Midterm Test

Question 1

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.
B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.
C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

Answer 1

C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

Question 2

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
B. ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
C. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
D. demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport.

Answer 2

A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

Question 3

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):

A. advanced EMT (AEMT).
B. paramedic.
C. EMT.
D. EMR.

Answer 3

B. paramedic.

Question 4

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

A. paramedic.
B. AEMT.
C. EMR.
D. EMT.

Answer 4

A. paramedic.

Question 5

Continuing education in EMS serves to:

A. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care.
B. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.
C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills.
D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Answer 5

C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills.

Question 6

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:

A. The Emergency Medical Services Act.
B. The Department of Transportation’s White Paper: Death and Dying.
C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
D. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.

Answer 6

C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

Question 7

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:

A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.
B. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer’s claim.
C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends.

Answer 7

C. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.

Question 8

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

A. EMS training officer.
B. individual EMT.
C. EMS medical director.
D. State Bureau of EMS.

Answer 8

B. individual EMT.

Question 9

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.
B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.
C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

Answer 9

C. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

Question 10

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on:

A. EMS research.
B. local protocols.
C. regional trauma guidelines.
D. the lead EMT’s decision.

Answer 10

A. EMS research.

Question 11

The EMT certification exam is designed to:

A. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.
B. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
C. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.
D. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.

Answer 11

B. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

Question 12

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:

A. American Heart Association.
B. state office of EMS.
C. regional trauma center.
D. National Registry of EMTs.

Answer 12

B. state office of EMS.

Question 13

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?

A. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds
B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
C. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course
D. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care

Answer 13

B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

Question 14

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
B. A team of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting
C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients
D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

Answer 14

A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

Question 15

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?

A. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
B. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.
C. Due to improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

Answer 15

A. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

Question 16

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

A. Protecting a patient’s spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height
B. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
C. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR
D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

Answer 16

D. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

Question 17

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?

A. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin
C. A 17-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen
D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Answer 17

D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Question 18

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?

A. Intranasal medication administration
B. Automated external defibrillation
C. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia
D. Use of a manually triggered ventilator

Answer 18

B. Automated external defibrillation

Question 19

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
B. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards.
C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.
D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

Answer 19

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

Question 20

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?

A. Direct
B. Online
C. Off-line
D. Radio

Answer 20

C. Off-line

Question 21

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.

A. six
B. 24
C. 72
D. 12

Answer 21

C. 72

Question 22

A positive TB skin test indicates that:

A. you have never been exposed to TB.
B. you have been exposed to TB.
C. The TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.
D. you are actively infected with TB.

Answer 22

B. you have been exposed to TB.

Question 23

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:

A. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding.
B. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call.
C. short-term feelings of energy due to the high physical demands of the job.
D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

Answer 23

D. increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation.

Question 24

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?

A. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery

Answer 24

B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

Question 25

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except: A. high ambient temperatures. B. carbon dioxide deficiency. C. smoke and toxic gases. D. risk of building collapse.

Answer 25

B. carbon dioxide deficiency.

Question 26

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. offer little or no side protection. C. are not secured with a strap. D. do not have shatterproof lenses.

Answer 26

B. offer little or no side protection.

Question 27

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts. B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. C. touches another person without his or her consent. D. stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy.

Answer 27

B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

Question 28

The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: A. eustress. B. resilience. C. wellness. D. reactions.

Answer 28

B. resilience.

Question 29

The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: A. avoid outer clothing with zippers. B. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

Answer 29

C. wear at least three layers of clothing.

Question 30

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: A. identifying the hazardous material. B. ensuring your personal safety. C. calling the hazardous materials team. D. evacuating the bystanders.

Answer 30

B. ensuring your personal safety.

Question 31

The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. substandard and inappropriate patient care. C. punitive action and the loss of a job. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors.

Answer 31

B. substandard and inappropriate patient care.

Question 32

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. B. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. C. undergo an annual physical examination. D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

Answer 32

D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

Question 33

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: A. careless handling of sharps. B. noncompliance with standard precautions. C. lack of proper immunizations. D. excessive blood splashing or splattering.

Answer 33

A. careless handling of sharps. --- Sharps include needles, syringes, and lancets

Question 34

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. received a hepatitis B vaccination. D. have a weak immune system.

Answer 34

A. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past.

Question 35

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. inanimate objects. B. smoke or dust. C. animals or insects. D. direct contact.

