homans Sign?

A

Calf Pain with Forced passive dorsiflexion
- uses to assess for DVT

38
Q

What are some common signs and symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism?

A
  • Pleuritic Chest Pain and Dyspnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Bulging Neck Veins
39
Q

At what levels is the International Normalized Ration (INR) usually kept in order to prevent DVT?

A

Between 2 and 3

40
Q

What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)?

A

Syndrome in which pain is out of proportion with injury and is characterized by Autonomic Dysregulation

41
Q

Describe the signs of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)

A
  • Burning Type Pain
  • Trophic Changes
  • Allodynia or pain with stimulus that does not normally cause pain
42
Q

Describe the signs of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (RSD)

A
  • Burning Type Pain
  • Trophic Changes
  • Allodynia or pain with stimulus that does not normally cause pain
43
Q

What NMES settings should be used after Knee Surgery to help the quadriceps recover?

A
  • 2500 Hz alternating current
  • 75 bursts per second
  • 2 second ramp up and down
  • 10 second stimulation with 50 second rest
43
Q

What NMES settings should be used after Knee Surgery to help the quadriceps recover?

A
  • 2500 Hz alternating current
  • 75 bursts per second
  • 2 second ramp up and down
  • 10 second stimulation with 50 second rest
44
Q

Describe some settings of Ultrasound

A

Non Thermal- between .1 and .3 W/cm2
Thermal- Above .3 W/cm2
Deeper Penetration- 1MHz
Shallow Pentration- 3 MHz

45
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A
  • Inhibit the Synthesis of Prostaglandins
  • Prostaglandin Biosynthesis is catalyzed within the cell by the COX enxyme
  • NSAIDs inhibit the COX Enzyme so no Prostaglandin can be produced
46
Q

What are PPV and NPV?

A
  • Positive Predictive Value- the percentage of persons with a positive test result who actually have the disesae
  • Negative Predictive Value- The percentage of people with a negative test result who do not have the disease
47
Q

What is Horner Syndrome?

A

An interruption of sympathetic nervous system innvervation to the head and face

48
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of Horner Syndrome?

A

Ptosis- Droopy Eyelid
Miosis- Constricted pupil
Anhidrosis- Absence of sweat production
All on the affected side of the face only

49
Q

What are some common tests used to diagnose Developmental Dysplasia of the hips in infants?

A

Ortolani Sign
Barlows Test
Galeazzi sign

50
Q

How is Developmental Dysplasia of the hips treated?

A

1.5 years- usually need open surgical reduction

51
Q

What are some Brachial Plexus Palsies seen in infants?

A

Erb-Duchenne Palsy (C5-6) (Best Prognosis)
Klumpkes Palsy (C8-T1) (Worse Prognosis)
Complete Plexus Palsy (worst prognosis)

52
Q

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans and How is it Treated?

A
  • Necrotic Bone Lesion
  • Most common in knee in teenagers
  • Diagnosed with Radiology
  • Treatment is casting x 2-3 months, but if loose body present surgery is required
53
Q

What is Osgood Schlatters and How is it Treated?

A
  • Traction Apophysitis of the Tibial Tubercle in Skeletally immature patients
  • Treated with RICE, NSAIDs, Activity Modification and Stretching/Strengthening
  • Condition is self limiting and often resolves with skeletal maturity
54
Q

What is Sinding Larsen Johanssen Syndrome?

A

Traction Apophysitis of the Distal Patellar Pole

55
Q

What is Legg Calve Perthes and How is it Treated?

A
  • Idiopathic Avascular Necrosis of the Femoral Head
  • Often seen in 4-12 year olds, more in boys
  • Treated with ROM into Abduction, maintaining the involved portion of the femoral head in the acetabulum
  • Sometimes Surgical procedure is required (Salters Osteotomy, Femoral Osteotomy)
56
Q

What is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis and How is it Treated?

A
  • Displacement of the Capital Femoral Epiphysis
  • Often in obese boys, 10-16 years old
  • Limited Internal Rotation at Hip
  • Treatment usually require screw fixation
57
Q

What is Nursemaids Elbow?

