Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CC LEC > midterms > Flashcards

midterms Flashcards

1
Q

Concentration is commonly expressed as

A

percent
solution, molarity, molality, or normality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

expressed as the amount of solute per 100 total
units of solution

A

Percent solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

number of grams of solute per 100 g of solution

A
  • Weight per weight (w/w)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

grams per deciliter (g/dL)

A
  • Volume per volume (% v/v)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

most commonly used percent
solution

A
  • Weight per volume (% w/v)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

of grams of solutein 100 mL of solution.

A
  • Weight per volume (% w/v)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

e number of moles per 1 L of
solution

A

Molarity (M)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SI representation for the traditional molar
concentration is

A

moles of solute per volume of
solution,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

depends on volume, and any significant
physical changes that influence volume

A

molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

temperature and pressure, will also
influence

A

molarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

represents the amount of solute per 1 kg of
solvent.

A

Molality (m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

always expressed in terms of moles per kilogram

A

Molality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

often used in chemical titrations and chemical
reagent classification

A

Normality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

.
- It is defined as the number of gram equivalent
weights per 1 L of solution

A

Normality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

s equal to the gmw of a
substance divided by its valence.

A

equivalent weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the number of units that can
combine with or replace 1 mole of hydrogen ions
for acids and hydroxyl ions for bases and the
number of electrons exchanged in
oxidation–reduction reaction

A

valence electrons are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

s previously used for reporting
electrolyte values

A

Normality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

currently requires chloride to be reported in
mmol/L.

A

College of American Pathologists (CAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

four main electrolytes,

A

Na+,
K+, CO2– (HCO3–), and Cl–

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A solution is considered saturated when n

A

o more
solvent can be dissolved in the solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

can influence the solubility constant for a
solute in a given solution and thus affect the
saturation

A

Temperature, as well as the presence of other
ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is one in which there is relatively little
solute or one that has a lower solute
concentration per volume of solvent than
the original, such as when making a
dilution

A
  • dilute solution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • has a large quantity of solute in solution.
A
  • concentrated solution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A solution in which there is a excess of
undissolved solute particles

A
  • saturated solution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

has an even greater concentration of
undissolved solute particles than a
saturated solution of the same substance

A
  • supersaturated solution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

supersaturated solution
is

A

thermodynamically unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

disturbs the
supersaturated solution, resulting in
crystallization of any excess material out
of solution.

A

crystal of solute or
mechanical agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

roperties related
to the number of solute particles per solvent
molecules, not on the type of particles present.

A

COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The behavior of particles or solutes in solution
demonstrates four properties:

A

osmotic
pressure, vapor pressure, freezing point, and
boiling point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

s the pressure that
opposes osmosis when a solvent flows
through a semipermeable membrane to
establish equilibrium between
compartments of differing concentration

A

. Osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

is the pressure exerted
by the vapor when the liquid solvent is in
equilibrium with the vapor.

A

Vapor pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

is the temperature at
which the first crystal (solid) of solvent
forms in equilibrium with the solutio

A

Freezing point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

is the temperature at which
the vapor pressure of the solvent
reachesatmospheric pressure (usually 1
atmosphere).

A

Boiling point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is
______ proportional to the concentration of the
molecules in solution

A

osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is
directly proportional to the concentration of the
molecules in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which is preferred? osmolality or osmolarity?? why

A

Osmolality is preferred since it depends on the
weight rather than volume and is not readily
influenced by temperature and pressure changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

can be measured as a
function of osmolality

A

freezing point and vapor
pressure depression

freezing points s preferred since vapor pressure
measurements can give inaccurate readings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

s preferred since vapor pressure
measurements can give inaccurate readings

A

Freezing point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

is a measure of
the ability of a solution to accept or donate
electrons.

A

oxidation–reduction potential,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Substances that donate electrons are called

A

reducing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

those that accept electrons are considered

A

oxidizing agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how well electricity passes through a
solution.

A

CONDUCTIVITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

depends
principally on the number of respective charges of
the ions present

A

solution’s conductivity quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

, the reciprocal of conductivity, is a
measure of a substance’s resistance to the
passage of electrical current

A

Resistivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The primary application of resistivity in the clinical
laboratory is for a

A

ssessing the purity of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

resistance and conductivity is expressed as

A

Resistivity (resistance) is expressed as ohms and
conductivity is expressed as ohms−1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

remains one of the primary areas of
preanalytic errors

A

The process of specimen collection, handling, and
processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

specifies
that procedures for specimen submission and
proper handling be documented, including the
disposition of any specimen that does not meet
the laboratories’ criteria of acceptability

A

The Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments Act of 1988 (CLIA 88)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  • the inverse of exponential functions
A

Logarithms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

inverse of the logarithm.

