General Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How long will the crew rest period be?

A

12 hours

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2
Q

How many hours of uninterrupted opportunity for sleep will members have for crew rest?

A

Eight hours

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3
Q

Do official electronic messages disrupt crew rest?

A

Yes, unless the member “voluntarily checks” the message

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4
Q

Can the PIC refuse the crew rest waiver?

A

Yes.

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5
Q

If crew rest is to be waived, when must the waiver be obtained?

A

Prior to the crew rest period

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6
Q

How many minimum crew rest periods can a crew have?

A

Up to 3 consecutive periods

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7
Q

How many hours of crew rest must crews have after three consecutive days of minimum crew rest?

A

24 hours

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8
Q

When does the flight duty period begin and end?

A

From the first moment of initial report to the final engine shutdown

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9
Q

The PIC is authorized to extend the FDP how long?

A

2 additional hours

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10
Q

Students in a formal training course must complete the training events by when?

A

Within the first 12 hours of the flight duty period

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11
Q

Do AETC missions allow the use of GO/NO Pills?

A

No

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12
Q

Describe “Deadhead”

A

Deadhead: Aircrew on orders can fly as passengers so long as they are not performing flight duties. Their time as a passenger is an official duty and does not require crew rest to perform, but does impact crew rest for future operations

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13
Q

What is the maximum flight time per week?

A

56 hours

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14
Q

What are the requirements for a cockpit nap?

A

Two qualified pilots, crew at stations, cruise flight only, must terminate 1 hour prior to descent

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15
Q

What regulation governs aircrew equipment?

A

11-301-V1

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16
Q

Who is the approval authority for NVG courses?

A

MAJCOM

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17
Q

Who does not require a seatbelt for flight?

A

Individuals younger than two

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18
Q

The gunner’s belt can be used in lieu of?

A

A seatbelt/harness

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19
Q

Who is in-charge of ensuring non-rated flyers are eligible for flight?

A

The Sq/CC

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20
Q

What is the Aerial Event AFI?

A

DAFI 11-209

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21
Q

Which forms of nicotine are acceptable for flight?

A

Lozenges, patches, and gum

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22
Q

What is the hazardous cargo regulation?

A

AFMAN 24-604

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23
Q

Who is the ultimate approval authority for personal electronic devices?

A

The PIC

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24
Q

NEXRAD is not authorized for?

A

Thunderstorm avoidance

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25
When must the EFB be secured and viewable?
During the critical phases of flight
26
When can classified material be stored on the EFB?
Never
27
The EFB must have how much power before flight?
At least 50%, and 10% for each hour of flight
28
Who is authorized to recovery an aircraft from an unsuitable surface?
Only groundcrew
29
What flight hazards are mandatory to report?
Hazardous weather, wake turbulence, volcanic activity, large concentrations of birds, or other safety of flight-threatening conditions
30
Cabin altitude will be maintained at what elevation without supplemental oxygen?
10,000ft or below
31
With physiological training, unpressurized flight (on oxygen) may be conducted up to what altitude?
25,000ft
32
How much time is allowed off of oxygen between 10,000ft and 12,500ft?
1 hour, but only if conducting IFR flight, night, weapons employment, or high-g manuevers
33
How much time is allowed off of oxygen between 12,500ft and 14,000ft?
30 minutes
34
What is the maximum unpressurized, zero-supplemental oxygen altitude with passengers on board?
13,000ft
35
How much total time unpressurized is authorized above 10,000ft?
3 hours
36
All occupants must be on supplemental oxygen above what altitude?
14,000ft
37
Pressure suits begin to be required above what altitude?
50,000ft
38
What is required if inadvertent unpressurized flight is encountered above 18,000ft?
Flight surgeon evaluation
39
What should be performed should a member develop DCS symptoms?
Land as soon as practicable at a suitable installation, administer 100% oxygen (preferably under pressure), flight surgeon evaluation
40
Do time limits of unpressurized flight exist?
Yes, refer to table 3.3 for specifics
41
Does maximum flight time during a FDP include simulators?
Yes
42
Position lights are required when?
Between sunrise and sunset
43
When are anti-collision lights required to be on?
Prior to engine start and will remain on until engine shutdown
44
When may anti-collision lights be extinguished?
If a distracting dazzle is produced which may interfere with crew duties
45
Landing lights must be turned on when?
When takeoff clearance is received and the aircraft is on the active runway or when operating below 10,000ft MSL
46
In AETC, when may "lights out" operations be conducted?
In designated training areas or airfields
47
What lighting conditions are authorized for formation flight?
Unlimited ability to vary lighting configuration due to MDS volumes or training syllabi so long as non-participating aircraft can identify the formation outside of Restricted or Warning areas
48
What lighting requirements are necessary to operate from a runway?
It must be outlined with operable lights or reflective markers. (Covert lighting during NVG operations satisfies this requirement)
49
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft?
An aircraft in distress
50
If the same category of aircraft are converging to the same point, which aircraft has right of way?
The one on the other's right
51
What is the order or precedence for aircraft right-of-way?
Balloons, gliders, towing or refueling aircraft, airships, powered aircraft (rotary and fixed wing are equal priority)
52
If two aircraft are approaching head-on, what is the deconfliction procedure?
Both will go to their respective right
53
If overtaking another aircraft, how will the procedure be accomplished?
Overtake to the right
54
An aircraft on final has the right-of-way over what other aircraft?
All other aircraft on the ground or in the air
55
If two aircraft are on final, who has the right of way?
The one at lower altitude. Do not abuse to overtake
56
What is a requirement for all aircraft read-backs to ATC?
The aircraft's callsign
57
Which ATC instructions are mandatory readbacks?
Altitude assignments, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments
58
If unable to meet an ATC instruction, what is required
A notification to ATC
59
Which descent gradient should be avoided in IMC flight?
Descents in excess of 10 degrees
60
Speed adjustments must be maintained within what parameters?
Within +/- 10 kts
61
When flying next to an aircraft not in a formation flight, what is the recommended minimum distance?
500ft
62