Midterm Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which adjustment in the physical environment should the nurse make to promote the success of an interview?

A

The nurse should secure a quiet environment, turning off distractions such as the TV or Radio. Pt and nurse should be 4-5ft apart in a well lit room with equal status seating and eye level.

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2
Q

During an assessment of a patient’s family history, the nurse constructs a genogram. What is a genogram?

A

A genogram (or pedigree) is a graphic family tree that uses symbols to depict the gender, relationship, and age of immediate blood relatives in at least three generations (parents, grandparents, siblings).

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3
Q

he nurse is obtaining a history from a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient?

A

Health promotion refers to activities that promote a person’s health. For a man that includes the performance of testicular self-examinations.

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4
Q

What is the most important step that the nurse can take to prevent the transmission of microorganisms in the hospital setting?

A

The most important step to decrease the risk for microorganism transmission is to wash hands promptly and thoroughly before and after physical contact with each patient. Stethoscopes should also be cleansed with an alcohol swab before and after each patient contact. The best routine is to combine stethoscope rubbing with hand hygiene each time hand hygiene is performed.

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5
Q

When would you use Standard Precautions in the health care setting?

A

Standard Precautions are designed to reduce the risk for transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources and are intended for use for all patients, regardless of their risk or presumed infection status.

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6
Q

What information obtained by the nurse regarding a patient’s skin should the nurse record in the patient’s health history?

A

Anything that is subjective, such as patient denies any color change, whatever the person says about him or herself. Objective data would be location, size etc-anything that the nurse observed.

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7
Q

When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, what is the guidance?

A

The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the circumference of the person’s arm. The length of the bladder should equal 80% of this circumference.

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8
Q

Which technique is correct when the nurse is assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

a. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6, if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

b. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4, if the rhythm is regular.

c. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.

d. Palpate for 1 minute, if the rhythm is irregular.

A

Palpate for 1 minute, if the rhythm is irregular.

Research suggests that the 30-second interval multiplied by 2 is a more accurate and efficient technique when heart rates are normal or rapid and when rhythms are regular, then the 15-seconds interval multiplied by 4 as any one beat error in counting results in an error of 4 beats/minute. If the rhythm is irregular, then the pulse is counted for 1 full minute.

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9
Q

When planning a cultural assessment, the nurse should include which component?

A

Health-related beliefs and practices are one component of a cultural assessment.

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10
Q

During a seminar on cultural aspects of nursing, the nurse recognizes that the definition stating “the specific and distinct knowledge, beliefs, customs, and skills acquired by members of a society” reflects which term?

A

The culture that develops in any given society is unique, encompassing all of the knowledge, beliefs, customs, and skills acquired by members of the society.

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11
Q

What are norms?

A

Norms refer to the typical or normal

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12
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

Ethnicity refers to a social group that may possess shared traits, such as common geographic origin, migratory status, religion, language, values, traditions, or symbols and food preferences.

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13
Q

What is assimilation?

A

Assimilation refers to taking on the characteristics of the dominant culture.

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14
Q

he nurse is comparing the concepts of religion and spirituality. Which statement describes an appropriate component of one’s spirituality?

a. Attendance at a specific church or place of worship

b. Belief in and the worship of God or gods

c. A connection with something larger than oneself and belief in transcendence

d. Being closely tied to one’s ethnic background

A

Spirituality refers to a connection with something larger than oneself and a belief in transcendence. The other responses do not apply to spirituality. Belief in and the worship of God or gods and attendance at a specific church or place of worship apply to religion. Being closely tied to one’s ethnic background is not a concept of spirituality or religion.

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15
Q

The clinic nurse is caring for a patient who has been coming to the clinic weekly for blood pressure checks since she changed medications 2 months ago. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

a. Ask the patient to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.

b. Check the patient’s blood pressure.

c. Obtain a complete health history on the patient before checking her blood pressure.

d. Collect a follow-up database and then check the patient’s blood pressure.

A

Collect a follow-up database and then check the patient’s blood pressure.

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16
Q

What is a general survey?

A

The general survey is a study of the whole person that includes observing the patient’s physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. Interpreting subjective data is not part of the general survey.

Measuring the patient’s vital signs (temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure) and observing specific body systems while performing a physical assessment are part of the physical examination, not the general survey.

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17
Q

A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, nauseous, and “feels hot.” What type of assessment data is this?

A

Subjective data is what the person says about him or herself during history taking.

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18
Q

What is objective data?