A

antilogarithm or antilog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

part(s) of concentrated material to
the total final volume of a solution.

A

DILUTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

e parts of the substance being
diluted in the total numbers of parts of the
solution.

A

DILUTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aio refers to part substance to part
substance

A

ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The most common dilution uses

A

one
part patient serum plus one part salin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

reciprocal of the dilution

A

which is known as the

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

are required when the result is above the
linearity of the assay

A

Dilutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

There is an _____ relationship between the
dilution factor and concentration

A

There is an inverse relationship between the
dilution factor and concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

extremely useful when the volume of
concentrate or diluent is in short supply and its
use needs to be minimized, or when a number of
dilutions are required, such as in determining a
titer

A

serial dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

needed to ensure that
sufficient sample is available for analysis. The
serial dilution is initially made in the same manner
as a simple dilution

A

serial dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

criterias of serial dilution

A

e total
volume desired, the amount of diluent or
concentrate available, the dilution factor, the final
concentration needed, and the support materials
required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

is the process that guarantees
that the laboratory results are as accurate as
possible and includes all three phases of testing:
pre-analytic, analytic, and post-analytic

A

Quality assurance

61
Q

s the specific process of
monitoring and assessing the analytical phase of
testing

A

Quality control

62
Q

is used to verify the
acceptability of new methods prior to test
implementation and reporting patient results.

A

method evaluation

63
Q

numerical values that summarize a given data set.

A

descriptive statistics,

64
Q

, monitoring of analytic methods is
performed by

A

assaying stable control materials
and comparing their determined values with their
expected values

65
Q

The expected values are represented by
intervals of acceptable values with upper
and lower limits, known as

A

control limits.

66
Q

principles of visualizing QC data were initially
applied to the clinical laboratory in the

A

1950s by
Levey and Jennings.

67
Q

Specimens analyzed for QC purposes are known
as

A

QC materials, commonly referred to as
controls

68
Q

QC for general chemistry assays generally uses
??? levels of control, while immunoassays
commonly use ??? levels of control.

A

QC for general chemistry assays generally uses
two levels of control, while immunoassays
commonly use three levels of control.

69
Q

give expected target
ranges, often including the mean and SD
using common analytic methods, MORE
EXPENSIVE BUT ALLOWS ANOTHER
EXTERNAL CHECK OF METHOD
ACCURACY

A

Assayed controls

70
Q

do not have
assigned analyte values provided by the
manufacturer. The laboratory, rather than
the manufacturer, assigns expected
results to unassayed QC materia

A

unassayed QC materials

71
Q

incomplete mixing control materials for recon yields

A

a
partition of supernatant liquid and
underlying sediment and will
result in incorrect control values.

72
Q

do not require
reconstitution but may behave differently
from patient specimens

A

Stabilized frozen controls

73
Q

s usually
more expensive, but it does remove any
variation due to the preparation of the QC
materials

A

manufactured liquid QC

74
Q

graphically represent the observed
values of a control material over time in the
context of the upper and lower control limits

A

Control charts g

75
Q
  • Control limits are expressed as the
A

mean ± SD

76
Q

A common method to assess the determination of
control materials over time is by the use of a

A

Levey-Jennings control chart

77
Q

monitor analytic variations that can occur

A

QC system i

78
Q

The QC
program can be thought of as

A

a three-stage
process:
1. Establishing or verifying allowable statistical limits
of variation for each analytic method 2.
2. Using these limits as criteria for evaluating the QC
data generated for each test 3.
3. Taking action to remedy errors real time when
indicated
a. Finding the cause(s) of error
b. Taking corrective action c. Reanalyzing
control and patient dat

79
Q

The use of the statistical process control chart
(Levey-Jennings) was pioneered by

A

Shewhart in
the 1920s

80
Q

Control rules indicate the number of control
observations per analytic run, followed by the
control amount in subscript.

A

Control rules

81
Q

One control value
exceeds the mean by more than 2
standard deviations

A

1-2s Rule

82
Q

: One control value
exceeds the mean by more than 3
standard deviations

A

1-3s Rule:

83
Q

Two consecutive
control values exceed the mean
by more than 2 standard
deviations, either in the same or
opposite direction.

