Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

of new cases of disease during a specified time interval {divided by} Population at risk at the start of the time interval

A

Incidence proption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are synonyms for incidence proportion?

A

Attack rate, risk, probability of developing disease, cumulative incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

of new cases among contacts {divided by} (total number of contacts)

A

secondary attack rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

of new cases of disease during a specified time interval {divided by} time each person was observed summed together

A

Incidence rate, aka person-time rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

of current cases at a certain point in time/total population at the time

A

point prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

of current cases at a certain point in time/ avg population

A

period prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

total # of deaths during a given time interval/mid-interval population

A

crude death rate, aka crude mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

of deaths assigned to a specific cause during a given time interval/ avg population

A

cause-specific mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

of deaths assigned to a specific cause during a certain time interval {divided by} the total # of deaths from all causes in the same time frame

A

proportionate mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

of deaths assigned to a specific cause during a given time interval {divided by} # of new cases of same disease during that time

A

Death-to-case ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

of deaths among children <28 days old in a certain time interval {divided by} # of live births in that time

A

neonatal mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

of deaths among children 28-364 days old during a certain time interval {divided by} # of live births during that same time

A

postneonatal mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

of deaths among children < 1 year during a given time interval / # of live births during that time

A

infant mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

of deaths assigned to pregnancy-related causes during a given time interval / # of live births during that time

A

maternal mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

of deaths in a particular age group / total # of people in the age group

A

age-specific mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

of deaths males OR females / total # of males OR females

A

sex-specific mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

of people infected / # of people exposed

A

infectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

of people who develop clinically apparent disease / # of people infected

A

pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

of people who die / # of people who develop clinically apparent disease

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(# case in exposed/total # exposed) - (#cases unexposed/total # unexposed)

A

Attributable Risk % (AKA attributable risk reduction ARR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

of events in control group/total # of control participants

A

Control Group Rate/Risk (CGR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

of events in experimental group/total # of experimental participants

A

Experimental Group Rate/Risk (EGR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Control Group Rate (CGR) - Experimental Group Rate (EGR)

A

Attributable Risk Reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EGR/CGR

A

Relative Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1) (CGR-EGR)/CGR
2) 1-(EGR/CGR)
3) 1-RR

*Note: all 3 formulas should give you the same result

A

Relative Risk Reduction (RRR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations and the application of this study to control of health problems

A

Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The cause of a disease

A

Etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Action taken to prevent the development of a disease in people who do not have the disease Examples: Vaccines, healthy behaviors, etc.

A

Primary Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Identifying people in whom a disease process has already begun but who have not yet developed clinical signs or symptoms of the disease (preclinical phase) Examples: Cancer screening, mammograms, etc.

A

Secondary Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Preventing complications in those who have already developed signs and symptoms of an illness and have been diagnosed (those in the clinical phase of illness) Examples: Cancer treatment, physical therapy, etc.

A

Tertiary Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

form of disease characterized by signs and symptoms

A

Clinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Signs and symptoms have not developed. Includes preclinical, subclinical, persistent, and latent disease.

A

Nonclinical (inapparent) disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Disease is not clinically apparent but is destined to progress to clinical disease

A

Preclinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Disease is not clinically apparent and is not destined to become clinically apparent. Diagnosed by serologic response or culture of the organism

A

Subclinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The habitual presence of a disease within a given geographic area

A

Endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The occurrence in a community or region of a group of illnesses of similar nature, clearly in excess of normal expectancy and derived from a common or a propagated source

A

Epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

type of exposure where cases arise from the same exposure; Example: food poisoning outbreak from bad chicken at a buffet

A

Common-vehicle exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The resistance of a group of people to an attack by a disease to which a large proportion of the members of the group are immune

A

Herd immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The interval from infection to the time of onset of clinical illness. Often measured as the time from exposure until the onset of clinical disease as it is difficult to determine the exact time of infection.

A

Incubation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A graph used to characterized the two primary types of outbreaks (common source and propagated). The y-axis is the number of cases and the x-axis is the date of onset each case patient. Note not all epidemics are common source or propagated- for example with some zoonotic or vector borne diseases.

A

Epidemic curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice closely integrated with the timely dissemination of these data to those who need to know

A

Epidemiologic surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Surveillance in which available data on reportable disease are used, or in which disease reporting is mandated or requested by the government or the local health authority, with the responsibility for the reporting often falling on the health care provider or district health officer. Provider initiated; less resource intensive. Also known as ‘passive reporting’

A

Passive surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who initiates passive surveillance?

A

providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A system in which staff are specifically contact providers or others to carry out a surveillance program. Often more accurate than passive. Health-department initiated; more resource intensive

A

Active surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who initiates active surveillance?

A

Health departments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Incidence calculated using a period of time during which all of the individuals in the population are considered to be at risk for the outcome.