A

Objective data is what the health professional observes by inspecting, percussing, palpating, and auscultating during the physical examination

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19
Q

When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
a. Severely abnormal vital signs

b. Low self-esteem

c. Lack of knowledge

d. Abnormal laboratory values

A

d. Abnormal laboratory values

Second-level priority problems are those that require prompt intervention to forestall further deterioration (e.g., mental status change, acute pain, abnormal laboratory values, risks to safety or security).

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20
Q

What are third-level priority problems?

A

Low self-esteem and lack of knowledge are considered third-level priority as although they are important to a patient’s health, they can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed

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21
Q

What data should the nurse collect during the interview portion of a health assessment?

A

Subjective

The interview is the first, and really the most important, part of data collection. During the interview, the nurse collects subjective data; that is, what the person says about him or herself.

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22
Q

What type of data is collected during the physical portion of the health assessment?

A

Physical data/Objective Data

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23
Q

During an interview, the nurse states, “You mentioned having shortness of breath. Tell me more about that.” Which verbal skill is used with this statement?

A

Open-ended question

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24
Q

Why should a nurse used open ended questions?

A

Open-ended questions ask for narrative information and give the patient free rein. They state the topic to be discussed but only in general terms, which is what the statement in this question does.

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25
Q

When should a nurse use open ended questions during an interview?

A

The nurse should use open-ended questions to begin the interview, to introduce a new section of questions, and whenever the person introduces a new topic.

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26
Q

A patient’s blood pressure is 118/82 mm Hg. He asks the nurse, “What do the numbers mean?” Which is the best reply by the nurse?

A

The top number is the systolic blood pressure and reflects the pressure of the blood against the arteries when the heart contracts.”

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27
Q

What is systolic pressure?

A

The systolic pressure is the maximum pressure felt on the artery during left ventricular contraction, or systole.

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28
Q

What is diastolic pressure?

A

The diastolic pressure is the elastic recoil, or resting, pressure that the blood constantly exerts in between each contraction.

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29
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

Stroke volume is a term used in cardiovascular physiology to refer to the amount of blood pumped by the heart with each beat.

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30
Q

How is stroke volume determined?

A

Stroke volume is determined by the volume of blood that enters the heart’s ventricles during diastole (the filling phase of the cardiac cycle) and the amount of blood that is ejected from the ventricles during systole (the pumping phase of the cardiac cycle).

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31
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output is a term used to describe the volume of blood that is pumped by the heart in a given time period, usually expressed as liters per minute.

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32
Q

When auscultating the blood pressure of a 25-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the phase I Korotkoff sounds begin at 200 mm Hg. At 100 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds muffle. At 92 mm Hg, the Korotkoff sounds disappear. How should the nurse record this patient’s blood pressure?

A

200/92

In adults, the last audible sound best indicates the diastolic pressure. When a variance is greater than 10 to 12 mm Hg between phases IV and V, both phases should be recorded along with the systolic reading (e.g., 142/98/80).

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33
Q

A patient is seen in the clinic for complaints of “fainting episodes that started last week.” How should the nurse proceed with the examination?

A

His blood pressure is recorded in the lying, sitting, and standing positions.

If the person is known to have hypertension, is taking antihypertensive medications, or reports a history of fainting or syncope, then the blood pressure reading and pulse should be taken in three positions: lying, sitting, and standing. This is called orthostatic, or postural, vital signs.

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34
Q

During an assessment, the nurse notes that the patient’s apical impulse is laterally displaced and is palpable over a wide area. What does this finding indicate?

A

Volume overload, as in heart failure or cardiomyopathy

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35
Q

What effect does volume overload have on the heart?

A

With volume overload, as in heart failure and cardiomyopathy, cardiac enlargement laterally displaces the apical impulse and is palpable over a wider area when left ventricular hypertrophy and dilation are present.

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36
Q

A thrill in the second and third right interspaces indicates?

A

systemic hypertension and aortic stenosis

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37
Q

A thrill in the second and third left interspaces indicates?

A

pulmonic hypertension

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38
Q

A bruit heard while auscultating the carotid artery of a 65-year-old patient is caused by?

A

turbulent blood flow through the carotid artery.

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39
Q

What is a carotid bruit?

A

A carotid bruit is a blowing, swishing sound indicating blood flow turbulence. A bruit indicates atherosclerotic narrowing of the vessel.