A

■ 2-2s Rule:

84
Q

: The range (difference)
between two consecutive control
values exceeds 4 standard
deviations

A

R-4s Rule

85
Q

Four consecutive
control values exceed 1 standard
deviation from the mean, in the
same direction.

A

4-1s Rule:

86
Q

Error varies from sample to sample. Causes
include instrument instability, temperature
variations, reagent variations, handling
techniques, and operator variables

A

Random error

87
Q

Predictable error resulting from inaccuracy in a
method; results in constant or proportional bias.

A

Systematic error

88
Q

exists when
there is a continual difference between
the test method and the comparative
method values, regardless of the
concentration. t

A

Constant systematic error

89
Q

is the type of
systematic error where magnitude is
dependent on analyte concentration

A

Proportional error

90
Q

Mechanism of spectrophotometer

A

Light source produce intense reproducible constant
beam of light. White light - different wavelengths of light
Isolates and segregates white liht into different wavelength
to produce different colors if light. This diff wavelength light
will pass through exit slit which sill serve as wavelength
selector.one light pass through sample solution, it will eat
the light due to analytes inside it thereby affecting
absorbance reading.then it will pass through photo
detector and convert this light energy to electrical signal.
Then received by digital display or meter para mabasa.

91
Q

states that the concentration of a substance is directly
proportional to the light absorbed and inversely
proportional to the light transmitted

A

BEER’S LAW

92
Q

Produces an intense, reproducible,
constant beam of light

A

Light Source

93
Q

Most common, used in visible and near
infrared (IR) regions

A

Incandescent tungsten or tungsten-iodide
lamp -

94
Q

For ultraviolet (UV) region

A

deuterium discharge lamp and the mercury arc
lamp -

95
Q
  • with both
    ultraviolet (UV)
    and visible lines
A

Low-pressure mercury lamps

96
Q

ultraviolet
(UV) to the mid-visible region

A

Medium and high-pressure mercury lamps -

97
Q

solation of individual wavelengths of
ligh

A

Monochromators

98
Q

MONOCHROMATOR OF SPECTROPHOTOMETER

A

Diffraction gratings and Prisms

99
Q

MONOCHROMATOR OF Photometers

A
  • Glass filters and Interference filters
100
Q
  • The light path must be kept
    constant to have absorbance proportional to
    concentration.
A

Sample cells/cuvets

101
Q

ransmission and absorption of light by
analyte at ultraviolet range range

A

Quartz

102
Q
  • Glass cuvettes - visible region
A
  • Glass cuvettes -
103
Q

Converts light energy transmitted by a
solution into an electrical signal

A

Photodetectors

104
Q
  • Iron plates coated with Se and Ag
A

Photocell

105
Q
  • Also contains photosensitive materials
  • Cathode and anode enclosed in a glass ca
A

Phototube

106
Q

Detects and amplifies the light energy,
composed of cathodes and chains of dynodes,
each having successively high voltage

A
  • Photomultiplier tube
107
Q
  • 200x more sensitive that phototube
A
  • Photomultiplier tube
108
Q

Electrical energy coming from a
detector is displayed on some type of digital display or
readout system

A

READOUT DEVICE

109
Q

absorbance reading from the
sample must be blanked using an appropriate reference
solution
- bl

A

SINGLE-BEAM Spectrophotometry

110
Q

permit automatic
correction of sample and reference absorbance

A

DOUBLE-BEAM Spectrophotometry -

111
Q

he wavelength indicated on the control dial is the actual
wavelength of light passed by the monochromator

A

wavelength accuracy

112
Q

Standard solutions & Filters e.i Didymium or Holmium
oxide

A

Standard solutions & Filters e.i Didymium or Holmium
oxide

113
Q

any wavelengths outside the band transmitted by the
monochromator.