A

Dislocation of the Radial Head from the Annular Ligament
- Reduction achieved with Supination

58
Q

What are most common locations for plantar ulcers in patients with diabetes?

A
  • First Metatarsal head
  • Fifth Metatarsal Head
  • Great Toe
59
Q

What is the Arcade of Frohse, and why is it clinically relevant?

A

It is a fibrous arch and part of the supinator muscle in the forearm
The radial nerve passes through this fibrous arch before becoming the Posterior Interosseous Branch
This is a site of nerve entrapment and will present clinically with finger drop (MP joints)

60
Q

What is Meralgia Parasthetica?

A

Compression of the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh
Usually from tight clothing or heavy tool belt

61
Q

How does an Obturator Nerve Entrapment Present?

A
  • They are rare
  • Usually occur after traumatic event such as childbirth or pelvic trauma
  • Weakness of the Adductors and may or may not have sensation loss to medial thigh
62
Q

How does Saphenous Nerve Entrapment present?

A
  • Pain in the knee and usually without sensory loss to medial leg
  • Pain can be ellicited with palpation of entrapment site between the Sartorious and Gracilis
63
Q

What sites can the Fibular Nerve be entrapped?

A

Popliteal Space behind Knee
Fibular Head
Anterior Compartment (as Deep Fibular)
Lateral Compartment (as Superficial Fibular)

64
Q

What are Signs of Superficial Sensory Fibular Nerve Entrapment?

A
  • Occurs after the innervation of Fibularis Muscles, nerve is purely cutaneous
  • Loss of Sensation to Distal leg and Dorsum of the Foot
65
Q

How is Deep Fibular Nerve most often injured?

A

Anterior Compartment Syndrome
- Treated with Fasciotomy

66
Q

What is Anterior Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Entrapment of the Deep Fibular Nerve at the ankle as it passes deep to the inferior extensor retinaculum
  • Occurs in Skiers, Runners, etc who wear tight fitting boots/shoes
  • Sensation to 1st web space and Motor to EDB and EHB
67
Q

What is Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A
  • Compression of the Tibial Nerve as it passes through the Posterior Tarsal Tunnel
  • Pain, Parasthesias pattern consistent with one or both of the plantar nerves
68
Q

What are the contents of the Tarsal Tunnel?

A

Tibialis Posterior
Flexor Digitorum Longus
Flexor Hallucis Longus
Posterior Tibial Nerve, Artery, Vein
Tom Dick And Very Nervous Harry

69
Q

Describe Peripheral Neuropathy (Polyneuropathy)

A
  • Causes include Toxicity, Alcoholism, Nutritional Deficiencies and Systemic Infection or Disease
  • Stocking Glove pattern of sensory loss, often affects most distal nerves first (feet then hands)
70
Q

What are some common causes of Clubbing and Cyanosis?

A

Heart Failure
- Lung Failure

71
Q

What is Bells Palsy?

A
  • Idiopathic Unilateral Facial Nerve Paralysis
  • Hallmark Sign is paralysis that is of rapid onset and typically occurs overnight
  • Usually Self Limiting
72
Q

What are some factors that might precipitate Gout Flare Up?

A

Diet heavy in Meat and Seafood
Heavy Alcohol Consumption, especially beer
Aspirin Use
Use of Diuretics
High Blood Pressure
Chronic Kidney Disease

73
Q

What are some Symptoms of Hiatal Hernia?

A
  • Heartburn and Chest Pain
  • Often confused with Heart Attack
  • Can be diagnosed with barium swallow and x ray
74
Q

What is Best VO2 usage to mobilize fat vs carbohydrate?

A

< 30% VO2 Max uses mostly fat
- > 70% VO2 Max uses carbohydrate

75
Q

What are some visceral pain referrals of the cervical spine?

A

liver
pancreas
perforated duodenal ulcer

76
Q

What are some visceral pain referral sites of the thoracic spine?

A
  • gastroesophegeal reflux
  • cholecystitis
  • penetrating duodenal ulcer
77
Q

What are some visceral pain referrals sites of the Lumbosacral spine?

A
  • pancreatitis
  • rectal lesions
  • renal colic

OCS Prep (13 decks)

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