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40
Q

The student nurse demonstrates correct technique in using the stethoscope to auscultate heart sounds when he/she does which of the following?

a.Makes sure earpieces fit snugly and are pointed to their nose.

b.Uses the bell to detect higher pitched sounds.

c.Performs assessment while the patient is watching television.

d.Auscultates in only 4 locations.

A

a.Makes sure earpieces fit snugly and are pointed to their nose.

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41
Q

What are the different uses for the diaphram and bell of the stethoscope?

A

The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used for higher pitched sounds and the bell for lower pitched sounds

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42
Q

The nurse is preparing to teach a class on cardiovascular assessment. When explaining a thrill, what should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

A vibration that is palpable

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43
Q

What is a thrill?

A

A thrill is a palpable vibration that signifies turbulent blood flow and accompanies loud murmurs.

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44
Q

The absence of a thrill does not rule out what?

A

The absence of a thrill does not rule out the presence of a murmur.

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45
Q

During an assessment of a 68-year-old man with a recent onset of right-sided weakness, the nurse hears a blowing, swishing sound with the bell of the stethoscope over the left carotid artery. What does this finding indicate?

A

A bruit

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46
Q

During an assessment of a healthy adult, where would the nurse expect to palpate the apical impulse?

A

The apical impulse should occupy only one intercostal space, the fourth or fifth, and it should be at or medial to the midclavicular line.

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47
Q

During a skin assessment, the nurse notices that a patient has skin that is yellowish-brown; however, the skin on the hard and soft palate is pink and the patient’s scleras are white. From these findings, what can the nurse rule out?
a.Pallor

b.Cyanosis

c.Iron deficiency

d.Jaundice

A

Jaundice

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48
Q

What is jaundice and were is it observed?

A

Jaundice is exhibited by a yellow color of the skin and mucous membranes, which indicates rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Jaundice is first noticed in the junction of the hard and soft palate in the mouth and in the scleras.

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49
Q

What is pallor?

A

Pallor occurs when the red-pink tones from oxygenated Hb are lost and the skin takes on the color of the connective tissue (collagen) which is mostly white.

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50
Q

What can an iron deficiency due to the nails?

A

Iron deficiency can cause nails with a concave (spoon-like) shape.

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51
Q

A 52-year-old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it has slowly grown larger. The nurse suspects which condition?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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52
Q

What is the most common form of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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53
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma?

A

Basal cell carcinoma usually starts as a skin-colored papule that develops rounded, pearly borders with a central red ulcer.

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54
Q

How does acne present?

A

Acne presents as pustules (turbid fluid filled cavities) that are circumscribed and elevated

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55
Q

How does melanoma present?

A

Melanoma usually presents as brown (but can be other colors) lesions with irregular or notched borders and may have a flaking, scaling, or oozing texture

56
Q

How does squamous cell carcinoma present?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma present as an erythematous (superficial reddening of the skin) scaly patch with sharp margins, 1 cm or more.

57
Q

A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. What is the best response by the nurse?

A

Refer the patient because of the suggestion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms.

58
Q

What is the method for diagnosing melanoma?

A

The ABCD danger signs. In addition, individuals may report a change in size, the development of itching, burning, and bleeding, or a new-pigmented lesion

59
Q

What are the ABCD danger signs?

A

asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter

60
Q

A 45-year-old farmer comes in for a skin evaluation and complains of hair loss on his head. His hair seems to be breaking off in patches, and he notices some scaling on his head. What does the nurse suspect?

A

Tinea capitis

61
Q

What is Tinea Capitis?

A

Tinea capitis is rounded patchy hair loss on the scalp, leaving broken-off hairs, pustules, and scales on the skin, and is caused by a fungal infection.

62
Q

What is Folliculitis?

A

Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles which causes a pustule with a hair visible in the center.

63
Q

What is allopecia?

A

Alopecia areata is clearly demarcated and round or oval patcges of hair loss.

64
Q

What is seborrheic dermatitis

A

Seborrheic dermatitis (cradle cap) is thick, yellow-to-white, greasy adherent scales with mild erythema on the scalp and forehead which is very common in early infancy.

65
Q

A patient has had a “terrible itch” for several months that he has been continuously scratching. What might the nurse expect to find upon physical examination?

A

Lichenification

66
Q

What is lichenification?

A

Lichenification results from prolonged, intense scratching that eventually thickens the skin and produces tightly packed sets of papules.. A patient with itches often develops lichenification

67
Q

What is a keloid?

A

A keloid is a hypertrophic scar.

68
Q

What are Keratoses?

A

Keratoses are lesions that are raised, thickened areas of pigmentation that appear crusted, scaly, and warty.