A

stray light

114
Q

-Cut-off filters

A

stray light

115
Q
  • demonstrated when a change in concentration results in
    a straight line calibration curve
A

Linearity

116
Q
  • Neutral density filters
A

Linearity

117
Q

used to measure concentration by detecting the
absorption of electromagnetic radiation by atoms

A

Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer

118
Q
  • based on the principle that each element absorbs light at
    caertain wavelength corresponding to their electronic
    energy lette
A

Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer

119
Q

measures light emitted by excited atom

A
  • Flame Photometry - aka “flame emission photometer”
120
Q

Concentrations of solutions containing
fluorescing molecules are measured and the amount of
Fluorescence is directly proportional to concentration

A

Fluorometry

121
Q

part of the chemical energy
generated produces excited intermediates that decay to a
ground state with the emission of photons. The emitted
radiation is measured with a PM tube, and the signal is
related to analyte concentration

A

Chemiluminescence

122
Q
  • based on emission of light due to chemical
    reaction
A

Chemiluminescence

123
Q

is used to produce
light when it reacts with enzyme.also common to
immunoassay.linked to antibody

A

chemiluminescence substrate

124
Q
  • Amount of light blocked by suspension of
    particles which is dependent on particle size &
    concentration
A

Turbidity

125
Q

LIGHT SCATTERED at an angle to the
beam incident on the cuvet by the particle is measured

A

Nephelometry

126
Q
  • the migration of charged solutes
    or particles in an electrical field
A

ELECTROPHORESIS

127
Q

is the mechanisation of the steps in a
procedure

A

Automation

128
Q

Advantages to automating procedures

A
  1. Increase the number of tests performed
  2. Minimise variation in results
  3. Eliminates potential errors of manual analyses
  4. Only small amount of sample is required
  5. Only small amount of reagent is used
129
Q

Three basic approaches with instruments

A
  1. CONTINUOUS FLOW
    2.CENTRIFUGAL ANALYSIS
  2. DISCRETE ANALYSIS
130
Q

Uses centrifugation force to transfer and
contain liquids in separate cuvette for
measurement at the perimeter of a
spinning rotor

A

Centrifugal analysis

131
Q

most capable of running multiple samples,
one test at a time, in a batch (batch
analyses)

A

Centrifugal analysis

132
Q

Running multiple samples, one Test at a time
(batch) Or multiple tests, one sample at a time

A

C. Discrete analysis

133
Q

Most popular and most versatile analyzer

A

C. Discrete analysis

134
Q

IDENTIFICATION AND PREPARATION

A
  1. Sample identification
    - This is usually done by reading the bar code. This
    information can be entered manually.
  2. Determine tests) to perform
    - The LIS communicates to the analyzer which
    tests) have been ordered
135
Q

CHEMICAL REACTION

A
  1. Reagent systems and delivery
    One or more reagents can be dispensed into the reaction
    cuvet.
  2. Specimen measurement and delivery
    A small aliquot of the sample is introduced into the
    reaction cuvet.
  3. Chemical reaction phase
    The sample and reagents are mixed and incubated.
136
Q

DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS

A
  1. Measurement phase
    18
    -
    -
    -
    Optical readings may be initiated before or after all
    reagents have been added.
  2. Signal processing and data handling
    The analyte concentration is estimated from a calibration
    curve that is stored in the analyzer.
  3. Send results) to LIS
    The analyzer communicates results for the ordered tests
    to the LIS.
137
Q

Reagents pipeted by the instrument and mixed
with the samples

A
  1. Wet Chemistry/liquid reagents
138
Q
  • lyophilized reagents or tablet form (Dimension®)
  • Single use slides/films (Vitros®
A

DRY CHEMISTRY

139
Q
  • Mixing of sample and reagents occur in cuvets
  • Reaction temperatures and time may vary for
    each analyte (30 deg. C and 37 deg. C are most
    commonly used)
A

Testing Phase

140
Q
  • Concentration is based on the change in
    absorbance over time
  • Youll need to read multiple absorbance
    readings
A
  1. Kinetic assays
141
Q
  • Absorbance of coloured products is read
    and compared with the standard for
    calculation of analyte concentration
  • Only one reading necessary
A
  1. End-point/Colorimetric assays
142
Q

is defined as those
analytical patient-testing activities provided within the
institution, but performed outside the physical facilities.of
the clinical laboratories.

A

Point-of-care testing (POCT)

143
Q
  • non dstructive analytic technique used to
    determine phys and chem property by measuring a,ount of
    light reflected from material
A

Reflectance

144
Q
  • relationship
    of electric current and chemical reactions
A

Electrochemistry, electrical impedance

145
Q
  • measurs concentration antigen
    and antibody bsed on degree of turbidy that forms when
    antigen antibody complex forms
A

Immunoturbidimetry

146
Q

nephelometry

A

. Light scattering/ optical motion

147
Q

. molecular bio tech that
amplifies segment of nucleic acid particularly dna throughr
epeated cycle of heating and cooling. Very common.

A

Polymerase chain reaction -

148
Q
A

CC LEC (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions