Midterm Questions Flashcards

0
Q

Define anatomy:

A

The science of body structures and relationships among them.

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1
Q

Define histology.

A

The study of microscopic structure of tissues.

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2
Q

Define physiology:

A

The science body functions and how parts work.

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3
Q

____________ are the smallest units of matter that participate in chemical reactions, two or more of them are joined together to form ____________.

A

Atoms, molecules.

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4
Q

Metabolism/differentiation is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.

A

Metabolism.

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5
Q

A negative feedback system reverses/strengthens a change in a controlled condition. In the system, when blood pressure decreases the body will respond by causing changes to raise/decrease blood pressure.

A

Reverses, raise.

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6
Q

If the body is lying facedown, it is in the supine/prone position.
If the bodies lying face up, it is in the supine/prone position.

A

Prone, supine.

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7
Q

Which of the following are organs that belong to the dorsal cavity?
Spinal cord, urinary bladder, stomach, brain, heart.

A

The spinal cord and brain belong to the dorsal cavity.

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8
Q

Which of the following organs belong in the ventral cavity?

Spinal cord, urinary bladder, stomach, brain, heart.

A

The urinary bladder, stomach, and heart all belong in the ventral cavity.

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9
Q

What type of chemical bond forms when two or more Adams share electrons rather than gaining or losing them?

A

Covalent bond.

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10
Q

What is the function of the catalyst?

A

It lowers the amount of energy needed to start a reaction.

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11
Q

When an acid/base/salt dissociates in water, it will form cations and anions either of which is H+ or OH-.

A

Salt.

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12
Q

The pH scale is based on the concentration of hydrogen ion/hydroxide ions in a solution.

A

Hydrogen ions.

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13
Q

Describe the differences between DNA and RNA in terms of the number of strands.

A

DNA has two strands, RNA has one.

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14
Q

Define osmosis.

A

A type of diffusion in which there is net movement of a solvent through a selectively permeable membrane.

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15
Q

Water moves by osmosis across the plasma membrane from an area of higher/lower water concentration to an area of higher/lower water concentration.

A

Higher, lower.

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16
Q

Water moves by osmosis across plasma membrane from an area of lower/higher solute concentration to an area of lower/higher solute concentration.

A

Lower, higher.

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17
Q

In a hypertonic solution, the rupture of cells is called lysis/crenation.
In a hypertonic solution, the shrinkage of cells is called lysis/crenation.

A

Lysis, cremation.

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18
Q

What are the functions of ribosomes?

A

They are produced in the nucleolus, and they are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.

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19
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

They are also called breakdown bodies or suicide sacks.

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20
Q

What is the function of mitochondria in the cell?

A

They generate most of the ATP and are referred to as the powerhouses of the cell.

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21
Q

What is the function of smooth ER in the cell?

A

The site involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification of some drugs.

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22
Q

Genes are disbursed in the form of chromatin/chromosomes in non-dividing cells.

A

Chromatin.

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23
Q

True or false?

The nucleus is the control center of the cell.

A

True

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24
Q

During interphase/mitotic phase, the cell grows and replicates its DNA.

A

Interphase.

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25
Q

Mitosis/interphase/meiosis is the distribution of two sets of chromosomes into two separate nuclei; this nuclear division maintains the same number of chromosomes.

A

Mitosis.

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26
Q

Apoptosis/necrosis is the term for regulated, genetically programmed death.

A

Apoptosis.

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27
Q

Which tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed in the body? Epithelial/connective/nervous.

A

Connective tissue.

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28
Q

Which type of cell junctions functions and communication between adjacent cells?

A

Gap.

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29
Q

Epithelial tissue has its own nerve supply but his vascular/avascular relying on the blood vessels of the adjacent connected tissue to bring nutrients and remove waste.

A

Avascular.

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30
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue allows to diffusion of gases and nutrients?

A

Simple squamous.

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31
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue that lines the urinary bladder and parts of ureters and urethra where it permits the distention of the organs?

A

Transitional.