69
Q

What is a fissure?

A

A fissure is a linear crack with abrupt edges, which extends into the dermis; it can be dry or moist.

70
Q

What term refers to a linear skin lesion that runs along a nerve route?

A

Zosteriform

71
Q

What is an annular lesion?

A

Annular describes a lesion that is circular and begins in the center and spreads to the periphery.

72
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve

73
Q

What are shingles and what is the pathology causing them?

A

Shingles (herpes zoster) are small grouped vesicles that emerge along the route of a cutaneous sensory nerve, followed by pustules, and then crusts; shingles is caused by the herpes zoster virus.

74
Q

The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient and knows that this finding is expected in which condition?

A

Severe dehydration

75
Q

The nurse notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. How should the nurse document this finding?

A

A papule

76
Q

What is a papule?

A

A papule is something one can feel, is solid, elevated, circumscribed, less than 1 cm in diameter, and is due to superficial thickening in the epidermis.

77
Q

What is a bulla?

A

A bulla is larger than 1 cm, superficial, and thin walled.

78
Q

What is a wheal?

A

A wheal is superficial, raised, transient, erythematous, and irregular in shape attributable to edema.

79
Q

What is a nodule?

A

A nodule is solid, elevated, hard or soft, and larger than 1 cm.

80
Q

A scooped-out, wearing-away of the superficial epidermis is:

A

erosion.

81
Q

What is an ucler?

A

An ulcer is a deeper depression extending into the dermis.

82
Q

What is an exoriation?

A

An excoriation is a self-inflicted abrasion that is superficial.

83
Q

An older adult woman is brought to the emergency department after being found lying on the kitchen floor for 2 days; she is extremely dehydrated. What would the nurse expect to see during the examination?

A

Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips

84
Q

The nurse is preparing to teach a class on cardiovascular assessment. When explaining a thrill, what should the nurse include in the teaching?

A

A vibration that is palpable

85
Q

The direction of blood flow through the heart is?

A

Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle

86
Q

During an assessment of a healthy adult, where would the nurse expect to palpate the apical impulse?

A

The apical impulse should occupy only one intercostal space, the fourth or fifth, and it should be at or medial to the midclavicular line.

87
Q

What is the sac that surrounds and protects the heart is called?

A

Pericardium

88
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

The myocardium is the muscular wall of the heart.

89
Q

What is the endocardium?

A

The endocardium is the thin layer of endothelial tissue that lines the inner surface of the heart chambers and valves.

90
Q

What is the pleural space?

A

The pleural space is the space between the visceral and parietal pleura of each lung.

91
Q

The nurse is evaluating a patient’s pain. Which is an example of acute pain?
a. Kidney stones

b. Lower back pain

c. Fibromyalgia

d. Arthritic pain

A

a. Kidney stones

92
Q

What is acute pain?

A

Acute pain is short term and self-limiting, often follows a predictable trajectory, and dissipates after an injury heals, such as with surgery, trauma, and kidney stones.

93
Q

A patient is complaining of severe knee pain after twisting it during a basketball game and is requesting pain medication. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A

Administering pain medication and then proceeding with the assessment

94
Q

What is chronic pain?

A

Chronic pain lasts 6 months or longer; the pain persists after the predicted trajectory. Persistent pain is another term for chronic pain.

95
Q

What is breakthrough pain?

A

Breakthrough pain starts again or escalates before the next scheduled analgesic dose.

96
Q

Symptoms, such as pain, are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain?

a. Nurses need to recognize that many cultures practice silent suffering as a response to pain.

b. A nurse’s years of clinical experience and current position are strong indicators of his or her response to patient pain.

c. Nurses’ attitudes toward their patients’ pain are unrelated to their own experiences with pain.

d. A nurse’s area of clinical practice will most likely determine his or her assessment of a patient’s pain.

A

a. Nurses need to recognize that many cultures practice silent suffering as a response to pain.

97
Q

The nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis artery. Where is the correct location for palpation?

A

lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe

98
Q

Where is the posterior tibial pulse?

A

The posterior tibial pulse is palpated in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon.

99
Q

Where is the popliteal artery?

A

The popliteal artery is palpated behind the knee

100
Q

Claudication is caused by?

A

arterial insufficiency.

101
Q

A 67-year-old patient states that he recently began to have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for “a couple of minutes”; then he is able to resume his activities. What do these symptoms suggest?

