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PHCOL 402 > Midterm I > Flashcards

Midterm I Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is (are) therapeutic uses of Botulinum Toxin:
A. Treatment of dystonias
B. Treatment of hyperhidrosis
C. Elimination of facial wrinkles
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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2
Q

Desensitization of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors occurs when:
A. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes membrane depolarizations which synergize with acetylcholine binding to the receptor to close the channel.
B. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse results in degradation of acetylcholine by acetylcholine esterase.
C. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes degradation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.
D. None of the above

A

A. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes membrane depolarizations which synergize with acetylcholine binding to the receptor to close the channel

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3
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Gallamine
C. Pancuronium
D. Succinylcholine
A

D. Succinylcholine

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4
Q 
Which catecholamines are released from the adrenal medulla?
A. Norepinephrine and Epinephrine
B. Epinephrine and Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine and Dopamine
D. Epinephrine and Isoproterenol
A

A. Norepinephrine and Epinephrine

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5
Q 
Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) is the major neurotransmitter released at postganglionic sympathetic synapses with the exception of:
A. Heart muscle
B. Vascular smooth muscle
C. Respiratory smooth muscle
D. Sweat glands
A

D. Sweat glands

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6
Q 
The major neurotransmitter released pre-synaptically in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia is:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
A

A. Acetylcholine

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7
Q

If blood pressure is too high, autonomic reflexes mediated through barrel receptors:
A. Increase parasympathetic activity to the heart and decrease sympathetic activity to the heart.
B. Increase sympathetic activity to the heart and decreases parasympathetic activity to the heart.
C. Increase heart rate and stimulate contraction of vascular smooth muscle.
D. None of the above.

A

A. Increase parasympathetic activity to the heart and decrease sympathetic activity to the heart.

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8
Q

cAMP causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle because it:
A. It stimulates release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.
B. It stimulates the generation of IP3.
C. It inhibits the activity of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).
D. It blocks the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

C. It inhibits the activity of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)

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9
Q

Tyramine and Amphetamine:
A. Inhibit the release of norepinephrine.
B. Stimulate the release of norepinephrine.
C. Have cocaine like activity.
D. None of the above

A

B. Stimulate the release of norepinephrine.

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10
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a non-selective, non-covalent, alpha-adrenergic antagonist?
A. Dibenamine
B. Phenoxybenzamine
C. Yohimbine
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

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11
Q

Prazosin is superior to phentolamine for treatment of hypertension because:
A. Phentolamine is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.
B. Prazosin is an alpha-2 specific adrenergic antagonist.
C. Prazosin is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.
D. Phentolamine is an alpha-2 specific adrenergic antagonist

A

C. Prazosin is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.

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12
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a beta-1 specific antagonist?
A. Propranolol
B. Practolol
C. Timolol
D. Pindolol
A

B. Practolol

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13
Q

Reserpine:
A. Inhibits the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles.
B. Stimulates the release of presynaptic norepinephrine.
C. Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine from the synapse.
D. Inhibits the release of presynaptic norepinephrine.

A

A. Inhibits the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles.

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14
Q 
Clonidine lowers blood pressure because:
A. It is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist.
B. It decreases sympathetic output.
C. It lowers presynaptic cAMP at adrenergic synapses.
D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

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15
Q

Norepinephrine stimulates contraction of vascular smooth muscle because:
A. It activates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.
B. It stimulates the production of IP3
C. It stimulates the release of free calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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16
Q

Fenoldopam is superior to dopamine for depression of blood pressure because:
A. Fenoldopam is specific for beta-1 adrenergic receptors.
B. Fenoldopam is specific for beta -2 adrenergic receptors.
C. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-2 receptors.
D. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-1 receptors.

