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Microbiology minimal questions > Minimal questions 1-99 > Flashcards

Minimal questions 1-99 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What does sterilisation mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs.

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2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of the germs are reduced to a safety level.

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3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?

A

The number of the germs, the resistance of the germs,
the concentration of the disinfectants, the presence of the organic materials, the initial time, the presence of the biofilm.

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4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?

A

a. 180 degrees C; 1 hour
b. 160 degrees C; 2 hours
c. 140 degrees C; 3 hours

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5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

a. +1 atm overpressure, 121 degrees C, 20-30 minutes,

or

b. +2 atm overpressure, 134 degrees C, 10 minutes

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6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?

A

Etilene oxide, formaldehyde, beta-propiolacton

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7
Q

The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A

Hydrogen-peroxide in high electrical field will form plasma stage. The produced free radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other nontoxic products.

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8
Q

Biological method used for checking effectivity of the sterilisation?

A

By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in correct way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

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9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; The blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of LPS.

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10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate/non-living surfaces.

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11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used for disinfection animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces.

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12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on the antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

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13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated.

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14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A

O: Cell wall
H: Flagella
K: Capsule

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15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro antigen-antibody reaction.

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16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

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17
Q

What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment.

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18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation.

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19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines?

A

Live attenuated microbe; killed microbe, toxoid, antigens of the microbe

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20
Q

What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

The microbe is examined without killing procedure.

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21
Q

What kind of information can we get by light microscopically examination?

A
  • Size of microbe
  • Shape of microbe
  • Motility
  • Staining can be examined
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22
Q

The solutions of Gram-stain?

A

Sodium oxalate, crystal violet, iodine solution, 96% ethanol, fuchsin or safranin.

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23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A

Anaerostate
Gas-pack jar
High agar
Anaerobic chamber

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24
Q

Definitions: Bacteriostatic, Bactericide

A

Bacteriostatic: inhibits bacterial growth
Bactericide: kills bacteria

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25
Q

Definition: Selective toxicity

A

the antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host

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26
Q

Chemotherapeutic index?

A

Dosis tolerata maxima (DTM) / Dosis curativa minima (DCM)

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27
Q

Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?

A

Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Carbapenem, Glycopeptide

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28
Q

Glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Vancomycin, Teicoplanin

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29
Q

Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:

A

Polymyxines

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30
Q

What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 examples)

A 
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline
Macrolide 
Chloramphenicol
Linezolid
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31
Q

Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are: (2 examples)

A

Quinolones, rifampicin, sulphonamide, trimethoprim

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32
Q

Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer:

A

Conjugation (plasmid)
Transduction (bacteriophage)
Transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)

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33
Q

Antibiotic resistance mechanism are:

A

Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics, efflux pump, modifying of the antibiotic binding site

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34
Q

What does MRSA mean?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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35
Q

What does ESBL mean?

A

Extended spectrum of beta lactamase enzyme

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36
Q

What does MIC mean?

A

Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in micrograms/ml.

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37
Q

What does MBC mean?

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in micrograms/ml

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38
Q

Definitions:
MBL
MACI
PACI

A

MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase (=carbapenemase)
MACI: Multiresistant Acinetobacter
PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter

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39
Q

Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?

A

a. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b)
b. Prevenar / Pneumovax (against 13/23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae)
c. Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) - but not B!

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40
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in case of typical pneumonia?

A

Sputum and haemoculture

41
Q

What kind of microbiology can be sent to the microbiology diagnostic laboratory in the case of atypical pneumonia?

A

Blood, urine, broncho-alveolar lavage.

42
Q

What kind of bacterial disease can be treated by antitoxin?

A

Infections caused by bacterial toxins exotoxins: tetanus, botulism, diphtheria

43
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with the catalase test?

A

Staphylococci (+) and

Streptococci (-)

44
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?

A 
Staphylococcus aureus (+) and
the other staphylococcus species (coagulase-negative staphylococci)
45
Q

Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci

A

Gram positive cocci

Arranged in grape-like structures

46
Q

Colony morphology of Staphylococcus Aureus on blood agar plate

A

Average size
Round colonies with butter consistency
Golden pigment production
Beta-haemolysis

47
Q

What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus? (3 examples)

A 
Protein A
Endocoagulase (clumping factor)
Adhezins
Teicoic acid
Hialuronidase
Protease
Lipase
DN-ase
48
Q

What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?

A 
Leucocidin
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Exfoliative toxin
Enterotoxin
Haemolysin
49
Q

Disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning

50
Q

Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins? (2 examples)

A

Food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome

51
Q

List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species.

A

S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus
S. haemolyticus
S. lugdunensis

52
Q

Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci?

A

Nosocomial infections, biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices

53
Q

Which bacterium can cause “Honeymoon Cystitis”?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

54
Q

Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate?

A

Small,
Pin-point colonies,
Surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone

55
Q

Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae

56
Q

Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans group (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)

57
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

58
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group B Streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

59
Q

What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

60
Q

Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin

61
Q

What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?

A

Hyaluronic acid

62
Q

Disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)

A 
Pharyngitis
Tonsillitis
Sinusitis
Impetigo
Erysipelas
Necrotising fasciitis
Scarlet fever
TSST
63
Q

What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Acute rheumatic fever,

Glomerulonephritis

64
Q

Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae

65
Q

What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by Streptococcus agalactiae?

A

In new born meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia

66
Q

Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

67
Q

Microscopic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Gram-positive diplococci

68
Q

How can be prevented the invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine or 13 valent conjugated vaccine

69
Q

Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on the optochin sensitivity/resistance?

A

S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans group (R)

70
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by viridans group streptococci?

A

Dental decay or endocarditis

71
Q

Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?

A

E. Feacalis and E. faecium

72
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci

73
Q

What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar

74
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci

75
Q

How can Neisseria menigitidis spread?

A

By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx

76
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Sepsis, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

77
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gonorrhoeae, blenorrhoea neonatorum, proctitis, orchitis.

78
Q

What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

79
Q

What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A

Microscopic examination, Gram-stain, latex agglutination.

80
Q

What can be do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A

Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin

81
Q

What can cause Neisseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?

A

Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum

82
Q

Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?

A

The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule “b” serotype

83
Q

How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?

A

By Hib vaccine

84
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Haemophilus Ducreyi?

A

Ulcus molle (chancroid)

85
Q

What is the causative agent of whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

86
Q

What are the virulence factor of Bordatella pertussis? (2 examples)

A

Fimbria, pertactin, pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin, dermatonecrotic toxin.

87
Q

What is the causative agent for tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis

88
Q

What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (2 examples)

A

Brucella abortus
Brucella melitensis
Brucella suis
Brucella canis

89
Q

What are the diseases caused by Bacillus anthracis? (2 examples)

A

Cutaneous anthrax, pulmonary anthrax, gastrointestinal anthrax

90
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Bacillus cereus?

A

Food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhoea), wound infection

91
Q

What is the causative agent of pseudomembranosus colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile

92
Q

What kind of bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

93
Q

What kind of bacteria can cause spastic paralysis?

A

Clostridium tetani

94
Q

What is the treatment of Botulism?

A

Giving polyvalent antitoxin

95
Q

What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis?

A

Vancomycin per os
Metronidazole
Faecal transplantation

96
Q

Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (2 examples)

A

Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium histolyticum
Clostridium septicum

97
Q

What is the causative agent of diphtheria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

98
Q

How can be detected the toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

By Elek´s test, Römer-test (in guinea pig)

99
Q

What is the treatment of diphtheria?

A

Passive immunisation, giving antibiotics, artificial ventilation if it is necessary.

Microbiology minimal questions (4 decks)

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