Answer 35

C. animals or insects.

Question 36

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A. Check for other patients. B. Request another ambulance. C. Contact medical control. D. Ensure the vehicle is stable.

Answer 36

D. Ensure the vehicle is stable.

Question 37

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. D. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

Answer 37

B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

Question 38

Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? A. Mumps B. Chickenpox C. Syphilis D. Rubella

Answer 38

C. Syphilis

Question 39

Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? A. Age B. Race C. Immunity D. Gender

Answer 39

C. Immunity

Question 39

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: A. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. D. allowing each worker to sleep in 15 to 30-minute increments.

Answer 39

C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. --- A Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) team is made up of volunteer peer support and licensed mental health professionals. They are trained to help responders deal with normal reactions to abnormal events.

Question 40

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel? A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Controlling insurance costs C. Protecting patient privacy D. Ensuring access to insurance

Answer 40

C. Protecting patient privacy

Question 41

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment. B. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. C. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. D. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.

Answer 41

A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment.

Question 42

Which of the following most accurately defines negligence? A. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury B. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training * C. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

Answer 42

A. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

Question 43

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain B. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A confused young man who says he is the president

Answer 43

A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

Question 44

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment? A. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse. B. An EMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. C. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Answer 44

D. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Question 45

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A. Drug overdose B. Attempted suicide C. Accidental knife wound D. Cardiac arrest

Answer 45

B. Attempted suicide

Question 46

Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct? A. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence. B. Such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty. C. Such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued. D. Such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit.

Answer 46

A. Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Question 47

Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? A. Informed B. Implied C. Actual D. Expressed

Answer 47

B. Implied

Question 48

The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: A. standard of care. B. scope of practice. C. code of ethics. D. EMT oath.

Answer 48

A. standard of care.

Question 48

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A. Absence of a pulse B. Dependent lividity C. Absent breath sounds D. Profound cyanosis

Answer 48

B. Dependent lividity

Question 49

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: A. illegal but ethical. B. legal but unethical. C. illegal and unethical. D. legal and ethical.

Answer 49

B. legal but unethical.

Question 50

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. battery. B. negligence. C. assault. D. libel.

Answer 50

C. assault.

Question 51

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request. B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. C. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

Answer 51

D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

Question 52

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A. the medical director. B. another EMT. C. a paramedic supervisor. D. the general public.

Answer 52

B. another EMT.

Question 53

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. clearly state the patient's medical problem. B. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. C. be dated within the previous 24 months. D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

Answer 53

A. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

Question 54

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A. is mentally competent and able to refuse. B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. C. possesses a valid driver's license. D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

Answer 54

B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Question 55

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. inadequate patient care was administered. B. potential falsification of the patient care form. C. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. D. thorough documentation was not required.

Answer 55

A. inadequate patient care was administered.

Question 56

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. C. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight.

Answer 56

A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Question 57

Putrefaction is defined as: A. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

Answer 57

A. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. B. decomposition of the body's tissues.

Question 58

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A. EMS supervisor. B. state EMS office. C. local health district. D. medical director.

Answer 58

D. medical director.

Question 59

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: A. position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself. B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so. C. remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down. D. inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior.

Answer 59

B. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

Question 60

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. B. weight capacity of up to 650 pounds. C. a collapsible undercarriage. D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

Answer 60

D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

Question 61

It is essential that you ______ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A. throw out B. properly store C. incinerate D. decontaminate

Answer 61

D. decontaminate

Question 62

The ______ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. A. thorax B. coccyx C. ischium D. sacrum

Answer 62

D. sacrum

Question 63

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: A. with multiple long bone injuries. B. who cannot be placed on a backboard. C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. D. with a possible cervical spine injury.

Answer 63

C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

Question 64

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: A. with forearm lacerations. B. with a deformed humerus. C. who complains of nausea. D. without a spinal injury.

Answer 64

B. with a deformed humerus.

Question 65

The first rule of safe lifting is to: A. always lift with your palms facing down. B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position. C. keep your back in a slightly curved position. D. spread your legs approximately 20" apart.

Answer 65

B. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

Question 66

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: A. basket stretcher. B. stair chair. C. scoop stretcher. D. wheeled stretcher.

Answer 66

A. basket stretcher.

Question 67

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. causing patient anxiety or fear. B. injury to you or your patient. C. unnecessarily wasting time. D. confusion among team members.

Answer 67

B. injury to you or your patient.

Question 68

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. use a direct carry whenever possible. B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C. flex at the waist instead of the hips. D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Answer 68

D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Question 69

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: A. shoulder girdle. B. thigh muscles. C. spinal column. D. pelvic girdle.

Answer 69

A. shoulder girdle.

Question 70

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: A. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher. B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. C. flexing your body at the knees. D. the use of more than two EMTs.

Answer 70

B. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

Question 71

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: A. the hands can be held further apart from the body. B. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased. C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. D. the muscles of the back experience increased strain.

Answer 71

C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

Question 72

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: A. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible. B. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes. C. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. D. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

Answer 72

D. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

Question 73

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? A. Direct carry B. Log roll C. Draw sheet method D. Extremity carry

Answer 73

C. Draw sheet method

Question 74

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? A. Two: at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient’s torso B. One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso C. Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso D. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

Answer 74

D. One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

Question 75

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? A. Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock B. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle C. Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus D. Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

Answer 75

B. Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle

Question 76

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A. A semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends. B. Most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. C. The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of weight. D. The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

Answer 76

D. The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

Question 77

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? A. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. B. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column. C. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

Answer 77

B. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.

Question 78

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than ______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. A. five B. four C. three D. six

Answer 78

B. four

Question 79

An effective team leader should: A. help the team accomplish goals. B. refrain from any direct patient care. C. perform all difficult interventions. D. command his or her team.

Answer 79

A. help the team accomplish goals.

Question 80

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: A. dependently. B. independently. C. interdependently. D. under standing orders.

Answer 80

C. interdependently.

Question 81

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use: A. medico-legal tools. B. charting tools. C. common ground. D. common language.

Answer 81

D. common language.

Question 82

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: A. discipline. B. drug protocols. C. competition. D. collaboration.

Answer 82

D. collaboration.

Question 83

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: A. engage the team member at once. B. contact the medical director at once. C. discuss the problem after the call. D. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

Answer 83

C. discuss the problem after the call.

Question 84

In an independent group, you would have: A. a common set of tasks. B. shared transportation. C. your own work area. D. parallel work.

Answer 84

C. your own work area.

Question 85

In an interdependent group, when one person fails: A. pay is withheld. B. that person is fired. C. management will be changed. D. everyone fails.

Answer 85

D. everyone fails.

Question 86

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team: A. is not assigned specific roles. B. does not function under protocols. C. works interdependently. D. works independently.

Answer 86

C. works interdependently.

Question 87

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? A. Overconfidence B. Anchoring C. Bias D. Streamlining

Answer 87

B. Anchoring

Question 88

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: A. patient care advocacy. B. the scope of practice. C. the continuum of care. D. the standard of care.

Answer 88

C. the continuum of care.

Question 89

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: A. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. B. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control. C. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

Answer 89

D. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

Question 90

To be a great EMT, strive for: A. the chance to replace an EMR. B. retraining. C. management work. D. foundational knowledge.

Answer 90

D. foundational knowledge.

Question 91

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: A. learning to perform the skill. B. solving a clinical problem. C. completing the procedure. D. following local protocol.

Answer 91

B. solving a clinical problem.

Question 92

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: A. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. B. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions. C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task. D. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

Answer 92

C. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

Question 93

Which comes first in EMS decision making? A. Data gathering B. Data interpretation C. Planning D. Team communication

Answer 93

A. Data gathering

Question 94

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? A. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level. B. Providing the handoff report only to a physician. C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. D. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

Answer 94

C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Question 95

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? A. Visualization of the vocal cords B. Placement of the endotracheal tube C. Suction under direct laryngoscopy D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

Answer 95

D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

Question 96

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred? A. Data gathering B. Team communication C. Planning D. Outcome evaluation

Answer 96

D. Outcome evaluation

Question 97

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that: A. the patient’s leg does not require splinting. B. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking. C. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff. D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

Answer 97

D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

Question 97

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than ______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than ______ beats/min. A. 30, 130 B. 60, 100 C. 40, 120 D. 50, 110

Answer 97

B. 60, 100

Question 98

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of: A. 100% B. 94% to 99% C. 90% to 94% D. 88% to 90%

Answer 98

B. 94% to 99%

Question 99

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: A. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment. C. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. D. assess only the parts of the body that are injured.

Answer 99

B. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

Question 100

A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

Answer 100

A. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

Question 101

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: A. a physician arrives at the scene. B. medical control has been contacted. C. all the patients have been triaged. D. area hospitals have been notified.

Answer 101

C. all the patients have been triaged.

Question 102

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: A. confirm medical history findings. B. reassess your interventions. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. obtain updated vital signs.

Answer 102

C. repeat the primary assessment.

Question 103

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. cardiac output pressure. D. pulse pressure.

Answer 103

B. systolic blood pressure.

Question 104

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? A. Ability to speak B. Inspiratory stridor C. Audible breathing D. Unresponsiveness

Answer 104

A. Ability to speak

Question 105

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. Hypertension B. Headache C. Tachycardia D. Cyanosis

Answer 105

B. Headache

Question 106

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? A. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" B. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" C. "Does your mother have diabetes?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

Answer 106

C. "Does your mother have diabetes?"

Question 107

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A. Systematic head-to-toe examination B. Assessment of oxygen saturation C. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring D. Focused secondary assessment

Answer 107

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination

Question 108

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A. 14 B. 13 C. 10 D. 12

Answer 108

B. 13

Question 109

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

Answer 109

D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

Question 110

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding: A. time and place. B. event and person. C. person and place. D. day and event.

Answer 110

D. day and event.

Question 111

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: A. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. B. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. D. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

Answer 111

C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

Question 112

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: A. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. B. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. C. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

Answer 112

D. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

Question 112

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. maintain stabilization of the head. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. D. prepare the immobilization equipment.

Answer 112

A. maintain stabilization of the head.

Question 113

Capnography is used to: A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. B. read a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. C. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. D. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.

Answer 113

A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

Question 114

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. decreased blood oxygen. B. venous vasoconstriction. C. peripheral vasodilation. D. increased blood oxygen.

Answer 114

A. decreased blood oxygen.

Question 115

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ______ artery. A. carotid B. radial C. brachial D. femoral

Answer 115

B. radial

Question 116

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A. Systematic head-to-toe examination B. Assessment of oxygen saturation C. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring D. Focused secondary assessment

Answer 116

A. Systematic head-to-toe examination

Question 117

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. nonrebreathing mask. B. nasal cannula. C. mouth-to-mask device. D. bag-mask device.

Answer 117

A. nonrebreathing mask.

Question 118

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 500 psi. B. 1,000 psi. C. 1,500 psi. D. 200 psi.

Answer 118

A. 500 psi.

Question 119

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A. 35%. B. 24%. C. 52%. D. 44%.

Answer 119

D. 44%.

Question 120

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. surfactant-destroying organisms. B. adequate amounts of surfactant. C. water or blood within the alveoli. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

Answer 120

B. adequate amounts of surfactant.

Question 121

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called: A. denitrogenation. B. active ventilation. C. apneic oxygenation. D. passive ventilation.

Answer 121

C. apneic oxygenation.

Question 121

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. ataxic respirations. B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. agonal respirations.

Answer 121

B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Question 122

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which: A. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood. B. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing. C. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue. D. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production.

Answer 122

A. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.

Question 123

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the trachea. B. bronchioles. C. alveoli. D. the epiglottis.

Answer 123

D. the epiglottis.

Question 124

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: A. low blood carbon dioxide levels. B. high blood carbon dioxide levels. C. high blood oxygen levels. D. low blood oxygen levels.

Answer 124

D. low blood oxygen levels.

Question 124

The diaphragm is innervated by the ________ nerve, which allows it to contract. A. vagus B. vestibulocochlear C. hypoglossal D. phrenic

Answer 124

D. phrenic

Question 125

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: A. low blood carbon dioxide levels. B. high blood carbon dioxide levels. C. high blood oxygen levels. D. low blood oxygen levels.

Answer 125

D. low blood oxygen levels.

Question 126

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called: A. hypercarbia. B. hypoxia. C. hypoxemia. D. acidosis.

Answer 126

A. hypercarbia.

Question 127

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 3,000 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 500

Answer 127

C. 2,000

Question 128

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. Blood clots B. The tongue C. Aspirated fluid D. Vomitus

Answer 128

B. The tongue

Question 128

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult? A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min B. Shallow breathing C. Slight increase in respiratory rate D. Increased tidal volume

Answer 128

B. Shallow breathing

Question 129

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A. Cyanosis B. Anxiety C. Restlessness D. Tachycardia

Answer 129

A. Cyanosis

Question 130

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Heart D. Muscle

Answer 130

D. Muscle

Question 131

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A. Vertical-position flowmeter B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Ball-and-float flowmeter D. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

Answer 131

D. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

Question 132

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin D. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Answer 132

A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

Question 133

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. Larynx B. Pharynx C. Bronchus D. Oropharynx

Answer 133

C. Bronchus