Midterm PSY 235 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mitosis

A

Non sex cells duplicate of the original cell.

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2
Q

How many chromosomes are there

A

23 pairs

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3
Q

How do dominate genes work

A

if the alleles are different, the dominant gene will be expressed

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4
Q

What are Alleles

A

alternate versions of the same gene, which express characteristics. You receive one maternally, and one paternally.

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5
Q

How do recessive genes work

A

The person must have 2 copies of the recessive gene, for it to be expressed. although you’ll still have the recessive gene even if it is not expressed due to a dominant allele. You will still spread this recessive gene, through conception.

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6
Q

what is Homozygous?

A

means that you had received two of the same allele

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7
Q

What is heterozygous

A

When the alleles are different.

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8
Q

What is polygenic inheritance

A

Is the interaction of a variety of genes to create a larger theme, such as IQ

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9
Q

what is phenotype

A

is your genetic makeup mixed with the environment, hence why twins are different.

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10
Q

What is Genotype

A

genetic makeup of a person, both expressed and unexpressed genes

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11
Q

What is Multifactorial transmission

A

environmental factors modify how genes are expressed. to create complex traits.

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12
Q

what is epigenetics

A

genes are turned on or off based on environmental factors. also known as epigenesis

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13
Q

what is incomplete dominance

A

combination of both genes to express a trait. for example, if a person has one sicklecell allele, and one good one. you don’t have sickle-cell, but your cells aren’t perfectly round

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14
Q

what is sex-linked inheritance

A

because boys have an XY chromosome and girls have an XX chromosome there is different reactions that the mother can give. the mother can give a bad gene to a female but the father will give his good ‘copy’ to her as well, and that gene won’t be expressed. but because boys have one X. it means the mother has a 50/50 chance of giving the bad gene to the boy.

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15
Q

what is behavioral genetics

A

Quantitative study of heredity and environment influence on behavior.

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16
Q

what does Concordant mean

A

term describing twins sharing the same traits or disorders

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17
Q

what is Heritability

A

Statistical estimate on a given population estimating how much was genetic and or environment. expressed by a percentage 0.0 - 1.0. 1.0 means 100% genes are responsible for varying traits. 0 meaning environment

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18
Q

what is reaction range

A

potential variability in the expression of hereditary traits.

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19
Q

what does the metaphor canalization mean

A

The much more environmental factors are required to cause a difference. such as a rain storm and canal. the canal will only overflow with an immense amount of rain

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20
Q

what is a Genotype-environmental interaction

A

Refers to similar environmental factors on genetically different people. for example, one child might develop allergies and another not in the same environment

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21
Q

what is genotype-environment correlation, and name the 3 correlations

A

the environment often reflects or reinforces genetic differences.
1). Passive correlation: you inherit your parents genes but also their environment
2). reactive, or evocative correlations: parents who do not have that genetic interest will see the child is interested and further pursue it for them, letting them grow.
3). Active correlation: as the child gets older they will select experiences themselves according to their genetics

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22
Q

what is niche-picking

A

the tendency for after early childhood to seek out environments compatible with their genotype

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23
Q

what are nonshared environmental effects

A

siblings that live in the same environment but have different environmental effects. such as a parent might react differently to a child with a closer genetic makeup than the other.

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24
Q

what determines temperament and personality

A

some temperament factors like shyness are genetic but are heavily reinforced by other environmental factors

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25
Q

is schizophrenia genetic or environmental

A

it’s both, based on studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins. although its 60-80% heritability range

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26
Q

what is gestation

A

the period of development between conception and birth

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27
Q

what is gestation age

A

age of the unborn baby, usually dated by the first day of the expectant mothers last menstrual cycle

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28
Q

How does culture affect beliefs about prenatal development

A

different cultures react differently to prenatal development, but most prohibit, or encourage different foods from being eaten

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29
Q

what is Cephalocaudal principle

A

the principle that development proceeds head to tail. upper body develops before lower body

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30
Q

what is the proximodistal principle

A

development occurs within to without, near the center before the extremities

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31
Q

what is germinal stage

A

first two weeks of prenatal development, characterized by mitosis, blastocyst formation, and implantation into the uterine wall

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32
Q

what is implantation

A

when the blastocyst implants into the uterine wall, this implant location, determines placenta placement

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33
Q

what is a blastocyst

A

while the Ovum is dividing, it travels down the fallopian tube to the uterus, and changes form to a blastocyst, a fluid-filled sphere, which floats freely in the uterus until the 6th day, when it implants itself to the uterine wall.

