Military IFR Cards Flashcards

1
Q

While taxiing what instructions are air crew responsible to relay back to air traffic control?

A

All taxi and hold short instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

While airborne aircrew required read back which ATC clearances?

A

Altitude assignments, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a minimum separation required for aircraft not in formation?

A

500 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If GPS is being utilized for navigation what must be accomplished as part of the mission plan?

A

A RAIM check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When using RNAV as a substitute means of navigation for VOR, TACAN, or NDB what is prohibited?

A

Substituting a NAVAID for providing lateral course guidance during final approach segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum weather required to file an instrument flight plan?

A

Weather conditions at the destination from one hour before to one hour after hour the estimated time of arrival is forecast to be at or above the lows compatible approach minimums excluding tempo conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For filing purposes helicopters are allowed to do what for instrument approach planning purposes?

A

Reduce visibility required for the approach by 1/2 but no lower than 1/4 statute mile the prevailing visibility or 1200 feet RVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If only circling minima are available for IFR flight planning purposes what whether must be forecast in order to utilize the approach for planning purposes?

A

Both ceiling and visibility minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For helicopters an alternate is required for what weather at the destination?

A

Conditions less than a ceiling of 1000 feet or 400 feet above the lowest compatible approach minima whichever is higher and visibility 2 statute miles including tempo conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If an instrument approach is not available at an alternate field what weather requirements must be present?

A

Forecast weather for one hour before to one hour after the ETA to include tempo groups must permit the scent from minimum enroute altitude and approach and landing under basic VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are disqualifying criteria for an alternate if VFR weather is not available?

A

All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID, the airfield does not report weather observations, the airfield lists alternate not authorized on all compatible approaches, or any notes disqualifying the airfield in the IFR alternate minimum section (Trouble A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Are Air Force pilots required to comply with the weather minimums listed in the IFR alternate minimum section of the terminal procedures publication?

A

No they’re not required to comply however one must check the procedures carefully for other disqualifying features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Flight under VFR conditions within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace is prohibited when?

A

When ceiling is less than 1000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For flight planning purposes when filing an alternate the total included fuel for planning must include fuel required to fly a missed approach when?

A

When visibility only criteria are utilized in filing the procedure as an alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who authorizes special VFR clearance for helicopter air crew?

A

The owning MAJCOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two way radio contact is established when?

A

When the controller repeats the aircraft’s call sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What minimum weather is required for takeoff?

A

Existing weather must be at or above the lowest compatible approach minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the minimum required climb gradient for IFR flight?

A

Aircraft must meet or exceed 200 feet per nautical mile or the published climb gradient whichever is greater with all engines operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the minimum turn altitude after takeoff?

A

400 feet above the designated end of runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the trouble T identifier signify?

A

Notifies pilots that departure procedures exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Low close-in obstacles are not part of the departure procedure and assume what?

A

That the pilot operating the aircraft is able to see and avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diverse departure is authorized when?

A

If no obstacles other than low close and obstacles penetrate the 40 to 1 terps criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Can pilots file a diverse departure on a flight plan?

A

No, they’re not authorized to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is the diverse departure flown?

A

Climb runway heading until 400 feet by designated end of runway then turn on course while maintaining at least 200 feet per nautical mile until reaching 1000 feet or 2000 feet in mountainous areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diverse departures are not authorized when?

A

When an obstacle departure procedure, obstacle climb gradient, or nonstandard takeoff winter weather minimums are published for the airport

26
Q

What are non standard IFR takeoff minimums?

A

These are provided when low close in obstacles penetrate the 40 to one within three statute miles. Weather must be equal to or better than published ceiling and visibility to depart using non standard IFR takeoff minimums and climb at 200 feet per nautical mile

27
Q

What is specific routing?

A

A published specific routing to avoid obstacles under the departure procedure section of the obstacle departure procedure

28
Q

What is a visual climb over airport?

A

A visual climb over airport procedure is a departure option for IFR aircraft operating in VMC equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling to visually conduct climbing turns over the airfield to the published climb to altitude

29
Q

Who may authorize the use of VCOA procedures?

A

The MAJCOM

30
Q

What is a diverse vector area?

A

A diverse vector area is an assigned vector azimuth in lieu of obstacle departure procedure where the pilot departs based on headings assigned from ATC

31
Q

Are specific ATC departure instructions considered radar vectors?

