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Patient Care 1 > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major functions of the upper airway?

A

Warm, filter and humidify air as it enters the body through the nose and mouth

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2
Q

What are the three major components of the Pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, Laryngopharynx

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3
Q

What is a major risk of fractured sinus cavities?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid leaks from the nose and/or ears.

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4
Q

What is cerebrospinal rhinorrhea?

A

CSF leak from the nose

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5
Q

What is cerebrospinal otorrhea?

A

CSF leak from the ears

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6
Q

What are sinuses?

A

Cavities formed by the cranial bones.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of sinuses?

A

They prevent contaminants from entering the respiratory tract and act as tributaries for fluid to flow to and from the eustachian tubes and tear ducts.

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8
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

A muscular tube that extends from the nose and mouth to the level of the esophagus and trachea.

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9
Q

On normal inhalation, where does air enter the body?

A

Through the nose, and into the nasopharynx.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nasal cavity?

A

It keeps contaminants such as dust and other small particles out of the respiratory tract.

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11
Q

What is the risk of trauma to the nasal passage?

A

Profuse bleeding form the posterior nasal cavity, which cant be controlled by direct pressure.

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12
Q

What are the turbinates?

A

Three bony shelves that protrude from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. They serve to increase the surface area of mucosa.

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13
Q

What divides the nasopharynx into two separate passages?

A

The nasal septum, a rigid partition composed of bone and cartilage.

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14
Q

What is a deviated septum?

A

The nasal septum is not in the midline of the nose and has deviated to one side or the other. Important to consider with insertion of nasal airway.

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15
Q

Where is the oropharynx?

A

The posterior portion of the oral cavity.

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16
Q

What borders the oropharynx?

A

Superiorly- hard and soft palates
Laterally- the cheeks
Inferiorly- the tongue

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17
Q

How many adult teeth are there?

A

32

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18
Q

What are the risks of a fracture or avulsion of the teeth?

A

Potential obstruction of the upper airways, or causing aspiration of tooth fragments into the lungs.

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19
Q

What is the tongue attached to ?

A

The mandible and hyoid bone

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20
Q

What is the hyoid bone?

A

A small horseshoe shaped bone which the jaw, epiglottis and thyroid cartilage attach to.

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21
Q

What is the biggest risk of the tongue in an airway perspective?

A

Its tendency to fall back and occlude the posterior pharynx when the mandible relaxes.

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of an airway obstruction?

A

The tongue. Especially in patients with decreased levels of consciousness.

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23
Q

Where is the palate?

A

Forms the roof of the mouth and separates the oropharynx and nasopharynx.

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24
Q

What are adenoids?

A

A lymphatic tissue that filters bacteria, located on the posterior nasopharyngeal wall.

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25
Q

What are tonsils?

A

A lymphatic tissue located in the posterior pharynx, they help to trap bacteria.

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26
Q

What is a potential risk of severe tonsil swelling?

A

Obstruction of the upper airway.

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27
Q

What is the uvula?

A

A soft tissue structure located in the posterior aspect of the oral cavity, originating from the soft palate and hanging just above the base of the tongue. (Resembles a punching bag)

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28
Q

What is the epiglottis?

A

A leaf-shaped cartilaginous flap which prevents food and liquid from entering the larynx during swallowing.

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29
Q

What is the vallecula?

A

An anatomic space between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis. This is an important landmark for tracheal intubation.

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30
Q

What is the larynx?

A

A complex structure formed by many independent cartilaginous structures. It marks where the upper airway ends and lower airway begins.

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31
Q

What is the thyroid cartilage?

A

Sometimes known as the Adams apple.

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32
Q

What is the cricoid cartilage?

A

It forms the lowest portion of the larynx. It is the first ring in the trachea, and the only complete ring in the upper airway.

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33
Q

What is the cricothyroid membrane?

A

Its between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages, and a site for surgical and non surgical access to the airway.

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34
Q

What is the glottis?