A

D. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-1 receptors

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17
Q 
Cardiac output can be quantified as:
A. Afterload
B. Left Ventricular End Diastolic Volume
C. Preload
D. Stroke Volume x Heart Rate
A

D. Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

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18
Q 
A vasodilator used to provide rapid relief of acute angina symptoms is:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Digoxin
A

C. Nitroglycerin

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19
Q 
Angina symptoms can be managed with prophylactic use of selective β1-adrenergic receptor
antagonists such as:
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Losartan
A

A. Metoprolol

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20
Q 
This cardiac selective Ca2+ channel antagonist represents a viable therapeutic option for some angina patients.
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Furosemide
D. Amiloride
A

B. Verapamil

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21
Q

Furosemide produces a rapid and efficacious diuresis through antagonizing the actions of the:
A. Na+Cl- co-transporter in the nephron proximal convoluted tubule
B. Na+Cl- co-transporter in the nephron distal convoluted tubule
C. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron loop of Henle
D. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron proximal convoluted tubule

A

C. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron loop of Henle

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22
Q 
One of the most frequently observed side effects that occurs with thiazide diuretic use is:
A. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
D. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
A

A. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

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23
Q 
Cardiac glycosides are positive inotropic agents used to treat symptoms of congestive heart failure by
antagonizing:
A. Na+Cl- co-transporter
B. Na+K+ ATPase
C. Na+Ca2+ anti-porter
D. L-type Ca2+ channel
A

B. Na+K+ ATPase

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24
Q 
A K+ sparing diuretic that has been observed to prolong lifespan in congestive heart failure patients is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Spironolactone
A

D. Spironolactone

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25
Q 
Acute decompensated heart failure is treatable with which of the following agents?
A. Dobutamine
B. Metoprolol
C. Losartan
D. Ambrisentan
A

A. Dobutamine

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26
Q 
This agent used to treat acute decompensated heart failure increases cardiomyocyte cAMP levels by blocking phosphodiesterase type III:
A. Hydralazine
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Amiloride
D. Amrinone
A

D. Amrinone

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27
Q 
Angiotensin-converting enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of:
A. Renin into angiotensinogen
B. Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
C. Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II
D. Angiotensin II into Angiotensin III
A

C. Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II

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28
Q 
Which drug blocks the actions of angiotensin II via antagonizing the angiotensin II type I receptor?
A. Captopril
B. Aliskiren
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
A

C. Losartan

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29
Q 
Ambrisentan is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension by acting as a:
A. Endothelin-A receptor agonist
B. Endothelin-A receptor antagonist
C. Endothelin-B receptor agonist
D. Endothelin-B receptor antagonist
A

B. Endothelin-A receptor antagonist

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30
Q 
This anti-hypertensive functions by selectively antagonizing L-type Ca2+ channels in vascular tissues
(blood vessels):
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Clonidine
D. Prazosin
A

A. Nifedipine

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31
Q 
α1-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like prazosin, are limited in their usefulness for treating hypertension because of this common side effect:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Bronchospasm
A

B. Orthostatic hypotension

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32
Q 
Which of the following anti-hypertensives is a mixed adrenergic receptor antagonist that is commonly used to treat pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Nifedipine
A

C. Labetalol

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33
Q

In the electrocardiogram, the QRS complex corresponds to:
A. initiation of the atrial action potential
B. the time for conduction of the action potential through the AV node
C. the duration of the ventricular action potential
D. the beginning of the ventricular action potential

A

D. the beginning of the ventricular action potential

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34
Q 
The slow point for conduction of the action potential through the heart is:
A. the atria
B. the Bundle of His
C. the atrio-ventricular node
D. the Purkinje fibers
A

C. the atrio-ventricular node

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35
Q 
Reentrant excitation from the AV node is a common cause of:
A. supraventricular tachycardia
B. AV block
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. ventricular fibrillation
A

A. supraventricular tachycardia

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36
Q 
A drug that is used for treatment of atrial arrhythmias and blocks both sodium and potassium channels at therapeutic doses is:
A. procainamide
B. lidocaine
C. amiodarone
D. verapamil
A

C. amiodarone

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37
Q

Class IA and Class IB antiarrhythmic drugs differ most with respect to:
A. molecular target
B. effect on action potential duration
C. use in therapy of ventricular arrhythmias
D. frequency-dependent block

A

B. effect on action potential duration

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38
Q 
Chronic treatment of atrial arrhythmias would most likely include which of the following drugs:
A. verapamil
B. nifedipine
C. lidocaine
D. procainamide
A

A. verapamil

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39
Q

Adenosine is effective in converting atrial arrhythmias to sinus rhythm because:
A. it inhibits adenylyl cyclase and reduces cAMP
B. it inhibits calcium channels
C. it activates inwardly rectifying potassium channels
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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40
Q

Calcium channel blockers are used in treatment of:
A. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. angina pectoris
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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41
Q

Which of the following statements concerning Botulinus Toxin is true?
A. Botulinus toxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
B. Botulinus toxin is used to treat muscle spasms.
C. Botulinus toxin is used to eliminate facial wrinkles.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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42
Q 
Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Gallamine
C. Succinyl choline
D. Edrophonium
A

C. Succinyl choline

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43
Q

DFP (diisoproplyflurophosphate):
A. Phosphorylates the active site serine of acetylcholine esterase.
B. Phosphorylates the active site glutamic acid of acetylcholine esterase.
C. Carbamylates the active site glutamate of acetylcholine esterase.
D. None of the above

A

A. Phosphorylates the active site serine of acetylcholine esterase.

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44
Q

Chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla:
A. Release a mixture of epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to activation of
muscarinic receptors on chromaffin cells.
B. Release a mixture of epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on chromaffin cells.
C. Release a mixture of acetylcholine and epinephrine in response to activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on chromaffin cells.
D. None of the above.

A

B. Release a mixture of epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on chromaffin cells.

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45
Q 
Postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system release what neurotransmitter onto target cells?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. None of the above.
A

D. None of the above.

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46
Q 
Parasympathetic stimulation of the sphincter muscle of the iris causes:
A. No effect.
B. Miosis
C. Mydriasis
D. A decrease in lens curvature.
A

B. Miosis

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47
Q

Activation of M3 muscarinic receptors in blood vessels causes:
A. Increases in NO in the blood vessel.
B. Activation of guanylyl cyclase in vascular smooth muscle.
C. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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48
Q

The main mechanism for termination of synaptic transmission at adrenergic synapses is by:
A. Inhibition of aromatic-L-amino acid decarboxylase.
B. Activation of norepinephrine deaminase.
C. Transport of norepinephrine back into the presynaptic terminal.
D. Diffusion of norepinephrine away from the synapse

A

C. Transport of norepinephrine back into the presynaptic terminal.

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49
Q

Activation of presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors at adrenergic synapses causes.
A. Increased release of norepinephrine.
B. Inhibition of norepinephrine synthesis.
C. Activation of monoamine oxidase.
D. Decreased release of norepinephrine.

A

D. Decreased release of norepinephrine.

50
Q 
The order of potency for alpha-adrenergic receptors is:
A. NE > E >> Iso
B. Iso > NE>> E
C. E > Iso >> NE
D. E > NE >> Iso
A

D. E > NE&raquo_space; Iso

51
Q

Baroreceptors:
A. Are present in the carotid sinus and aortic arch.
B. Mediate decreases in sympathetic activity when blood pressure is too high.
C. Mediate decreases in parasympathetic activity when blood pressure is too low.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

52
Q 
Which of the following are beta-2 selective adrenergic agonists?
A. Tyramine
B. Phentolamine
C. Yohimbine
D. Albuterol
A

D. Albuterol

53
Q

cAMP relaxes vascular smooth muscle by:
A. Inhibition of MLCK (myosin light chain kinase).
B. Stimulation of PLC (phospholipase C).
C. Stimulation of Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Activation of the G protein Gi.

A

A. Inhibition of MLCK ( myosin light chain kinase).

54
Q

Amphetamine:
A. Inhibits the release of pre-synaptic norepinephrine.
B. Acts directly on alpha-1 receptors.
C. Acts directly on alpha-2-receptors.
D. Stimulates the release of pre-synaptic norepinephrine.

A

D. Stimulates the release of pre-synaptic norepinephrine.

55
Q

Abrupt discontinuation of propranolol is not recommended because?
A. Long-term treatment with propranolol leads to a decrease in beta-adrenergic receptors in heart muscle.
B. Long-term treatment with propranolol leads to increases in alpha-1 adrenergic receptors is heart muscle.
C. Long-term treatment with propranolol leads to increases in alpha-2 adrenergic receptors is heart muscle.
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

56
Q

Reserpine blocks adrenergic activity because it:
A. Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase.
B. Inhibits the uptake of norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic terminal.
C. Inhibits the release of norepinephrine into the synaptic cleft.
D. Inhibits the transport of dopa and norepinephrine into synaptic vesicles.

A

D. Inhibits the transport of dopa and norepinephrine into synaptic vesicles.

57
Q 
Alpha-methyl dopa is effective for treatment of hypertension because it:
A. Is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist.
B. It is an alpha-1-adrenergic agonist.
C. It is a beta-1 specific antagonist.
D. It is a beta-1 specific agonist.
A

A. Is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist.

58
Q 
Choline esters:
A. Increase peristalsis.
B. Stimulate the urinary tract
C. Cause bronchial constriction
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

59
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the vascular normally causes vasoconstriction but sometimes causes relaxation of skeletal muscle vascular depending on:
A. The relative amount of beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors present in the
vasculature.
B. The relative amount of muscarinic and beta-adrenergic receptors present in the
vasculature.
C. The relative amount of muscarinic and alpha-adrenergic receptors present in the
vasculature.
D. The relative amount of alpha-1 and alpha- 2 adrenergic receptors present in the vasculature.

A

A. The relative amount of beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors present in the
vasculature.

60
Q 
Ganglionic blockers cause:
A. Bradycardia
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Increased tone and motility in the Gi Tract
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

61
Q 
The portion of the heart that electrically separates the atria from the ventricles is the:
A. Sinoatrial node
B. Atrioventricular (AV) node
C. Mitral valve
D. Purkinje Fibers
A

B. Atrioventricular (AV) node

62
Q

Which of the following best defines the term AFTERLOAD?
A. The small group of cells that generate spontaneous action potentials in the right atrium
B. Left ventricular end diastolic volume during diastole
C. The total peripheral resistance against which the ventricles pump blood
D. Venous return into the right ventricle

A

C. The total peripheral resistance against which the ventricles pump blood

63
Q

A common side effect of the nitric oxide donors/nitrovasodilators is:
A. Dry cough
B. Delayed afterdepolarizations
C. Falling asleep during Dr. Hague’s lectures
D. Hypotension

A

D. Hypotension

64
Q 
Which anti-anginal medication is LEAST likely to cause excessive cardiac
depression/bradycardia?
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Metoprolol
D. Propranolol
A

A. Nifedipine

65
Q 
Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat acute decompensated heart failure?
A. Metoprolol
B. Dobutamine
C. Prazosin
D. Clonidine
A

B. Dobutamine

66
Q 
Which of the following drugs has therapeutic index of ~2 ?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Propranolol
C. Mannitol
D. Digoxin
A

D. Digoxin

67
Q

Metoprolol is thought to be efficacious for the treatment of congestive heart failure because:
A. Metoprolol inhibits renin release from juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney
B. Metoprolol antagonizes angiotensin II receptors
C. Metoprolol antagonizes α1-adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle
D. Metoprolol inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

A. Metoprolol inhibits renin release from juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney

68
Q 
The nephron site of action for the thiazide diuretics is the:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Cortical collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
A

B. Distal convoluted tubule

69
Q 
Hypokalemia is a potentially lethal side-effect of several diuretics. Which of the following drugs can be used to offset diuretic-induced hypokalemia?
A. Mannitol
B. Furosemide
C. Propranolol
D. Spironolactone
A

D. Spironolactone

70
Q 
Loop diuretics, like furosemide, increase salt and H2O excretion by inhibiting which of the following proteins?
A. Na+/Cl- co-transporter (NCC)
B. Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter (NKCC2)
C. Epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC)
D. V2 vasopressin receptor
A

B. Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter (NKCC2)

71
Q 
Visual disturbances (i.e. hallucinations, yellow halos) are commonly observed with toxic doses of:
A. Verapamil
B. Digoxin
C. Prazosin
D. Captopril
A

B. Digoxin

72
Q

The dry, persistent cough observed in patients taking angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is thought to be a direct result of:
A. Increased vasopressin activity
B. Enhanced renin release
C. Inhibiting bradykinin degradation by ACE
D. Antagonizing angiotensin II type 2 (AT2) receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells

A

C. Inhibiting bradykinin degradation by ACE

73
Q

Carvedilol and labetalol are classified as mixed adrenergic receptor ligands because:
A. They selectively antagonize the β3-adrenergic receptor
B. They activate L-type Ca2+ channels
C. They selectively activate α1-adrenergic receptors
D. They antagonize both β- and α1-adrenergic receptors

A

D. They antagonize both β- and α1-adrenergic receptors

74
Q 
Which of the following drugs, used in the treatment of hypertension and congestive heart failure, functions by selectively antagonizing angiotensin-II type I receptors?
A. Losartan
B. Captopril
C. Furosemide
D. Tolvaptan
A

A. Losartan

75
Q 
Which of the following drugs is routinely used to treat edema in congestive heart failure patients?
A. Losartan
B. Metoprolol
C. Furosemide
D. Dobutamine
A

C. Furosemide

76
Q 
Acetazolamide exerts a diuretic effect by inhibiting:
A. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Na+/Cl- co-transporter (NCC)
C. Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter (NKCC2)
D. V2 vasopressin receptor
A

A. Carbonic anhydrase

77
Q

The molecular mechanism of action of spironolactone involves:
A. Direct activation of the NCC Na+/Cl- co-transporter
B. Non-competitive antagonism of the glucocorticoid receptor
C. Direct inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase
D. Competitive antagonism of the mineralocorticoid aldosterone receptor

A

D. Competitive antagonism of the mineralocorticoid aldosterone receptor

78
Q 
A potential side-effect of the anti-hypertensive prazosin is:
A. Bradykinin-induced cough
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Night terrors
D. Ototoxicity
A

B. Orthostatic hypotension

79
Q

Ambrisentan is though to be an efficacious therapeutic for pulmonary hypertension due to:
A. Antagonizing Endothelin-A (ET-A) receptors
B. Inhibiting angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme
C. Antagonizing Angiotensin-II type I (AT1) receptors
D. Blocking renin release from the kidney

A

A. Antagonizing Endothelin-A (ET-A) receptors

80
Q 
A potential side-effect of thiazide diuretic use includes:
A. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
D. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
A

D. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

81
Q 
Which of the following is (are) therapeutic uses of Botulinum Toxin:
A. Treatment of dystonias
B. Treatment of hyperhidrosis
C. Elimination of facial wrinkles
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

82
Q

Desensitization of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors occurs when:
A. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes membrane depolarizations which synergize with acetylcholine binding to the receptor to close the channel.
B. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse results in degradation of acetylcholine by
acetylcholine esterase.
C. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes degradation of nicotinic
acetylcholine receptors.
D. None of the above.

A

A. The continued presence of acetylcholine at the synapse causes membrane depolarizations which synergize with acetylcholine binding to the receptor to close the channel.

83
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
A. d-Tubocurarine
B. Gallamine
C. Pancuronium
D. Succinylcholine
A

D. Succinylcholine

84
Q 
Which catecholamines are released from the adrenal medulla?
A. Norepinephrine and Epinephrine
B. Epinephrine and Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine and Dopamine
D. Epinephrine and Isoproterenol
A

A. Norepinephrine and Epinephrine

85
Q 
Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) is the major neurotransmitter released at postganglionic sympathetic synapses with the exception of:
A. Heart muscle
B. Vascular smooth muscle
C. Respiratory smooth muscle
D. Sweat glands
A

D. Sweat glands

86
Q 
The major neurotransmitter released pre-synaptically in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia is:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Epinephrine
A

A. Acetylcholine

87
Q

If blood pressure is too high, autonomic reflexes mediated through barrel receptors:
A. Increase parasympathetic activity to the heart and decrease sympathetic activity to the heart.
B. Increase sympathetic activity to the heart and decreases parasympathetic activity to the heart.
C. Increase heart rate and stimulate contraction of vascular smooth muscle.
D. None of the above.

A

A. Increase parasympathetic activity to the heart and decrease sympathetic activity to the heart.

88
Q

cAMP causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle because it:
A. It stimulates release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.
B. It stimulates the generation of IP3.
C. It inhibits the activity of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).
D. It blocks the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.

A

C. It inhibits the activity of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK).

89
Q

Tyramine and Amphetamine:
A. Inhibit the release of norepinephrine.
B. Stimulate the release of norepinephrine.
C. Have cocaine like activity.
D. None of the above

A

B. Stimulate the release of norepinephrine.

90
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a non-selective, non-covalent, alpha-adrenergic antagonist?
A. Dibenamine
B. Phenoxybenzamine
C. Yohimbine
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

91
Q

Prazosin is superior to phentolamine for treatment of hypertension because:
A. Phentolamine is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.
B. Prazosin is an alpha-2 specific adrenergic antagonist.
C. Prazosin is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.
D. Phentolamine is an alpha-2 specific adrenergic antagonist.

A

C. Prazosin is an alpha-1 specific adrenergic antagonist.

92
Q 
Which of the following drugs is a beta-1 specific antagonist?
A. Propranolol
B. Practolol
C. Timolol
D. Pindolol
A

B. Practolol

93
Q

Reserpine:
A. Inhibits the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles.
B. Stimulates the release of presynaptic norepinephrine.
C. Inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine from the synapse.
D. Inhibits the release of presynaptic norepinephrine.

A

A. Inhibits the uptake of dopamine into synaptic vesicles.

94
Q 
Clonidine lowers blood pressure because:
A. It is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist.
B. It decreases sympathetic output.
C. It lowers presynaptic cAMP at adrenergic synapses.
D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

95
Q

Norepinephrine stimulates contraction of vascular smooth muscle because:
A. It activates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.
B. It stimulates the production of IP3
C. It stimulates the release of free calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

96
Q

Fenoldopam is superior to dopamine for depression of blood pressure because:
A. Fenoldopam is specific for beta-1 adrenergic receptors.
B. Fenoldopam is specific for beta -2 adrenergic receptors.
C. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-2 receptors.
D. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-1 receptors.

A

D. Fenoldopam is specific for dopamine-1 receptors.

97
Q 
Cardiac output can be quantified as:
A. Afterload
B. Left Ventricular End Diastolic Volume
C. Preload
D. Stroke Volume x Heart Rate
A

D. Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

98
Q 
A vasodilator used to provide rapid relief of acute angina symptoms is:
A. Furosemide
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Digoxin
A

C. Nitroglycerin

99
Q 
Angina symptoms can be managed with prophylactic use of selective β1-adrenergic receptor antagonists such as:
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Carvedilol
D. Losartan
A

A. Metoprolol

100
Q 
This cardiac selective Ca2+ channel antagonist represents a viable therapeutic option for some angina patients.
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Furosemide
D. Amiloride
A

B. Verapamil

101
Q

Furosemide produces a rapid and efficacious diuresis through antagonizing the actions of the:
A. Na+Cl- co-transporter in the nephron proximal convoluted tubule
B. Na+Cl- co-transporter in the nephron distal convoluted tubule
C. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron loop of Henle
D. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron proximal convoluted tubule

A

C. N+K+2Cl- co-transporter in the nephron loop of Henle

102
Q 
One of the most frequently observed side effects that occurs with thiazide diuretic use is:
A. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
D. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
A

A. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

103
Q 
Cardiac glycosides are positive inotropic agents used to treat symptoms of congestive heart failure by antagonizing:
A. Na+Cl- co-transporter
B. Na+K+ ATPase
C. Na+Ca2+ anti-porter
D. L-type Ca2+ channel
A

B. Na+K+ ATPase

104
Q 
A K+ sparing diuretic that has been observed to prolong lifespan in congestive heart failure patients is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Acetazolamide
D. Spironolactone
A

D. Spironolactone

105
Q 
Acute decompensated heart failure is treatable with which of the following agents?
A. Dobutamine
B. Metoprolol
C. Losartan
D. Ambrisentan
A

A. Dobutamine

106
Q 
This agent used to treat acute decompensated heart failure increases cardiomyocyte cAMP levels by blocking phosphodiesterase type III:
A. Hydralazine
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Amiloride
D. Amrinone
A

D. Amrinone

107
Q 
Angiotensin-converting enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of:
A. Renin into angiotensinogen
B. Angiotensinogen into angiotensin I
C. Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II
D. Angiotensin II into Angiotensin III
A

C. Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II

108
Q 
Which drug blocks the actions of angiotensin II via antagonizing the angiotensin II type I receptor?
A. Captopril
B. Aliskiren
C. Losartan
D. Spironolactone
A

C. Losartan

109
Q 
Ambrisentan is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension by acting as a:
A. Endothelin-A receptor agonist
B. Endothelin-A receptor antagonist
C. Endothelin-B receptor agonist
D. Endothelin-B receptor antagonist
A

B. Endothelin-A receptor antagonist

110
Q 
This anti-hypertensive functions by selectively antagonizing L-type Ca2+ channels in vascular tissues (blood vessels):
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Clonidine
D. Prazosin
A

A. Nifedipine

111
Q 
α1-adrenergic receptor antagonists, like prazosin, are limited in their usefulness for treating hypertension because of this common side effect:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Bronchospasm
A

B. Orthostatic hypotension

112
Q 
Which of the following anti-hypertensives is a mixed adrenergic receptor antagonist that is commonly used to treat pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Nifedipine
A

C. Labetalol

113
Q

In the electrocardiogram, the QRS complex corresponds to:
A. initiation of the atrial action potential
B. the time for conduction of the action potential through the AV node
C. the duration of the ventricular action potential
D. the beginning of the ventricular action potential

A

D. the beginning of the ventricular action potential

114
Q 
The slow point for conduction of the action potential through the heart is:
A. the atria
B. the Bundle of His
C. the atrio-ventricular node
D. the Purkinje fibers
A

C. the atrio-ventricular node

115
Q 
Reentrant excitation from the AV node is a common cause of:
A. supraventricular tachycardia
B. AV block
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. ventricular fibrillation
A

A. supraventricular tachycardia

116
Q 
A drug that is used for treatment of atrial arrhythmias and blocks both sodium and potassium channels at therapeutic doses is:
A. procainamide
B. lidocaine
C. amiodarone
D. verapamil
A

C. amiodarone

117
Q

Class IA and Class IB antiarrhythmic drugs differ most with respect to:
A. molecular target
B. effect on action potential duration
C. use in therapy of ventricular arrhythmias
D. frequency-dependent block

A

B. effect on action potential duration

118
Q 
Chronic treatment of atrial arrhythmias would most likely include which of the following drugs:
A. verapamil
B. nifedipine
C. lidocaine
D. procainamide
A

A. verapamil

119
Q

Adenosine is effective in converting atrial arrhythmias to sinus rhythm because:
A. it inhibits adenylyl cyclase and reduces cAMP
B. it inhibits calcium channels
C. it activates inwardly rectifying potassium channels
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

120
Q

Calcium channel blockers are used in treatment of:
A. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
B. hypertension
C. angina pectoris
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

PHCOL 402 (5 decks)

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