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32
Q

Endocrine/exocrine gland secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid and then diffuse directly into the bloodstream without flowing through duct.

A

Endocrine.

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33
Q

And the endocrine/exocrine gland secrete their products into ducts that empty onto the surface of the covering and lining epithelium such as the skins surface.

A

Exocrine.

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34
Q

Which type of fibers connective tissue forms the stroma in many soft organs?

A

Reticular fibers.

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35
Q

Vitamin C/vitamin D is needed for normal production and maintenance of connective tissue.

A

Vitamin C.

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36
Q

Cartilage is one type of connective tissue. Because cartilage is avascular, it is relatively inactive tissue that grows slowly and regeneration proceeds quickly/slowly.

A

Slowly.

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37
Q

Epithelia regenerate easily and well. True or false?

A

True.

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38
Q

The six functions of the integumentary system include:

A

Regulating body temperature, storing blood, protects the body from external environment, detects cutaneous sensations, excretes and absorbs substances, synthesizes vitamin D.

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39
Q

Which is not part of the skin?

Epidermis/dermis/subcutaneous layer

A

Subcutaneous layer.

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40
Q

About 90% of cells are __________; that is, they are three predominant cells in the epidermis.

A

kertinocytes.

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41
Q

List the five layers of thick skin from the most superficial to the deepest.

A

Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale.

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42
Q

Which layer is present in thick skin but not thin skin?

A

Stratum lucidum.

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43
Q

Which layer conscious on average of 25-30 layers of flattened, dead kertinosytes?

A

Stratum corneum.

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44
Q

How long does it take for the cells to form in the stratum basale, rise to the surface, become keratinized, and slough off?

A

4-6 weeks, or about a month.

45
Q

True or false:

The dermis is superficial to the epidermis.

A

False.

46
Q

True or false: the dermis is deep to the subcutaneous layer?

A

False.

47
Q

True or false: the dermis contains fibroblasts, macrophages, and a few adipocytes?

A

True.

48
Q

True or false: the dermis is avascular?

A

False.

49
Q

True or false: the dermis is divided into five layers?

A

False.

50
Q

Cyanotic means what?

A

Blue.

51
Q

jaundice means what?

A

Yellow.

52
Q

Erythema means what?

A

Red.

53
Q

Pallor means what?

A

Pale.

54
Q

What are considered to be accessory structures of the skin?

A

Nails and hair.

55
Q

Hair is not found where?

A

Palms, palmers surfaces of the fingers, the souls and plantar surfaces of the feet.

56
Q

Hair distribution is controlled by what?

A

Genetics and hormones.

57
Q

True or false: sebum primarily contains salts in carbohydrates

A

False.

58
Q

Sebum is a waxy substance produced by glands in the ear canal?

A

False.

59
Q

Sebum sebum is a watery secretion used to cool the body?

A

False.

60
Q

Sebum is produced by sebaceous glands?

A

True

61
Q

Sebum promotes evaporation of water from the skin?

A

False.

62
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are less humorous than apocrine sweat glands?

A

False

63
Q

Where can eccrine sweat glands be found?

A

Forehead, palms, and soles of feet.

64
Q

Eccrine sweat glands produce perspiration that contains mostly lipids?

A

False.

65
Q

The main function of eccrine sweat glands is to help regulate body temperature?

A

True.

66
Q

What do ceruminous glands produce?

A

Wax.

67
Q

What is released by the skin?

A

Heat, water, salt, urea and ammonia

68
Q

Which vitamin is needed for the proper mineralization of bones?

A

Vitamin D.

69
Q

Central nervous system includes:

A

The brain and spinal cord.

70
Q

Peripheral nervous system consists of all nervous tissue inside/outside the CNS.

A

Outside.

71
Q

Components of the PNS include:

A

Nerves, ganglia, enteric plexus, and sensory receptors.

72
Q

Which sensory neurons does the autonomic nervous system include?

A

Autonomic sensory receptors and neurons.

73
Q

Which motor neurons does the somatic nervous system include?

A

skeletal muscles.

74
Q

Which type of neuroglia form the myelin sheath around the axons in the PNS?