A

The space in between the vocal chords and the narrowest portion of the adults airway. The lateral borders are the vocal chords.

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35
Q

What are the vocal chords?

A

White bands of tough tissue that are partially separated at rest.

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36
Q

What are arytenoid cartilages?

A

Pyramidlike cartilaginous structures that form the posterior attachment of the vocal cords.

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37
Q

What is a laryngospasm?

A

A spasmodic closure of the vocal chords, which can obstruct the airway. Normally lasts a few seconds.

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38
Q

What is the function of the lower airway?

A

To exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

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39
Q

What is the trachea?

A

Its the conduit for air entry into the lungs. It is 10-12 cm in length and consists of a series of c-shaped cartilaginous rings.

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40
Q

Where does the trachea divide?

A

At the level of the carina.

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41
Q

What causes bronchodilation?

A

The bronchi are lined with mucus-producing cells and beta-2 receptors that, when stimulated, results in bronchodilation.

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42
Q

Which bronchus is shorter and straighter?

A

The right one.

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43
Q

What is the average adult lung capacity?

A

6 liters

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44
Q

How many lobes are in the right lung?

A

3

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45
Q

How many lobes are in the left lung?

A

2

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46
Q

What is the visceral pleura?

A

A thin, slippery, outer lining of the lungs.

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47
Q

What is the parietal pleura?

A

Lines the inside of the thoracic cavity.

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48
Q

What is the purpose of the fluid found between the parietal and visceral pleura?

A

Decreases friction during breathing.

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49
Q

What are bronchioles?

A

Smooth muscle that dilates or constricts in response to various stimuli. The smaller ones branch into alveolar ducts.

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50
Q

What is the substance that lines the alveoli?

A

Surfactant, which decreases surface tension on the alveolar walls and keeps them expanded.

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51
Q

What are alveoli?

A

The alveoli are balloon like structures which are the functional site for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

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52
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

The alveoli collapse due to lack of inflation, or lack of pulmonary surfactant.

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53
Q

What is Tidal volume (Vt)

A

A measure of the depth of breathing, the volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during a single respiratory cycle.

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54
Q

What is the average tidal volume in the adult male?

A

5-7 mL/kg (500ml)

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55
Q

What is the normal average tidal volume in infants and children?

A

6-8 mL/kg

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56
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

The amount of air that be inhaled in addition to the normal tidal volume.

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57
Q

What is dead space?

A

Any portion of the airway where air lingers but does not participate in gas exchange.

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58
Q

What are the anatomic dead spaces?

A

Trachea and larger bronchi

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59
Q

What physiologic dead spaces?

A

Respiratory disease created dead spaces such as intrapulmonary obstructions or atelectasis.

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60
Q

What is ventilation?

A

the physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs

61
Q

What are the two phases of ventilation?

A

Inspiration and Expiration

62
Q

What is inspiration?

A

the process of moving air into the lungs

63
Q

What is expiration?

A

the process of moving air out of the lungs

64
Q

Phrenic nerves

A

The phrenic nerves innervate the diaphragm

65
Q

M Tank Cylinder Constant

A

1.56

66
Q

D Tank Cylinder Constant

A

0.16

67
Q

What are the 5 distinct phases of Normal Capnographic Waveform?

A
  1. Respiratory baseline
  2. Expiratory upstroke
  3. Alveolar plateau
  4. Measured EtCO2
  5. Inspiratory downstroke
68
Q

What is the flow rate and FiO2​
of the Nasal Cannula?

A

1-6 L/min
24-44%

69
Q

What is the flow rate and FiO2​
of the Non-Rebreather?

A

10-15 L/min
Up to 90%

70
Q

What is the flow rate and FiO2​
of the Bag-Valve Mask?

A

15-25 L/min
21-100%

71
Q

What is hyperoxia?

A

Excess oxygen in body tissues is caused by breathing oxygen-rich gases at normal atmospheric pressure for a prolonged period.

72
Q

Describe a nonrebreathing mask.