A

Claudication

102
Q

During an assessment, the nurse notices that a patient’s left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting brawny edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a left-sided mastectomy 1 year ago. Based on these findings, what does the nurse suspect?

A

Lymphedema

103
Q

During an assessment, a patient tells the nurse that her fingers often change color when she goes out in cold weather. She describes these episodes as her fingers first turning white, then blue, then red with a burning, throbbing pain. What does the nurse suspect?

A

The condition with episodes of abrupt, progressive tricolor changes of the fingers in response to cold, vibration, or stress is known as Raynaud phenomenon.

104
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic aterial insufficency?

A

Symptoms of chronic arterial insufficiency are significant elevational pallor and delayed venous filling in the legs.

105
Q

How should the nurse document mild, slight pitting edema the ankles of a pregnant patient?

A

1+/0-4+

106
Q

What is Brawny edema?

A

Brawny edema appears as nonpitting edema and feels hard to the touch.

107
Q

During a visit to the clinic, a woman in her seventh month of pregnancy states that her legs feel “heavy in the calf” and that she often has foot cramps at night. The nurse notices that the patient has dilated, tortuous veins apparent in her lower legs. Which condition is reflected by these findings?

A

Varicose veins

108
Q

The nurse is describing a weak, thready pulse on the documentation flow sheet. Which statement is correct?

a. “Hard to palpate, may fade in and out, and is easily obliterated by pressure.”

b. “Greater than normal force that suddenly collapses.”

c. “Rhythm is regular, but force varies with alternating beats of large and small amplitude.”

d. “Easily palpable; pounds under the fingertips.”

A

a. “Hard to palpate, may fade in and out, and is easily obliterated by pressure.”

109
Q

The nurse is performing an assessment on an adult. The adult’s vital signs are normal, and capillary refill time is 5 seconds. What should the nurse do next?

A

Consider this a delayed capillary refill time, and investigate further.

110
Q

How long is normal capillary refill?

A

Normal capillary refill time is less than 1 to 2 seconds

111
Q

A patient has severe bilateral lower extremity edema. The most likely cause is

A

Bilateral lower extremity edema is a result of a generalized disorder such as heart failure.

112
Q

Lymphedema is?

A

Lymphedema is swelling of the limb caused by surgical removal of lymph nodes or damage to lymph nodes and vessels.

113
Q

The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient’s peripheral pulses and notices that the documentation states that the radial pulses are “2+.” The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type of pulse?

A

Normal

114
Q

How are pulses rated?

A

When documenting the force, or amplitude, of pulses, 3+ indicates an increased, full, or bounding pulse, 2+ indicates a normal pulse, 1+ indicates a weak pulse, and 0 indicates an absent pulse.

115
Q

When auscultating over a patient’s femoral arteries, the nurse notices the presence of a bruit on the left side. Which statement about bruits is accurate?

A

Occur with turbulent blood flow, indicating partial occlusion

116
Q

The nurse has completed a peripheral vascular assessment. Which of the following findings would he or she document as expected findings?

a. Radial pulses 2+ with regular rate and rhythm bilaterally

b. Capillary refill <5 seconds.

c. Right ankle 1+ edema with no perceptible swelling of the leg.

d. Feet pale and cool to touch.

A

a. Radial pulses 2+ with regular rate and rhythm bilaterally

117
Q

During a routine office visit, a patient takes off his shoes and shows the nurse “this awful sore that won’t heal.” On inspection, the nurse notes a 3-cm round ulcer on the left great toe, with a pale ischemic base, painful, well-defined edges, and no drainage. The patient also has decreased pedal pulses. Based on these findings, what does the nurse suspect?

A

Arterial ischemic ulcer

118
Q

What is a Arterial ischemic ulcer

A

Arterial ischemic ulcers occur at the toes, metatarsal heads, heels, and lateral ankle and are characterized by a pale ischemic base, well-defined edges, and no bleeding.

119
Q

The nurse is preparing to auscultate the lung sounds of a client. Which sound will the nurse expect to hear over the first and second intercostal spaces anteriorly and posteriorly between the scapulae:

A. bronchovesicular
B. vesicular
C. bronchial
D. tracheal

A

bronchovesicular

120
Q

Where are vesicular breath sounds found?

A

Vesicular breath sounds are normally heard over most of both lungs.

121
Q

Where are bronchial breath sounds heard?

A

Bronchial breath sounds are normally heard over the manubrium (broad upper part of the sternum) but may not be heard at all.

122
Q

Where are tracheal breath sounds found?

