Midterm Ch. 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a canker sore

A

Shallow painful ulceration

< 5 mm thin exudate with red rim

7-10 days, do reoccur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is at risk for canker sores

A

Females < 20 years old, genetics, celiac disease, Behcet disease

Smoking, stress, trauma, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Apthous Ulcers

A

Avoid causative foods and trauma

NSIADS, corticosteroids for txt.

Vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Herpes simplex virus how does it happen

A

Occurs during childhood age 2-4

80% asymptomatic

10-20% acute hermetic gingivostomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do most adults have herpes simplex virus

A

Dormant, trigeminal ganglion

When reactivated called= Recurrent Herpetic Stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which herpes is facial

A

HSV-1

HSV-2 is genital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is oral candidiasis

A

Infection with Candida albicans

Tongue, cheeks, gums, tonsils

Gray/white pseudomembranes may be scaled off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is at risk for oral candidiasis

A

AIDS patients, infants

Txt. Broad spectrum antibiotics, diabetes

DDx. Leukoplakia, Candidemia, oral CA

AKA THRUSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a oral fibroma

A

Modular mass following chronic irritation

Hyperplasia and fibrosis

MC along bite line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Pyogenic Granuloma

A

Hemangioma on gingiva, red/purple

FOund in pregnant women and children
HOrmanl factors, irritation
Rapid growth

Remove growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is leukoplakia

A

Raised white patches

CANT be scraped off

Epithelial hyperplasia and keratosis

Dysplasia

Affects 3% of population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who is at risk for Leukoplakia

A

Tobacco, alcohol, candidiasis

Males 2x age 40-70 yrs old

Dx. Of exclusion

Rule out cancer by biopsy

25% pre cancerous- squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is erythroplakia

A

Red, velvety oral lesion

HIGH RISK, >50% transition into CA

Irregular borders

Risk- tobacco use, males 40-70 yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MC oral cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma 95%

Poor prognosis <50% long term survival

Risks alcohol, tobacco, >30yrs old, HPV-16 infx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is the MC place for oral squamous cell carcinoma to invade

A

Cervical nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Xerostomia

A

Dry mouth, due to decreased saliva production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Sjogren syndrome

A

Autoimmune atttack on exocrine glands salivary and lacrimal

18
Q

What is Sialadenitis

A

Inflammation and enlargement of salivary glands

19
Q

What is the difference between viral and bacterial sialadenitis

A

Viral= Mumps virus parotid
In adults can result in pancreatitis and orchitis

Bacterial=MC staph aureus infxn.

20
Q

What is Mucocele

A

Saliva collects within tissue= inflamed cyst

Follows ductal obstruction

Lower lip, poostprandial

21
Q

Who is MC affected by salivary gland neoplasms

A

MC elderly 60-80 yr females

Parotid gland- 65-80% MC

22
Q

Where is the MC malignant salivary gland neoplasms

A

Sublingual and minor salivary gland 50-90% malignant

23
Q

A parotid gland neoplasm is

A

Localized mass large 4-6cm, rapid growth, MOBILE

24
Q

What is Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Benign, 60% of all parotid tumors

May reoccur following excision

Mobile

25
Q

what is carcinoma Ex Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Invasive, less mobile, 50% 5 yr survival

Parotid gland neoplasms

26
Q

What is a Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Histology is heterogeneous

Cartilage and bony

27
Q

What is zenkers diverticulum

A

Lower pharyngeal outpouching

Develops from increased pharyngeal pressure

Spasm of cricopharyngeus

May be large

Bolus accumulation= halitosis

28
Q

How to diagnose a zenkers diverticulum

A

Barium swallow and video fluoroscopy

29
Q

What are mechanical esophageal lesions

A

Atresia, tracheal fistula, stenosis

Regurgitation diagnosed after birth

30
Q

What are ectopia esophageal lesions

A

Ectopic gastric mucosa upper 1/3

Asymptomatic MC, irritation, cancer risk

31
Q

What are esophageal varices

A

Secondary to portal hypertension

32
Q

What is achalasia

A

Failure of esophagus to relax

Chest pain “heartburn”

Weight loss

Dilates the esophagus

Tx= pneumatic dilation, botulinum toxin

33
Q

The “bird-beak sign” is from

A

Achalasia

Using a barium swallow test

34
Q

What is the MC achalasia

A

Primary- loss of inhibitory innervation of LES

Idiopathic

35
Q

What is secondary achalasia

A

Impairs LES function

Chagas’ disease (T. Cruzi)

Irradiation, diabetes, polio

Inflammation near Auerbach’s plexus

36
Q

Portal venous congestion affects

A

The distal esophagus

Dilated and tortuous vessels

37
Q

Hepatic schistosomiasis occurs from

A

Flatworm infection

38
Q

Esophageal varices are asymptomatic and

A

Risk for severe hemorrhage

39
Q

What occurs from advanced cirrhosis

A

Liver failure toxins accumulate within CNS

Hepatic Encephalopathy (hepatic coma)

40
Q

How often do esophageal varices kill

A

50% of 1st time bleeds are lethal