Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

• How many bones are in each portion of the foot? Total

A

Phalanges- 14
Metatarsal- 5
Tarsal-7
Total- 26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

• What area of the metatarsals is most frequently fx?

A

Proximal portion of the fifth metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

medial malleolus are found on

A

Tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lateral malleolus are found on

A

Fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

structure and movement type of the ankle joint.

A

Synovial joint and saddle (sellar) type movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

• how injuries of the MCL are often associated with the other ligaments and structures of the knee.

A

A tear of the MCL is frequently associated with a tear of the ACL and medial meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

• identify the purpose of a bursa ( articulate cavity )

A
  • is a complex saclike structure filled with a lubricating- type synovial fluid
  • largest joint space in the human body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

• Understand the difference of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion Pg. 223

A

Plantarflex - is pointing toe and foot down

dorsiflexion - being toes and feet up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where the patellar tendon attaches to

A

Tibial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Differences of the phalanges of the foot and hands

A

Phalanges of the foot is smaller and their movements are more limited than those of the hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is the base of the third metatarsal and tarsalmetatarsal joint so important

A

This is the centering point or CR location for AP and oblique foot projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is the sesamoid bone is always present

A

On the posterior or plantar surface at the head of the first metatarsal near the first MTP joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medial side ______ seamoid

A

Tibial seamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lateral side ________ seamoid

A

Fibular seamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common sites for bone spurs, which are sharp outgrowth of bones and painful on weight bearing

A

Tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Largest tendon

A

Achilles tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the calcareous bone which processes are smaller and larger

A

Largest - lateral process
Smallest- medial process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What means the support of the talus

A

Sustentaculum tali

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Calcaneous articulates with 2 bones

A

Anteriorly Cuboid and superiorly talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Middle articular facets provides

A

Provides medial support for important weight bearing joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What articulates with the three cuneiform and the talus

A

Navicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following projections of the patella requires the patient to be placed in a prone position, 50° to 60° flexion of the knee, and a 45° cephalic angle of the CR?

A

Hughston method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

geriatric patient comes to the radiology department for a study of the knee. The patient is unsteady and unsure of himself. Which intercondylar fossa projection would provide the best results without risk of injury to the patient?

A

Camp-Coventry method

24
Q
  1. A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of osteoarthritis of both knees. The referring physician wants a projection to evaluate the damage to the articular facets. Which of the following projections will provide the best image of this region of the knee?
A

PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method)

25
Q

How much knee flexion is required for the weight-bearing PA axial projection (Rosenberg method) of the knee?

A

45° flexion

26
Q

A radiograph of a PA axial projection for the intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry method) does not demonstrate the fossa well. It is foreshortened. The following positioning factors were used: patient prone, knee flexed 40° to 45°, CR angled to be perpendicular to the femur, 40-inch SID, and no rotation of the lower limb. Based on the factors used, what changes need to be made to produce a more diagnostic image?

A

CR must be perpendicular to lower leg.

27
Q

How much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella?

A

5° to 10°

28
Q

What CR angulation is recommended for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 18 cm

A

3° to 5° caudad

29
Q

For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be

A

perpendicular to the image receptor.

30
Q

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible transverse fracture of the patella. Which of the following routines would safely provide the best images of the patella

A

AP and horizontal beam lateral, no flexion of knee

31
Q

A radiographic appearance of a highly malignant and extensively destructive lesion that usually occurs in long bones and produces a sunburst pattern describes:

A

an osteogenic sarcoma.

32
Q

Which of the following knee projections requires the use of a special IR holding device?

A

Bilateral Merchant method

33
Q

Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the:

A

patellar surface.

34
Q

The patellofemoral joint is a ____ joint with a ____ type of movement.

A

synovial; saddle

35
Q

The best method of evaluating injuries to the menisci and ligaments of the knee joint involves

A

a magnetic resonance imaging procedure.

36
Q

The correct CR placement for an AP projection of the knee is midpatella. Torf

A

False

37
Q

The patella is drawn into the intercondylar sulcus when the knee is overextended.

A

False

38
Q

Which special position of the knee requires that the patient be placed supine with 40° flexion of the knee and the CR angled 30° from the long axis of the femur?

A

Bilateral Merchant method

39
Q

This radiograph represents which of the following positions?

A

Mediolateral projection of the knee, but underrotated toward the IR

40
Q

What is the recommended SID for the superoinferior sitting tangential (Hobbs modification) method?

A

48 to 50 inches (123 to 128 cm)

41
Q

Which tendon attaches directly to the tibial tuberosity?

A

Patellar

42
Q

A patient comes to radiology with a history of chondromalacia of the patella. The orthopedic surgeon is concerned about possible loose bodies within the patellofemoral joint space. She wants the best projection to demonstrate this joint space. What projection should be performed?

A

Merchant method

43
Q

The superoinferior, sitting tangential (Hobbs modification) projection for patellofemoral joint space requires a CR angle of 5° to 10° posterior. TorF

A

False

44
Q
  1. Saclike structures found in the knee joint that allow smooth articulation between ligaments and tendons are called
A

Bursae

45
Q

What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial weight-bearing bilateral knee projection (Rosenberg method)?

A

10° caudad

46
Q

A radiograph of a mediolateral projection of the patella reveals that the femoropatellar joint space is not open. The patella is within the intercondylar sulcus. The most likely cause of this is:

A

excessive flexion of the knee.

47
Q

The adductor tubercle is visible on the medial, posterior aspect of the femoral condyle and can be used to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee projection.TorF

A

True

48
Q

A patient enters radiology with a possible ligament tear to the lateral aspect of the ankle. Initial ankle radiographs are negative for fracture or dislocation. Because the clinic is in a rural setting, the patient cannot have an MRI performed to evaluate the ligaments of the ankle. Which of the following techniques may provide an assessment of the soft tissue structures of the ankle?

A

AP stress positions

49
Q

The profile appearance of the adductor tubercle and excessive superimposition of the fibular head and neck on a mediolateral knee projection indicate:

A

underrotation of the knee toward the IR

50
Q

A mediolateral knee radiograph that is overrotated toward the image receptor can be recognized by which of the following?

A

The fibular head will appear less superimposed by the tibia than a true lateral.

51
Q

A 3° to 5° caudad CR angle should be used for an AP knee projection for patients with an ASIS-to-tabletop measurement of 20 cm.TorF

A

False

52
Q

The disadvantage of the superoinferior sitting, tangential (Hobbs modification) method is that it requires acute flexion of the knee.

A

True

53
Q

A tear of the tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL) caused by a trauma injury is frequently associated with tears of:

A

the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the medial meniscus.

54
Q

A patient comes to the radiology department for a knee study with special interest in the region of the proximal tibiofibular joint and the lateral condyle of the tibia. Which of the following positioning routines should the technologist obtain?

A

AP, lateral, and medial oblique knee

55
Q

Which of the following projections of the patella requires the patient to be placed in a prone position, 50° to 60° flexion of the knee, and a 45° cephalic angle of the CR?

A

Hughston method