A

Tracheal breath sounds are normally heard over the trachea in the neck.

123
Q

Which terms are used to identify the lobes of the right lung? Select all that apply.
A. upper lobe
B. middle lobe
C. lower lobe
D. base lobe
E. major lobe

A

A. upper lobe
B. middle lobe
C. lower lobe

124
Q

What is the difference between the right and left lung?

A

The right lung is thus divided into upper, middle, and lower lobes. The left lung has only two lobes, upper and lower.

125
Q

Which assessment observation should suggest that the client may be experiencing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A. The trachea is displaced laterally.
B. The chest is barrel shaped
C. There is a unilateral decrease in chest expansion.
D. There is tenderness over rib area.

A

The chest is barrel shaped

126
Q

What could cause lateral displacement of the trachea?

A

Lateral displacement of the trachea may be seen in pneumothorax, trauma, pleural effusion, or atelectasis

127
Q

What could cause unilateral decrease or delay in chest expansion?

A

Causes of unilateral decrease or delay in chest expansion include pleural effusion and lobar pneumonia.

128
Q

Which technique would the nurse use to noninvasively assess arterial oxygen saturation?
A. Pulse oximeter
B. Respiratory rate
C. Blood Pressure
D. Arterial blood gas

A

Pulse oximeter

129
Q

When assessing a 75-year-old patient who has asthma, the nurse notes that he assumes a tripod position, leaning forward with arms braced on the chair. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
Answer
A. Assume that the patient is eager and interested in participating in the interview.
B. Evaluate the patient for abdominal pain, which may be exacerbated in the sitting position.
C. Assume that the patient is having difficulty breathing and assist him to a supine position.
D. Recognize that a tripod position is often used when a patient is having respiratory difficulties.

A

Recognize that a tripod position is often used when a patient is having respiratory difficulties.

Assuming a tripod position—leaning forward with arms braced on chair arms—occurs with chronic pulmonary disease, breathing difficulties, dyspnea (shortness of breath), or respiratory distress.

130
Q

31 year old Kara Miller was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA)over the weekend and has now been admitted to the Traumatic Brain Injury Unit.The patient has been assessed as having Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What does the nurse expect to observe with Kara’s respiratory pattern?

A. Peep respirations that graduallyeasewith periods of apneathat recurs.
B. Rapid and deep respirations
C. Irregular rate and depth that alternates with periods of apnea
D. Regular breathing pattern followed by periods of apnea

A

Peep respirations that graduallyeasewith periods of apneathat recurs.

131
Q

What are Cheyne-stokes respirations?

A

Cheyne-stokes respirations are observed normally in children and older adults sleeping. However, they can also be observed in conditions like heart failure and traumatic brain injury. They are described as periods of deep breathing followed by periods of apnea that recur.

132
Q

The nurse is auscultating breath sounds on a patient. Which of the following best describes how to proceed?

A.Hold the bell of the stethoscope against the chest wall; listen to the entire right field and then the entire left field during inspiration and expiration
B.Hold the diaphragm of the stethoscope against the chest wall; listen to one full respiration in each location; be sure to do side-to-side comparisons
C.Listen from the apices to the bases of each lung field using the diaphragm first and then the bell
D.Select the bell or diaphragm depending on the quality of the sounds heard; listen for one full respiration in each location, moving from top to bottom

A

Hold the diaphragm of the stethoscope against the chest wall; listen to one full respiration in each location; be sure to do side-to-side comparisons

133
Q

An audible high-pitched crowing or inspiratory sound from the upper airways resulting from tracheal or laryngeal obstruction that is considered a medical emergency is called:

A.Stridor
B.Retractions
C.Crackles
D.Coarse rhonchi

A

Stridor

134
Q

What is Stridor?

A

Stridor is an emergency and conists of an audible high-pitched crowing sound caused by airway constriction.

135
Q

What are sternal retractions?

A

Sternal retractions occur during respiratory distress and can be visualized in between the intercostal spaces.

136
Q

A 16 year old female high school soccer player arrives in the Emergency Department (ED) stating she is having an asthma attack. What lung sounds will the nurse most likely auscultate?

A.Fine crackles
B.Course crackles
C.Rhonchi
D.Wheezes

A

Wheezes

137
Q

The nurse auscultates bronchovesicular sounds over the major bronchi near the sternum. The nurse interprets this as:

A.A normal finding over the bronchi
B.A normal finding over the trachea
C.An abnormal finding over the lungs
D.None of the answers are correct

A

A normal finding over the bronchi