A

Cumulative incidence proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The sum of the units of time that each individual was at risk and was observed. Often expressed in person-months or person-years.

A

Person-time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The number of affected persons present in the population at a specific time divided by the number of persons in the population at that time, aka proportion of the population is affected by the disease at that time

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Percentage of people who have a certain disease die within a certain time after the disease was diagnosed

A

Case fatality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A standard population is used in order to eliminate the effects of any differences in age between two or more populations being compared. Most commonly used method.

A

Direct age adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Used when numbers of deaths for each age-specific stratum are not available or in an occupationally exposed population.

A

Indirect age adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Changes seen are attributable to the characteristics of the particular ‘cohort’ under study, not the variable being studied.

A

Cohort effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Any empirical observation, whether systematically collected or not.

A

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A theory of knowledge that holds that the justification or reason of a belief is determined by the quality of the believer’s evidence for the belief

A

Evidentialism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

System of rating the quality of evidence and strength of recommendations that is explicit, comprehensive, and increasingly adopted by guideline organizations. Four levels (very low-high).

A

GRADE (Grading of Recommendations Assessment, development, and Evaluation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

These clinical questions are about physiology, pathology, epidemiology, and general management and are often asked by clinicians in training. The answers to background questions are often best found in textbooks or narrative review articles.

A

Background questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

These clinical questions are more commonly asked by seasoned clinicians. They are questions asked when browsing the literature (e.g., what important new information should I know to optimally treat my patients?) or when problem solving (e.g., defining specific questions raised in caring for patients and then consulting the literature to resolve these problems)

A

Foreground questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome. A method for answering clinical questions

A

PICO framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Determining the effect of interventions on patient-important outcomes (symptoms, function, morbidity, mortality, and costs)

A

Therapy (foreground clinical questions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ascertaining the effects of potentially harmful agents (including therapies from the first type of question) on patient-important outcomes

A

Harm (foreground clinical questions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In patients with a particular clinical presentation, establishing the frequency of the underlying disorders

A

Differential diagnosis (foreground clinical questions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Establishing the power of a test to differentiate between those with and without a target condition or disease

A

Diagnosis (foreground clinical questions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

includes many study designs that are not randomized such as cohort or case control studies where the exposure to the intervention or disease is not controlled by the researcher

A

Observational studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A method having established or widely accepted accuracy for determining a diagnosis that provides a standard to which a new screening or diagnostic test can be compared

A

Reference standard/Criterion Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The extent to which study results are subject to systematic error.

A

Risk of bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Studies that find patterns among populations among person, place, and time and are used to develop hypotheses to test

A

Descriptive studies

67
Q

Hypothesis-testing studies- answer the how and why

A

Analytic studies

68
Q

Descriptive study- a comprehensive, detailed description of one case under observation

A

Case reports

69
Q

Descriptive study- a comprehensive, detailed description of two or more cases under observation

A

Case series

70
Q

Descriptive study- A study of group characteristics; Studying a group of people (for example, everybody in Texas) rather than individuals

A

Ecological studies

71
Q

Descriptive study- one person trial; using the same person and comparing the outcome for the person before and after the intervention

A

N=1 studies

72
Q

Observational study- Two groups, one with the exposure and one without the exposure, are followed over time to determine the occurrence of disease in each group; can be prospective or retrospective. Exposure is measured BEFORE the outcome

A

Cohort study

73
Q

Observational study- Study involves two groups, one with the disease (cases) and one without the disease (controls), and compares the two groups in respect to previous exposures. Disease is measured BEFORE exposure

A

Case-control study

74
Q

Observational study- prevalence surveys in which exposure and disease status are assessed simultaneously among individuals in a well defined population

A

Cross-sectional study

75
Q

Experimental study- an experiment where the subjects are non-randomly assigned to (or offered) the exposure

A

Quasi-experimental study

76
Q

Categorical(qualitative)-Different categories with no specific rank or significance in rank; dichotomous (only two possible answers)

A

Nominal

77
Q

Categorical(qualitative)-Different categories with specific ranks or significance in rank/levels

A

Ordinal

78
Q

Continuous(quantitative)- numerical scale with a true zero point

A

Ratio

79
Q

Describe the characteristics of the sample of individuals that represent the population from which they came from; ratios, mean, standard deviation, etc.

A

Descriptive statistics

80
Q

Make inferences or predictions about the whole population from the sample taken of that population; p-values, confidence intervals, point estimates, etc.

A

Inferential statistics

81
Q

generating a hypothesis about a population parameter and then using sample statistics to assess the likelihood the hypothesis is true

A

Hypothesis (significance) testing

82
Q

What is the probability that the difference observed is due to chance?