A

They are not radar vectors

32
Q

Should wind drift corrections be applied to specific ATC departure instructions?

A

They should not be applied

33
Q

If departure instructions conflict with the obstacle departure procedure or with terrain or obstacles in the direction of the departure what should be performed?

A

The pilot should query the controller

34
Q

For Air Force pilots what takes precedence the obstacle departure procedure or ATC departure instructions?

A

The obstacle departure procedure. If ATC instructions conflict with this the pilot must query the controller’s line if unable to fly a standard instrument departure what should be placed in the flight plan? No Sid in the remarks section

35
Q

What is required to fly a standard instrument departure?

A

ATC clearance

36
Q

If radar vector or cleared off of an assigned SID with the instrument to prompt the pilot to resume the SID?

A

Expect to resume SID

37
Q

What are vector SID’s?

A

Air traffic control provides radar navigation to a filed route, or fix on the standard instrument departure. Considered a hybrid approach to departure traffic flow

38
Q

What is performance based navigation?

A

Specifies the required navigational performance necessary to attempt the approach such as accuracy, integrity, and functionality

39
Q

What is the RNP specification?

A

The requirement for on board performance of navigating, monitoring, and alerting for a required approach

40
Q

NAVAIDs may be identified via what to aspects?

A

They’re audible Morse code or their visual alphanumeric signal the

41
Q

When utilizing a NAVAID to navigate what must be performed?

A

The station must be monitored either visually or aurally to ensure transmission of a stable signal

42
Q

What are the two classes of integrity monitoring?

A

RAIM and aircraft autonomous integrity monitoring which uses internal onboard sensors

43
Q

Approach waypoints are normally fly by waypoints but the missed approach waypoint and the missed approach holding waypoint are what kind of waypoint?

A

Fly over waypoints

44
Q

There are how many GPS satellites?

A

24

45
Q

Who is the clearance authority for flight in uncontrolled airspace?

A

The pilot in command

46
Q

Who is the clearance authority for VFR and controlled airspace?

A

The PIC

47
Q

Off of Airways aircraft should fly no lower than what?

A

The off route obstacle clearance altitude

48
Q

If no off route obstacle clearance altitude is available what altitude should the aircraft be flown at?

A

An altitude that provides at least 1000 feet of clearance above all obstacles within four nautical miles of the course to be flown or 2000 feet of clearance and mountainous areas

49
Q

The aircraft over non congested areas must be flown at or above what height?

A

500 feet AGL

50
Q

Helicopters may operate at lower than prescribed altitude so long as they do not do what?

A

Create a hazard to persons or property on the surface

51
Q

What is the minimum altitude above National Park monuments, seashores, and other protected areas?

A

2000 feet AGL

52
Q

Operation of VFR is prohibited below a ceiling less than what?

A

1000 feet

53
Q

What are the special cloud clearances for helicopters in class G airspace below 1200 feet above ground level?

A

1/2 statute mile visibility during the day, one statute mile visibility at night, clear of clouds

54
Q

For helicopters in class G airspace above 1200 feet AGL what are the cloud clearances?

A

One statute mile visibility, three statute mile visibility at night, 500 feet below, 1000 above, 2000 feet horizontal

55
Q

What is not an acceptable navigational aid for a hold?

A

TACAN

56
Q

Below 14,000 feet holding timing is what?

A

One minute

57
Q

What is the minimum required weather to attempt an approach at the destination?

A

Lowest compatible approach minimums. You are not allowed to attempt the approach below compatible approach minimums.

58
Q

If weather decreases below lowest compatible approach minimums after beginning the descent or receiving radar vectors what is authorized?

A

The approach may be continued to either the mist approach point or a landing if criteria are met

59
Q

On an arrival procedure if given an assigned altitude aircraft are not authorized to descend until?

A

Receiving authorization to descend.

60
Q

When given the authorization to change to advisory frequency on the approach the pilot should do what?

A

If at an airfield not served by a tower or flight service station the pilot should broadcast their intentions to include the approach being executed, their position, went over the non precision approach fix inbound or at the precision approach glide slope intercept point.

61
Q

For helicopters visibility reduction should be performed after what?

A

Applying any inoperative approach lighting visibility correction

62
Q

At what weather does an alternate become required?

A

Less than 1000 (or 400 above LCA) + 2 SM visibility