A

Schwan cells.

75
Q

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease characterized by the loss of myelin sheath?

A

True.

76
Q

True or false: ganglion are neuronal cell bodies in the PNS?

A

True.

77
Q

True or false: the nucleus is a neuronal cell body in the CNS?

A

True.

78
Q

True or false: nerves are the axons located in the PNS?

A

True.

79
Q

True or false: a tract is an axon located in the CNS?

A

True.

80
Q

White matter is composed of:

A

Myelinated axons.

81
Q

Gray matter is composed of:

A

unmyelinated axons.

82
Q

Sensory receptors/stimulus: is structure of the nervous system that response to environment changes.

A

Sensory receptors.

83
Q

Sensory receptors/stimulus: any changes in the environment that is able to initiate action potential.

A

Stimulus.

84
Q

What are the characteristics of continuous conduction?

A

Located in unmyelinated axons and muscle fibers, moves at a slower speed, and requires more energy.

85
Q

What are the characteristics of saltatory conduction?

A

Occurs in myelinated axon’s, has a faster speed, and requires less energy.

86
Q

Three factors that affect the speed of propagation are:

A

Amount of myelination; action potentials propagate faster along myelinated axons.
Diameter; action potentials propagate faster along larger diameter axons.
Temperature; action potentials propagate faster when cooled. I

87
Q

What is the first step to describe how a chemical synapse transmits a signal?

A

Step one: action potential arrives at presynaptic neurons end bulbs.

88
Q

What is the second step describing how a chemical synapse transmits a signal?

A

Step two: opening Ca2+ channels.

89
Q

Describe the third step in how a chemical synapse transmits a signal.

A

Step three: neurotransmitter exocytosed.

90
Q

Describe the fourth step in how a chemical synapse transmits a signal.

A

Step four: neurotransmitter binds to receptors on postsynaptic membrane.

91
Q

What is the fifth step in how a chemical synapse transmits a signal?

A

Step five: post synaptic action potential develops.

92
Q

A spinal nerve is also called a mixed nerve. Why?

A

The PRA contains sensory axons and AR contains motor axons.

93
Q

True or false: the connective tissue covering of nerve fibers are organized in a different manner to those of muscle fibers.

A

False.

94
Q

Define reflex.

A

A fast, involuntary, predictable sequence of axons in response to stimulus.

95
Q

What lies between medulla and midbrain?

A

Pons.

96
Q

What is not considered as a major part of the brain?

A

The hypothalamus, thalamus, and at epithalamus.

97
Q

What is able to pass freely through the blood brain barrier her?

A

Lipid soluble substances, small molecules, and most anesthetic agents.

98
Q

What is not able to pass through the blood brain barrier?

A

Proteins, large molecules, and most antibiotic drugs.

99
Q

What are the three basic functions of CSF?

A

Mechanical protection, homeostasis, and circulation.

100
Q

Through what is CFS reabsorbed into the blood?

A

Arachnoid villi, fingerlike extensions of the arachnoid Mater.

101
Q

What are the characteristics of Alpha waves?

A

They are found in a week adult with his eyes closed, or eyes open.

102
Q

Where do you see beta waves?

A

Beta waves are found in an adult taking a math exam.

103
Q

Where are delta waves found?

A

In sleeping adults.

104
Q

Is cerebrovascular accident is?

A

Also called a stroke or brain attack.

105
Q

Alzheimer’s disease is:

A

A disabling senile dementia.

106
Q

Parkinson’s disease is:

A

Caused by damage to basal nuclei.

107
Q

Most sympathetic/parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are adrenergic.

A

Sympathetic.

108
Q

an antagonist:

A

Blocks.

109
Q

An agonist:

A

Mimics.

110
Q

What is the sympathetic division responsible for?

A

Dilating the pupils, increasing the rate and force of heart contractions, fight or flight responses, slowing down the urine formation and digestive activities.

111
Q

What is the parasympathetic division responsible for?

A

Stimulates urine and defecation, stimulates salivation and lacremation, rest and digest responses.