A

It has a face mask with a valve to ensure they don’t breathe the same air. It has a reservoir bag.

73
Q

Why would you use a Hi-Ox mask instead of an NRB?

A

It has better filters and protects paramedics against suspected infections.

74
Q

What is a nebulizer mask?

A

They are used to deliver aerosolized medications. Not used as a regular oxygen delivery device.

75
Q

When do you ventilate?

A

-VSA
-Respiratory Arrest
-Unresponsive over 30
-Hypotensive
-Nothing else is working
-Agonal breathing
-Hyperventilating and unable to take adequate breaths.
-Chest trauma

76
Q

In what order do you build a BVM or Ventilation tree?

A

(BEFT)
1. BVM
2. EtCo2 Device
3. Filter
4. Tube extender
5. Advanced Airway

77
Q

What are the risks of ventilation to the stomach?

A
  • Promotes regurgitation/vomiting of stomach contents (can lead to aspiration)

-A distended stomach pushes the diaphragm upward into the chest, reducing the amount of space in which the lungs can expand.

-Dead patients do not vomit… you’re causing them to vomit ;)

78
Q

What is a Thomas bite block?

A

If the patient bites the tube or has a seizure, it can occlude airway. The bite lock is a facial attachment that inhibits this.

79
Q

What is the maximum number of supraglottic airway insertion attempts?

A

2 per patient, not paramedic

80
Q

What are the primary and secondary confirmations for a supraglottic airway?

A

ETCO2 (Waveform capnography)
ETCO2 Numerical readings
Chest Auscultation
Chest rise and fall

81
Q

State what structure separates the upper and lower airway

A

The Larynx, or voice box

82
Q

Explain the structure, function, and Paramedic concerns of the Turbinates.

A

Three bony shelves which increase the surface area of the mucosa. They aid in the three major functions of the upper airway. Often inserting an NPA can cause trauma to the Turbinates.

83
Q

Define Epiglottitis

A

Epiglottitis is an inflammation of the epiglottis, the flap of tissue that sits at the base of the tongue and covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food and liquids from entering the airway.

84
Q

Explain the structure of the Trachea and name the structure in which terminates the trachea

A

Length and Diameter:
The trachea is about 10 to 12 centimeters (4 to 5 inches) long and approximately 2 to 2.5 centimeters (0.8 to 1 inch) in diameter in adults.

Composition:
Cartilage Rings: The trachea is supported by 15 to 20 C-shaped hyaline cartilage rings that provide rigidity while allowing flexibility. The open part of the C faces the esophagus, which allows for expansion during swallowing.
Trachealis Muscle: This smooth muscle connects the ends of the cartilage rings and can constrict or dilate the trachea as needed.
Mucosal Lining: The inner lining is composed of respiratory epithelium, which includes ciliated cells and goblet cells that produce mucus. This lining helps trap and move particles out of the airways.

Division:
The trachea divides into two main bronchi (left and right bronchi) at a point called the carina, which is located at the level of the T5-T7 vertebrae in the thoracic cavity.
The trachea terminates at the carina

85
Q

State the constants for D tanks and M tanks

A

D- 0.16
M- 0.28

86
Q

Define Atelectasis

A

Atelectasis is a condition characterized by the partial or complete collapse of a lung or a section (lobe) of the lung. This results in reduced gas exchange and can lead to decreased oxygen levels in the blood.

Causes:
Obstruction: Blockage of the airways due to mucus, a foreign body, or tumors.
Compression: Pressure from outside the lung, such as fluid accumulation (pleural effusion) or a tumor.
Inactivity: Prolonged immobility or shallow breathing, often seen after surgery or in bedridden patients.
Surfactant deficiency: In premature infants, a lack of surfactant can lead to atelectasis.

Symptoms:
Shortness of breath
Cough
Chest pain
Cyanosis (in severe cases)

87
Q

Contrast between Active and Passive Ventilation

A

Active: Involves the use of muscular effort to move air. This typically occurs during inhalation when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, expanding the thoracic cavity and drawing air into the lungs.
Passive: Relies on the natural elasticity of the lungs and chest wall to expel air. During exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, allowing the lungs to recoil and push air out.

88
Q

Explain the function of the Alveoli

A

Alveoli Function
Gas Exchange: Site where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide is removed.
Surface Area: Millions of alveoli provide a large area for efficient exchange.
Surfactant Production: Reduces surface tension, keeping alveoli open.
Airflow Regulation: Helps manage air distribution in the lungs.
Immune Function: Contains immune cells to fight pathogens.

89
Q

List the primary muscles of Inhalation

A

The primary muscles of inhalation are:

Diaphragm: The main muscle for breathing; it contracts and flattens, increasing the thoracic cavity’s volume.
External Intercostal Muscles: Located between the ribs, they help elevate the rib cage, further expanding the thoracic cavity.

90
Q

List Accessory muscle used in respiratory distress

A

In respiratory distress, several accessory muscles are recruited to assist with breathing. These include:

Sternocleidomastoid: Elevates the sternum.
Scalenes: Elevate the first two ribs.
Pectoralis Minor: Assists in lifting the ribs.
Upper Trapezius: Helps elevate the shoulders and assist in breathing.
Abdominal Muscles: Can aid in forced exhalation, improving airflow.
These muscles help increase thoracic volume and enhance ventilation when normal breathing is insufficient.

91
Q

Define wheezes and how it occurs

A

Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds heard during breathing, typically during exhalation. They result from the narrowing or obstruction of the airways, causing turbulent airflow.

How Wheezes Occur:
Narrowing of Airways: This can be due to various factors, such as:

Bronchoconstriction: Tightening of the smooth muscles around the airways, commonly seen in asthma.
Inflammation: Swelling of the airway lining, which can occur in conditions like bronchitis or allergic reactions.
Obstruction: Physical blockage from mucus, foreign bodies, or tumors.
Turbulent Airflow: As air moves through narrowed passages, it creates turbulence, leading to the characteristic wheezing sound.

Breathing Effort: Wheezes are more pronounced during forced exhalation, as the air is pushed through the constricted areas, making the sounds louder and more pronounced.

92
Q

Define Stridor and how it occurs

A

Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during inhalation (and sometimes exhalation) due to disrupted airflow in the upper airway. It is often a sign of airway obstruction or narrowing.

How Stridor Occurs:
Obstruction or Narrowing: Stridor results from conditions that cause partial blockage of the upper airway, such as:

Croup: Inflammation of the larynx, often seen in children.
Epiglottitis: Inflammation of the epiglottis, which can lead to swelling and airway obstruction.
Allergic Reactions: Swelling from anaphylaxis can cause upper airway constriction.
Foreign Body: An object lodged in the airway can block airflow.
Tumors: Growths in or near the airway can obstruct airflow.
Turbulent Airflow: As air passes through the narrowed area, it creates turbulence, resulting in the characteristic stridor sound.

93
Q

Define Rubs and how it occurs

A

Rubs (or pleural rubs) are abnormal lung sounds characterized by a grating or rubbing noise heard during breathing, typically during both inhalation and exhalation. They result from the movement of inflamed pleural surfaces against each other.

How Rubs Occur:
Pleural Inflammation: Conditions that cause irritation or inflammation of the pleura (the lining around the lungs) can lead to rubs. Common causes include:

Pleurisy: Inflammation of the pleura, often due to infection or autoimmune conditions.
Pleural Effusion: Fluid accumulation in the pleural space can cause friction if the pleurae are still in contact.
Pulmonary Embolism: Can lead to inflammation and pleural rubs.
Friction: When the inflamed pleural layers slide over each other during breathing, they create a rubbing sound, similar to the sound of leather being rubbed together.

94
Q

Define Crackles and how they occur.

A

Crackles (also known as rales) are abnormal lung sounds that can be heard during inhalation or exhalation. They are characterized by short, explosive sounds that can resemble the sound of hair being rubbed between fingers or the popping of bubbles.

How Crackles Occur:
Fluid or Secretions: Crackles often result from the presence of fluid or mucus in the airways or alveoli. This can occur due to:

Pneumonia: Inflammation and fluid accumulation in the lung tissue.
Heart Failure: Pulmonary edema, where fluid leaks into the alveoli due to heart problems.
Bronchitis: Inflammation and mucus production in the bronchi.
Atelectasis: When collapsed or partially collapsed alveoli re-open during inhalation, they can produce crackling sounds.

Interstital Lung Diseases: Conditions like pulmonary fibrosis can cause crackles due to scarring and inflammation of lung tissue.

95
Q

State the normal respiratory rate of an adult

A

12-20 Breaths per minute

96
Q

What are possible complications of the king LT tube?

A

-Laryngospasm, vomiting, and possible hypoventilation may occur.

-Trauma may also result from improper insertion technique.

-Ventilation may be diffi­cult if the pharyngeal balloon pushes the epiglottis over the glottic opening.

97
Q

What is the O2 percentage of room air?

A

20%

98
Q

What causes a Laryngospasm?

A

Irritation: Allergies, acid reflux, or infections can irritate the throat.

Stress: Anxiety can make muscles tense up.

Reflux: Stomach acid can irritate the throat.

Infections: Croup or bronchitis can cause throat irritation.

Allergies: Reactions to allergens can trigger spasms.

Voice Strain: Overusing your voice can lead to spasms.

Irritants: Smoke or strong smells can provoke a spasm.

Nerve Issues: Certain neurological conditions can affect muscle control.

99
Q

Why might an SPO2 reading not work?

A
  1. Nail Polish
  2. Ambulance Lights
  3. The patient is wet
  4. Poor perfusion
100
Q

Explain the function of pulse oximetry.

A

Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method used to measure the oxygen saturation level in a person’s blood. A pulse oximeter is usually a small clip that attaches to a fingertip, toe, or earlobe. It uses light sensors to measure the absorption of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

101
Q

What is the target spo2 range for patients with and without COPD?

A

Normal- 92-96
COPD- 88-92

102
Q

What are the contraindications of a supraglottic airway?

A

T- No trauma to the oropharynx
A- No airway obstructions
C- No caustic ingestion
K- No known esophageal diseases such as avarices

103
Q

Explain gastric distension and how it occurs.

A

Gastric distension is the condition where the stomach becomes overly stretched or inflated due to an accumulation of gas, food, or liquid. In terms of airway management it occurs when you are ventilating to the stomach instead of the lungs.

104
Q

What are the normal parameters for EtCo2?

A

35-45 mmhg

105
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle.

106
Q

What is alveolar air?

A

The volume or air that participates in gas exchange.

107
Q

Explain concentration gradients and its effect on internal and external respiration

A

Any substance has to move from an area of high to low they’re lazy, positive outside means inhale, and then its also the process of diffusion in the lungs.

108
Q

Differentiate between internal and external respiration

A

External respiration (pulmonary respiration)
Internal respiration (cellular respiration)

109
Q

What is diffusion?

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide moving across the concentration gradient in the lungs.

110
Q

What is perfusion?

A

The active process of your heart pumping blood through your body.

111
Q

Co2 and Hyperventilation

A

Occurs when carbon dioxide
elimination exceeds production.
 Hypocapnia
 Carpopedal Spam.
 BVM Ventilation

112
Q

Co2 and Hypoventilation

A

Occurs when carbon dioxide production
exceeds the body’s ability to eliminate it
by ventilation
 Hypercapnia

113
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Dyspnea is a term that we use whenever patient is having any difficulty with respiration. A really good test to determine how short of breath the patient is to get them to count to 10 during your assessment. Whatever number they stop at is how many word dyspnea that patient has. For example, if I had called 911 I was short of breath and you asked me to count to 10 and I only got to five then during your triage report and in your documentation, you would write that the patient has five-word dyspnea.

114
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

So by now, we should know that basic cellular anaerobic metabolism is when patients breathe in through their nose or their mouth. The oxygen is warmed and humidified and travels down the respiratory tree to the Alveoli. When oxygen gets to the Alveoli it is then diffused through the respiratory membrane and binds to hemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries, where carbon dioxide is diffused into the lungs to be be breathed off. The oxygen that is bound to the haemoglobin is going to travel through systemic circulation to the cells where it is going to offload the oxygen and pick up carbon dioxide and travel back to the lung to breathed off. If hypoxemia is low levels of oxygen in arterial blood, hypoxia is the result of the low level of oxygen in arterial blood. This means tissues and cells are not receiving adequate enough oxygen

115
Q

What is anoxia?

A

Anoxia is the detrimental effect of long-standing hypoxia. Anoxia is defined as the complete absence of oxygen at a tissue and cellular level. This means that death of a patient is imminent unless this problem is reversed and can be reversed through proper airway control, air management, and affected BVM ventilation

116
Q

What is Hypoxemia?

A

Hypoxemia is a term used to describe low levels of oxygen in arterial blood. It is not a condition or an illness, but rather a sign of a larger problem and will lead to what we call hypoxia.

117
Q

What is minute volume?

A

Total inhale and exhale in a minute.

118
Q

How is minute volume affected by hypo and hyper ventilation?

A

Hyperventilation is too shallow and quick, causes rapid blow off of co2, the rate of production of co2 is not equal to the amount being discarded, you become hypocarbic. The fingers and wrists will flex (carpal pedal flexion). Hypo is vice verse.

119
Q

Define Ligaments

A

Ligaments are strong, fibrous connective tissues that connect bones to other bones at joints. They provide stability and support to the skeletal system, helping to maintain proper alignment and range of motion. Ligaments are composed mainly of collagen fibers, which give them strength and flexibility. They play a crucial role in preventing excessive movement that could lead to injury.

120
Q

Define Tendons

A

Tendons are strong, fibrous connective tissues that attach muscles to bones. They play a crucial role in facilitating movement by transmitting the force generated by muscles to the skeletal system. Like ligaments, tendons are primarily composed of collagen fibers, which provide strength and flexibility. Tendons allow for a wide range of motion and are essential for activities such as walking, running, and lifting.

121
Q

Define the pleural space.

A

The pleural space is the thin gap between the two layers of the pleura, which are membranes that surround the lungs and line the chest cavity.

122
Q

Describe increased and decreased compliance in terms of artificial ventilation.

A

Increased Compliance: air can be forced into the lungs with relative ease
Decreased Compliance: suggests an upper or lower airway obstruction

123
Q

Define residual volume

A

Residual lung volume (RV) is the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a person has exhaled completely

124
Q

Define Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled from the lungs after a normal tidal expiration

125
Q

State the “Safe Residual Pressure for D and M tanks”

A

The safe residual pressure for “D” and “M” tanks, commonly used for medical gas storage, is typically set at around 200 psi

126
Q

Explain the function of EtCo2

A

End-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO2) refers to the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in exhaled air at the end of expiration.

127
Q

Define Hematopoiesis and where it occurs

A

Hematopoiesis is the process by which blood cells are formed, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It occurs in the bone marrow.

128
Q

How many ribs and pairs of ribs do humans have?

A

Humans typically have 24 ribs, arranged in 12 pairs

129
Q

What are false ribs?

A

Definition: False ribs are the 8th to 10th pairs of ribs (totaling three pairs).
Attachment: They do not attach directly to the sternum. Instead, their cartilage connects to the cartilage of the 7th rib, which then connects to the sternum.
Structure: They are still connected to the thoracic wall but are indirectly linked to the sternum.

130
Q

What are floating ribs?

A

Definition: Floating ribs are the 11th and 12th pairs of ribs (totaling two pairs).
Attachment: They are not attached to the sternum or to the cartilage of other ribs. Their only connection is to the thoracic vertebrae in the back.
Function: Floating ribs provide some protection to the kidneys but are more mobile and not as rigidly fixed as other ribs.

131
Q

State the 3 arteries that branch out of the aorta and the blood supply to the upper and lower extremities.

A

Subclavian, Brachial and Common Iliac

132
Q

How much blood can you lose from a pelvis fracture?

A

1,500ml-3,000ml

133
Q

How much blood can you lose from a femur fracture?

A

1,000ml-1,500ml

134
Q

Define Sagar Splint and state the formula for calculating traction

A

Its a traction splint for femurs. 1 pound of traction per 10 pounds of body weight, up tp 15lbs.

135
Q

Define speed splint

A

Hard piece of plastic than can be used to splint many joints.
Can be adjusted to splint different bones

135
Q

Define SAM splint

A

Hard, malleable splint that can be physically altered and adjusted to fit various patients’ anatomy

136
Q

State the contraindications of the SAGAR splint

A

Cannot be used on suspected pelvic or hip fractures

137
Q

Define pelvic binder and its location.

A

Used to splint a possible pelvic fracture.
Pressure over the Greater Trochanters

138
Q

What are the 6 P’s of musculoskeletal injuries?

A

Pain
Paralysis
Paraesthesias
Numbness and Tingling (Pins and Needles)
Pulselessness
Pallor
Pressure/Poikilothermia

139
Q

State the 3 overarching types of muscles that are located throughout the body and where you’re likely to find them.

A

Smooth- Lining the hollow insides of muscles
Cardiac- In the heart
Skeletal- Connect to bones and the skeletal systems

140
Q

What are the 8 functions of a joint?

A

Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
Rotation
Circumduction
Pronation
Supination

141
Q

What are the 5 types of bones

A

Long Bones
-Longer than wide
-Femur
-Humerus
Short Bones
-Nearly as wide as long
-Scaphoid Bone (Wrist)
Flat Bones
-Thin, broad
-Sternum
Irregular Bones
-Nonspecific shape
-Thoracic Vertebrae
Round/Sesamoid Bones
-Patella

142
Q

3 types of joints

A

Fibrous Joints:
Fibrous Joints are also referred to as fused joints because they allow for no movement. For example, the skull cannot move, therefore the various bones in the skull are ”fused” together by fibrous joints.

Cartilaginous Joints
Cartilaginous Joint, made of cartilage, allow for very minimal movement between bones. For example, the symphysis pubis in the pelvis and the connection between the ribs and sternum in the chest are cartilaginous joints.

Synovial
Synovial joints are the most moveable joints in the body. The synovial joints have a synovial membrane which contains cells that secretes synovial fluid which has been filtered our of blood plasma. The synovial fluid allows for the joints to move easily and acts as a lubricant.

143
Q

3 most common types of arthritis

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)
Degenerative wearing of cartilage.

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
Chronic, systemic, progressive, deterioration of joint connective tissue

Gout
Inflammation of joints produced by accumulation of uric acid crystals

144
Q

State and define all 8 types of fracture

A

Impacted
Spiral
Oblique
Transverse
Open
Closed
Hairline
Communited

145
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

Rhabdomyolysis is a serious medical condition characterized by the breakdown of damaged skeletal muscle tissue, leading to the release of muscle fibers and proteins (like myoglobin) into the bloodstream. Happens after a crush injury

146
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that occurs when a blood clot, usually from the legs (deep vein thrombosis, or DVT), travels to the lungs and blocks a pulmonary artery.

147
Q

Define Thromboembolic Disease

A

Thromboembolic disease refers to a condition in which blood clots (thrombi) form in a blood vessel and can break loose, traveling through the bloodstream to block another vessel (embolism). This can lead to serious complications depending on where the clot travels, such as:

Patient Care 1 (5 decks)

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