A

P-value

83
Q

Concluding that there is a difference between two groups when there is not; False Positive

A

Type 1 Error

84
Q

Concluding that there is not a difference between two groups when there is a difference

A

Type 2 error

85
Q

Probability of saying there is a difference when there is in fact a difference between two groups; the likelihood of making the right decision

A

power

86
Q

What is the single value most likely to represent the true difference between experimental and control treatments?

A

point estimate

87
Q

Given the observed difference between experimental and control groups, what is the plausible range of differences within which the true difference might actually lie?

A

Confidence interval

88
Q

Assignment method which first stratifies the whole study population into subgroups with same attributes or characteristics then followed by simple random sampling from the stratified groups

A

Stratified randomization

89
Q

Patients are first randomized into two groups and then switched between the groups after a certain time period and again observed for a given time period

A

planned crossover

90
Q

In a planned crossover design, the effects from the first treatment the subjects are on may carry over and affect the subject during the second treatment

A

Carryover

91
Q

During the course of the study, patients may unexpectedly crossover to a different treatment group

A

Unplanned Crossover

92
Q

Examines how two or more variables (factors) predict or explain an outcome

A

Factorial Design

93
Q

The absolute difference (risk difference) in risks of harmful outcomes between experimental groups (experimental group risk [EGR]) and control groups (control group risk [CGR]); calculated as the risk of harmful outcome in the control group minus the risk of harmful outcome sin the experimental group (CGR-EGR); Used to describe a harmful exposure or intervention

A

Absolute risk reduction (ARR)/risk difference

94
Q

The degree to which the results of a study can be generalized to setting or samples other then the ones studied

A

Generalizable

95
Q

the number of patients who must receive an intervention of therapy during a specific period to prevent 1 adverse outcome or produce 1 positive outcome

A

Number needed to treat (NNT)

96
Q

Address whether the effect of an experimental intervention is not worse than a standard intervention by more than a specified margin

A

Noninferiority trials

97
Q

Trials that estimate treatment effects that exclude any patient-important superiority of interventions under evaluation; helpful when determining if one intervention is neither better nor worse than another

A

Equivalence trials

98
Q

The extent to which an instrument measures what it is intended to measure

A

validity

99
Q

Trials stopped early due to apparent harm because the investigators have concluded that they will not be able to demonstrate a treatment effect or because of apparent benefit

A

Truncated RCTs

100
Q

Experiment to determine the effect of an intervention or exposure on a single study participant; patient undergoes pairs of treatment periods organized so that 1 period involves the use of the experimental treatment and 1 period involves the use of an alternate treatment

A

N-of-1 Randomized Clinical Trials

101
Q

Does the treatment work under ideal, controlled conditions?

A

Efficacy

102
Q

Does the treatment work like it is supposed to in the real world?

A

Effectiveness

103
Q

Is the benefit of the treatment worth the cost?

A

Efficiency

104
Q

Proxy measures, outcomes that substitute for direct measures

A

Surrogate outcomes

105
Q

Aggregate measures that used in combination to measure the effect of a treatment; combination of multiple end points

A

Composite end points

106
Q

Determines the magnitude of increased benefit of the experimental intervention over the standard therapy on effectiveness outcomes

A

Superiority trial

107
Q

What’s the difference between descriptive and analytic epidemiology?

A

descriptive answers the WHO, WHAT, WHERE, WHEN, while analytic answers WHY and HOW

108
Q

What does subclinical mean?

A

it’s the same as asymptomatic- so there’s stuff going on inside you but no signs or symptoms

109
Q

What’s the difference between virulence and pathogenicity?

A

virulence is proportion of people who have a disease and then die, while pathogenicity is the proportion of infected people who then become sick

110
Q

What is surveillance (in the surveillance loop)

A

process of collecting data, analyzing the data, interpreting it, and disseminating the data

111
Q

What are the 5 essential activities of surveillance?

A

public health surveillance, field investigation, analytic studies, evaluation, and linkages

112
Q

Study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems

A

epidemiology

113
Q

What is the main purpose of epidemiology?

A

application of epidemiology to the control of health problems

114
Q

What are health determinants in the context of the definition of epidemiology?

A

upstream factors that affect health status such as poverty, SES, and any other predisposing factors

115
Q

Why is epidemiology important for healthcare providers?

A

Epi studies can help inform what we know about health issues, and what affects a population also affects an individual

116
Q

Source of epidemic where people are exposed to the same source over a brief period of time; # of cases rises rapidly and falls gradually and usually only one incubation period (ex. food poisoning)

A

point source

117
Q

Source of epidemic where people are exposed to the same source prolonged over a period of days, weeks, or longer; epidemic curve rises gradually and might plateau (ex. cholera in the Dr. John Snow case)

A

common continuous source

118
Q

What epidemic source is when it spreads from person to person? The epidemic curve has multiple peaks all one incubation period apart (ex. most infectious diseases, like measles)

A

propagated source

119
Q

What epidemic source is similar to common continuous source but the exposure is intermittent and the graph has multiple peaks? (ex. seen with contaminated food sold over a period of time)

A

common intermittent source

120
Q

What are the 5 purposes of epi surveillance?