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34
Q

what does the placenta do

A

allows oxygen, nourishment, and wastes to pass between mother and embryo

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35
Q

what is the amniotic sac

A

is a fluid-filled membrane that encases the embryo, protecting it, and giving room to grow.

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36
Q

what is the embryonic stage, and how long does it last

A

its the second stage of gestation 2-8 weeks. characterized by rapid growth, and development to major systems and organs

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37
Q

what is spontaneous abortions

A

natural expulsion of the embryo, that could not have survived outside the womb. also called a miscarriage. 80% occur when the mother is not aware they are pregnant

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38
Q

what is the fetal stage, and how long does it last

A

8 week to birth. The final stage of gestation, is characterized by differentiation in body parts and greatly enlarged body size.

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39
Q

what is a teratogen

A

is an environmental agent, such as a virus, drug, or radiation. that interferes with normal development

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40
Q

How does stress effect the fetus

A

moderate stress can have good benefits such as improved neurological development. although heavy stress and causes newborns to have irritable temperaments, emotional negativity, and impulsivity

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41
Q

what are dizygotic twins

A

are fraternal twins, two separate eggs being released into and sharing the same womb. genetically siblings

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42
Q

what are monozygotic twins

A

cleaving of one fertile egg, and are genetically identical.

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43
Q

what is the human genome.

A

complete sequence of genes in the human body

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44
Q

What is human development

A

scientific process of change, and stability in the human life span

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45
Q

what is life-span development

A

concept of human development as a lifelong process

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46
Q

what are the domains of development

A

Physical
Cognitive
Psychosocial

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47
Q

what is a social construction

A

an invention of a certain culture, which seems obvious inside the culture but really isn’t outside

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48
Q

is childhood a social construction?

A

yes

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49
Q

what are the 8 periods of human development, and ages, in order

A

Prenatal/ Conception to birth
Infancy, toddlerhood/ birth-3yr
early childhood/3-6
middle childhood/ 6-11
adolescence/ 11-20
young adult/ 20-40
middle adult/40-65
late adult/65+

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50
Q

what is a nuclear family

A

two-generational kinship, household, 2 parents and their children

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51
Q

what is an extended family

A

multigenerational kinship, grandmas, moms, other relatives in one household

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52
Q

what is intersectionality

A

an analytical framework focused on multiple identities combined to create differences in privilege and discrimination

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53
Q

what is ethnic gloss

A

overgeneralization the blurs differences

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54
Q

what is normative influences

A

many people will experience the same event

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55
Q

what is non-normative

A

unusual events that had a major impact

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56
Q

what are the 7 principles of life-span development

A

Development is lifelong
development is multidimensional
development is multidirectional
relative influences of biology and culture shift over the lifespan
development involves resource allocations to change
development shows plasticity
development is influenced by historic and cultural context

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57
Q

what does it mean when they say “stage” in research

A

if the development occurs continually or in stages

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58
Q

what is the mechanistic model in research.

A

model that views human development as a series of predictable responses to stimuli

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59
Q

what is organismic model in research

A

views human development as an active approach that the individual initiates, and occurring qualitatively different stages

60
Q

what is a quantitative study

A

measures objective data

61
Q

what is a qualitative study

A

focuses on non-numerical data, such as subjective experiences, feelings, beliefs

62
Q

what are the 5 major theoretical perspectives

A

psychoanalytical,
learning
cognitive
contextual
evolutionary/biological

63
Q

what is the psychoanalytical perspective, and who’s theory is this

A

a view that unconscious forces motivate human behavior (we now know as genetics) it was created by Sigmund Freud

64
Q

what is psychosocial theory, and who does this theory belong to

A

personality is developed through society and crises. by Erikson

65
Q

What is the learning perspective

A

that the individual learns through experience or adaption of environments.

66
Q

what is Behaviorism theory, and by whom

A

a theory that we learn just like animals, through pain and pleasure. reaction to our environment. by the evil Pavlov

67
Q

what is the social learning theory and by whom made it

A

like behaviorism, but reacts bidirectional. meaning the person acts on the world as the world acts on the person by Albert Bandura

68
Q

what is the cognitive-stage theory, and who came up with it

A

theory that children cognitive development advances in a series of four stages. made by Jean Piaget
Adaption
assimilation
accommodation
equilibration

69
Q

what is cognitive perspective.

A

view that thought processes are central to development

70
Q

what is Sociocultural theory and by whom came up with it

A

children learn collaboratively through social interaction, and shared activities. made by Vygotsky

71
Q

what is zone of proximal development

A

the difference between what the child can do alone and what they need help with.

72
Q

what is the contextual perspective

A

sees the individual person, inseparable from social context

73
Q

what is bioecological theory, and by whom made it

A

defines 5 different levels of environmental influence. made by bronfenbrenner

74
Q

what are the layers of bioecological theory

A

Microsystem
mesosystm
exosystem
macrosystem
chronosystem

75
Q

what is the evolutionary/ sociobiological perspective and by whom made it

A

focuses on human behavior as a evolutionary, biological base. influenced by Darwin

76
Q

what is evolutionary psychology

A

the application of Darwins theory, in which natural selection and survival of the fittest, to test behavior

77
Q

what is ethology

A

study of behaviors of species or animals that evolved to increase survival

78
Q

what is WEIRD

A

western, educated, industrialized, rich, democratic.

79
Q

what are 4 types of data collection

A

Self report
natural observation
lab observation
behavioral and performance measures

80
Q

what are 4 basic research designs

A

Case study
ethnographic study
correlational study
experiment

81
Q

what is a case study

A

studies a single individual

82
Q

what is a ethnographic study

A

in depth study of culture

83
Q

what is correlational study

A

research design to see if there is a statistical relationship between variables

84
Q

what is an experiment

A

a controlled procedure, which manipulates variable, must be able to be replicated

85
Q

what is independent variable

A

a variable that you have direct control of

86
Q

what is a dependent variable

A

the variable may or may not change as a result of change in the independent variable

87
Q

what is a cross-sectional study

A

a study relating to age related differences, where people of different ages are assessed one time

88
Q

what is a longitudinal study

A

study designed to assess age changes in a sample over time

89
Q

what is a sequential study

A

a study that combines both cross-sectional and longitudinal

90
Q

why is diversity an issue in research

A

because we want to know the human condition, its hard when immense bias is placed due to lack of diversity

91
Q

what is the reproducibility crisis in social sciences

A

the raising issue that research in social science cannot be easily replicated and when done so, half of the 100 studies they tested didnt hold true.

92
Q

what is the open science movement

A

open science movement is the movement to allow all forms of society to access research

93
Q

what is parturition

A

the act or process of giving birth, typically 2 weeks before delivery,in 3 stages.
dialation
expulsion
delivery of the placenta

94
Q

Why is the united states seeing an uptick in maternal death, rather than down

A

likely due to obesity, maternal age, c-sections, and preexisting conditions

95
Q

what is two things that changed to reduce risk of death, in modern times.

A

the amount of deliveries in hospitals, from 5% in 1920, to now 98.6% . and results froim safe anesthesia, improved hygiene, drugs to induce labor

96
Q

what is electronic fetal monitoring EFM

A

a sensor attached to the mothers midsection and held in place with an electric belt. monitors heart rate

97
Q

what are the 3 stages of labor

A

baby positions itself( head down)
baby begins to emerge
placenta is expelled

98
Q

what is natural childbirth?

A

A method that seeks to reduce pain by eliminating mothers’ fear through education, and training.

99
Q

what is prepared childbirth?

A

method of childbirth that uses instructions, breathing exercises, and social support to induce controlled reactions to contractions and reduce fear and pain

100
Q

who is a doula

A

an experienced mentor, coach or helper who furnishes emotional support and information during labor

101
Q

what are some risks of Cesarean delivery

A

lead to significant risk of complications, bleeding uterine rupture. and increased risk for future pregnancies

102
Q

what are positives about Cesarean delivery

A

reduce the risk of urinary incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse

103
Q

what is pelvic organ prolapse

A

where a weakened muscle allows one or more of the pelvic organs to drop into or press out of the vagina

104
Q

what is Urinary incontinence

A

The loss of bladder control

105
Q

when is the neonatal period

A

the first 4 weeks of life

106
Q

what is witch’s milk

A

a secretion that leaks from neonates breasts around the 3rd day of life

107
Q

what is anoxia

A

lack of oxygen which may cause brain damage

108
Q

what is neonatal jaundice

A

the skin and eyeballs appear yellow, because of the immaturity of the liver, not being able to filter out bilirubin

109
Q

what is the Apgar scale, and what is the max points, and points at different stages

A

10 points. A scale they use after birth, one minute then 5 minutes to assess color, pulse, grimace,, activity, and respiration. score of 10 is perfectly find, score of 5-7 means they need help breathing, score below 4 means the baby needs immediate lifesaving treatment.

110
Q

what is the Brazelton neonatal behavioral assessment scale (NBAS)

A

neurological and behavioral test to measure neonates response to environment

111
Q

What are states of arousal in infancy

A

Regular sleep
Irregular sleep
drowsiness
alert inactivity
waking activity

112
Q

what is regular sleep in terms of states of arousal

A

regular sleep: no eye movement, breathing regular and slow, on movement minus sudden startles, cannot be stimulated by mild stimuli

113
Q

what is irregular sleep in terms of states of arousal

A

occasional REM( rapid eye movement), irregular breathing, twitching but no major movement, responds to sounds or lights.

114
Q

what is drowsiness state of arousal

A

eyes are open or closed, irregular breathing, somewhat active, may smile, startle, suck or have erections in response to stimuli

115
Q

what is alert activity in states of arousal

A

eyes are open, breathing is even, movement is quiet, may move head, limbs or trunk, interested in environment with people and things to watch

116
Q

what is waking activity state of arousal

A

eyes are open, breathing is irregular, much activity, external stimuli brings more activity, perhaps starting with gentle movements to crying, kicking or thrashing

117
Q

what are some differences in sleep patterns for different cultures

A

in america, most parents spend a great amount of time trying to sooth their baby to sleep, but in others they let the baby sleep whenever. bed time also changes drastically throughout cultures

118
Q

what is a preterm infant

A

infant born before 37 weeks of gestation

119
Q

what are small-to-date infants

A

infants who weight 90% less than others of the same gestation age

120
Q

what is kangaroo care

A

skin to skin contact where the neonate is placed face down between the breasts for an hour or so after birth

121
Q

what is postmaturity

A

a fetus not yet born 2 weeks after due date. or 42 weeks

122
Q

what is stillbirth

A

sudden death of a fetus after 20 weeks of gestation

123
Q

what is SIDS

A

Sudden infant death syndrome

124
Q

why is there such large racial disparities in infant death

A

because of SES, marital status, health care access, food and housing insecurity, and the experience of racism and discrimination

125
Q

why does low income countries accept vaccines more than rich countries

A

because rich countries have dealt with the virus/disease and it is forgotten to the public, so they dont believe they need to take a risk. poor countries often see the devastation of these viruses so are much more willing

126
Q

in terms of growth, what happens at age 3-4 months

A

infant begin grabbing everything in site and goes right in their mouth(teething)

127
Q

in terms of growth, what happens at age 5-9 months

A

first tooth

128
Q

in terms of growth, what happens at 1yr old

A

6-8 teeth

129
Q

in terms of growth, what happens at 2 1/2 yr

A

all 20 teeth

130
Q

when should you introduce babies to solid foods

A

no earlier than 6 months, should be a only breastmilk diet

131
Q

what is the central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

132
Q

what is lateralization

A

tendency of each brain hemisphere to have specialized function

133
Q

how many estimated major reflexs do infants have

A

27

134
Q

why do reflexes go away after a little bit in toddlers

A

it’s a sign the motor pathways in the cortex have been partially myelinated

135
Q

does the fetus feel pain

A

yes

136
Q

how does food effect amniotic fluid, and breast milk

A

it reflects the flavors of what the mother eats, so the baby will develop a taste for these

137
Q

how long does it take a baby to get full vision

A

8 months

138
Q

at what distance is the babies best vision

A

1 foot away, until 4 weeks

139
Q

do infants prefer to look at attractive people?

A

yes

140
Q

what is system of action

A

increasingly complex combinations of motor skills

141
Q

what is the Denver developmental screening test

A

screening given to 1 month - 6 years old, to determine if they are developing normally

142
Q

what does the Denver developmental screening test, actually test?

A

gross motor skills, and fine motor skills

143
Q

what is haptic perception

A

ability to acquire information by handing items

144
Q

what is ecological theory of perception and by whom made it

A

Gibson. Describes development motor and perceptual abilities as interdependent parts. guiding behavior in varying context,such as they view things as objectives, there is no pychological parts, and is based on failure to act properly or acting properly

145
Q

what is dynamic systems theory. DST and by whom made it

A

Esthar thelen. are self regulating variables, and processes. which combine to spontaneously achieve a stable state of equilibrium. for example, a child sees you poor a wide short glass into a tall long skinny glass. at firs the child will think it’s increasing in quanitity but seeingit multiple times will change the childs mind. so they see the variables

146
Q

how does culture effect motor development.

A

it can slow or increase development based on if different cultures coddle the baby or encourage them to build strength and skills

147
Q
A