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11-202-V3 AETC/OG Sup > General Flight Rules > Flashcards

General Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How long will the crew rest period be?

A

12 hours

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2
Q

How many hours of uninterrupted opportunity for sleep will members have for crew rest?

A

Eight hours

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3
Q

Do official electronic messages disrupt crew rest?

A

Yes, unless the member “voluntarily checks” the message

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4
Q

Can the PIC refuse the crew rest waiver?

A

Yes.

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5
Q

If crew rest is to be waived, when must the waiver be obtained?

A

Prior to the crew rest period

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6
Q

How many minimum crew rest periods can a crew have?

A

Up to 3 consecutive periods

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7
Q

How many hours of crew rest must crews have after three consecutive days of minimum crew rest?

A

24 hours

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8
Q

When does the flight duty period begin and end?

A

From the first moment of initial report to the final engine shutdown

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9
Q

The PIC is authorized to extend the FDP how long?

A

2 additional hours

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10
Q

Students in a formal training course must complete the training events by when?

A

Within the first 12 hours of the flight duty period

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11
Q

Do AETC missions allow the use of GO/NO Pills?

A

No

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12
Q

Describe “Deadhead”

A

Deadhead: Aircrew on orders can fly as passengers so long as they are not performing flight duties. Their time as a passenger is an official duty and does not require crew rest to perform, but does impact crew rest for future operations

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13
Q

What is the maximum flight time per week?

A

56 hours

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14
Q

What are the requirements for a cockpit nap?

A

Two qualified pilots, crew at stations, cruise flight only, must terminate 1 hour prior to descent

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15
Q

What regulation governs aircrew equipment?

A

11-301-V1

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16
Q

Who is the approval authority for NVG courses?

A

MAJCOM

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17
Q

Who does not require a seatbelt for flight?

A

Individuals younger than two

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18
Q

The gunner’s belt can be used in lieu of?

A

A seatbelt/harness

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19
Q

Who is in-charge of ensuring non-rated flyers are eligible for flight?

A

The Sq/CC

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20
Q

What is the Aerial Event AFI?

A

DAFI 11-209

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21
Q

Which forms of nicotine are acceptable for flight?

A

Lozenges, patches, and gum

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22
Q

What is the hazardous cargo regulation?

A

AFMAN 24-604

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23
Q

Who is the ultimate approval authority for personal electronic devices?

A

The PIC

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24
Q

NEXRAD is not authorized for?

A

Thunderstorm avoidance

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25
Q

When must the EFB be secured and viewable?

A

During the critical phases of flight

26
Q

When can classified material be stored on the EFB?

A

Never

27
Q

The EFB must have how much power before flight?

A

At least 50%, and 10% for each hour of flight

28
Q

Who is authorized to recovery an aircraft from an unsuitable surface?

A

Only groundcrew

29
Q

What flight hazards are mandatory to report?

A

Hazardous weather, wake turbulence, volcanic activity, large concentrations of birds, or other safety of flight-threatening conditions

30
Q

Cabin altitude will be maintained at what elevation without supplemental oxygen?

A

10,000ft or below

31
Q

With physiological training, unpressurized flight (on oxygen) may be conducted up to what altitude?

A

25,000ft

32
Q

How much time is allowed off of oxygen between 10,000ft and 12,500ft?

A

1 hour, but only if conducting IFR flight, night, weapons employment, or high-g manuevers

33
Q

How much time is allowed off of oxygen between 12,500ft and 14,000ft?

A

30 minutes

34
Q

What is the maximum unpressurized, zero-supplemental oxygen altitude with passengers on board?

A

13,000ft

35
Q

How much total time unpressurized is authorized above 10,000ft?

A

3 hours

36
Q

All occupants must be on supplemental oxygen above what altitude?

A

14,000ft

37
Q

Pressure suits begin to be required above what altitude?

A

50,000ft

38
Q

What is required if inadvertent unpressurized flight is encountered above 18,000ft?

A

Flight surgeon evaluation

39
Q

What should be performed should a member develop DCS symptoms?

A

Land as soon as practicable at a suitable installation, administer 100% oxygen (preferably under pressure), flight surgeon evaluation

40
Q

Do time limits of unpressurized flight exist?

A

Yes, refer to table 3.3 for specifics

41
Q

Does maximum flight time during a FDP include simulators?

A

Yes

42
Q

Position lights are required when?

A

Between sunrise and sunset

43
Q

When are anti-collision lights required to be on?

A

Prior to engine start and will remain on until engine shutdown

44
Q

When may anti-collision lights be extinguished?

A

If a distracting dazzle is produced which may interfere with crew duties

45
Q

Landing lights must be turned on when?

A

When takeoff clearance is received and the aircraft is on the active runway or when operating below 10,000ft MSL

46
Q

In AETC, when may “lights out” operations be conducted?

A

In designated training areas or airfields

47
Q

What lighting conditions are authorized for formation flight?

A

Unlimited ability to vary lighting configuration due to MDS volumes or training syllabi so long as non-participating aircraft can identify the formation outside of Restricted or Warning areas

48
Q

What lighting requirements are necessary to operate from a runway?

A

It must be outlined with operable lights or reflective markers. (Covert lighting during NVG operations satisfies this requirement)

49
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft?

A

An aircraft in distress

50
Q

If the same category of aircraft are converging to the same point, which aircraft has right of way?

A

The one on the other’s right

51
Q

What is the order or precedence for aircraft right-of-way?

A

Balloons, gliders, towing or refueling aircraft, airships, powered aircraft (rotary and fixed wing are equal priority)

52
Q

If two aircraft are approaching head-on, what is the deconfliction procedure?

A

Both will go to their respective right

53
Q

If overtaking another aircraft, how will the procedure be accomplished?

A

Overtake to the right

54
Q

An aircraft on final has the right-of-way over what other aircraft?

A

All other aircraft on the ground or in the air

55
Q

If two aircraft are on final, who has the right of way?

A

The one at lower altitude. Do not abuse to overtake

56
Q

What is a requirement for all aircraft read-backs to ATC?

A

The aircraft’s callsign

57
Q

Which ATC instructions are mandatory readbacks?

A

Altitude assignments, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments

58
Q

If unable to meet an ATC instruction, what is required

A

A notification to ATC

59
Q

Which descent gradient should be avoided in IMC flight?

A

Descents in excess of 10 degrees

60
Q

Speed adjustments must be maintained within what parameters?

A

Within +/- 10 kts

61
Q

When flying next to an aircraft not in a formation flight, what is the recommended minimum distance?

A

500ft

62
Q
A

11-202-V3 AETC/OG Sup (4 decks)

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