A
  1. track conditions of PH importance
  2. Assess PH status
  3. Define PH priorities
  4. evaluate programs
  5. develop PH research
121
Q

What are the 4 types of PH surveillance?

A

active, passive, syndromic, and sentinel

122
Q

What is sentinel surveillance?

A

pre-arranged sample of healthcare providers or others who agree to report cases of a certain disease

123
Q

What is syndromic surveillance?

A

it’s dependent on a constellation of signs and symptoms vs lab criteria

124
Q

What is the most reliable type of surveillance?

A

active surveillance

125
Q

In PH surveillance, is it better for a test to be more sensitive or more specific?

A

more sensitive

126
Q

What is the application of test sensitivity?

A

SNout: if the test is highly SENSITIVE and the result is NEGATIVE, the disease can be ruled OUT

127
Q

What is the application of test specificity?

A

SPin- if the test is highly SPECIFIC and the result is POSITIVE then the disease can be ruled IN

128
Q

Incidence and prevalence are two measures of what?

A

frequency

129
Q

Formula for incidence rate

A

Total # of new cases/ total population at risk

130
Q

Formula for prevalence rate

A

all new and pre-existing cases/ total population

131
Q

When can mortality be used as a measure of risk?

A

When case fatality is high and duration is short

132
Q

What measure of mortality answers the question: What is the risk of death from disease X for this population?

A

Cause-specific mortality rate

133
Q

What measure of mortality answers the question: What proportion of cases of disease X are fatal?

A

Case fatality

134
Q

What measure of mortality answers the question: What proportion of all deaths is attributable to disease X?

A

Proportionate mortality rate

135
Q

The conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of individual patients

A

Evidence-based medicine

136
Q

5 steps of EBM

A

Ask, acquire, appraise, apply, act

“Shakers and Quakers parked their ship at Plymouth, actually”

137
Q

Errors in study design (bias and generalizability) can affect which steps of EBM?

A

appraisal and apply

138
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

Patient problem, intervention, comparison, outcome

139
Q

What is part of primary research?

A

Studies

140
Q

Synopses of studies, syntheses, synopses of syntheses, summaries, and systems are part of what kind of research?

A

secondary research

141
Q

Study when you’re just describing an interesting case or disease or presentation on a patient

A

case-report study

142
Q

Case-reports, case-series, ecologic studies, and one-person trials are all what group of studies?

A

descriptive studies

143
Q

study where participants are selected based on having an exposure or not, and then followed to see if they develop a certain outcome

A

prospective cohort study

144
Q

Study where participants are selected whether or not they have an outcome and then see which had a common exposure

A

case-control study

145
Q

Study where both the exposure and outcome are studied at the same time

A

cross-sectional study

146
Q

Difference between estimation and significance testing

A

Estimation provides both magnitude and direction of a possible assn, while significance testing doesn’t

147
Q

Power is affected by which 3 things?

A

sample size, alpha value, true effect

148
Q

testing where you’re interested in a difference between groups in one direction

A

one-sided test

149
Q

Does a one-sided or two-sided test need a larger sample size?

A

two-sided

150
Q

How well the study is measuring what it’s supposed to measure

A

validity

151
Q

Type of cross-over where each person is their own control case

A

planned cross-over

152
Q

Problems with planned cross-over

A

carry-over effect from the first treatment

153
Q

Type of cross-over where a person in one treatment switches to the other treatment at some point in the study

A

unplanned cross-over

154
Q

Treatment design to test the association between two or more treatments on an outcome

A

factorial design/multifactorial design

155
Q

What happens in the preclinical phase?

A

animal trials, potential risks are identified

156
Q

What happens in Phase 1 trials?

A

testing in small groups of humans, safety and dosage tested

157
Q

What happens in phase 2 trials?

A

more people are added and takes longer time. Testing efficacy

158
Q

What happens in phase 3 trials?

A

more people recruited, efficacy and side effects studied

159
Q

When does FDA review happen in a clinical trial?

A

between phase 3 and 4

160
Q

error due to the lack of precision in measuring an effect

A

random error

161
Q

3 criteria for determining confounding variables

A
  1. independent risk factor for the outcome
  2. associated w the exposure in source population
  3. the confounder is not an intermediate or in the causal pathway btw exposure and outcome
162
Q

In interpreting sample size adequacy with confidence intervals for a positive study, look at what?

A

the lower boundary

163
Q

In interpreting sample size adequacy with confidence intervals for a negative study, look at what?

A

the upper boundary

164
Q

What are the 4 steps of the PH loop in order?

A

collect, analyze, interpret, disseminate