Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psych 102 > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Psychology

A

The scientific study of behaviour and mental processes and how they are affected by an organism’s physical state, mental state, and external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The scientific study of behaviour and mental processes and how they are affected by an organism’s physical state, mental state, and external environment

A

Psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scientific method

A

requires that psychological conclusions be based on evidence collected according to the principles of this method (consists of a set of orderly steps used to analyze and solve problems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

requires that psychological conclusions be based on evidence collected according to the principles of this method (consists of a set of orderly steps used to analyze and solve problems)

A

Scientific method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Behaviour

A

means by which organisms adjust to their environment…it is ACTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

means by which organisms adjust to their environment…it is ACTION

A

Behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mental

A

those cognitive processes that individuals use to influence their action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

those cognitive processes that individuals use to influence their action

A

Mental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Goals of Psychology

A

Describe, Explain, Predict and Control what happens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Metaphysical claims

A

Assertation about the world that is not testable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Assertation about the world that is not testable

A

Metaphysical claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pseudoscience

A

set of claims that seems scientific but isn’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

set of claims that seems scientific but isn’t

A

Pseudoscience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Confirmation bias

A

Tendency to seek out evidence that supports our hypotheses and deny, dismiss or distort evidence that contradicts them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tendency to seek out evidence that supports our hypotheses and deny, dismiss or distort evidence that contradicts them

A

Confirmation bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them

A

Belief perseverance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Belief perseverance

A

Tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tendency to perceive meaningful connections among unrelated phenomena.

A

Apophenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Apophenia

A

Tendency to perceive meaningful connections among unrelated phenomena.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tendency to perceive meaningful images in meaningless visual stimuli.

A

Pareidolia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pareidolia

A

Tendency to perceive meaningful images in meaningless visual stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Emotional reasoning fallacy

A

Error of using our emotions as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Error of using our emotions as guides for evaluating the validity of a claim.

A

Emotional reasoning fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bandwagon fallacy

A

Error of assuming that a claim is correct just because many people believe it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Error of assuming that a claim is correct just because many people believe it

A

Bandwagon fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Either-or fallacy

A

Error of framing a question as though we can answer it in only one of two extreme ways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Error of framing a question as though we can answer it in only one of two extreme ways

A

Either-or fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Not me fallacy

A

Error of believing we are immune from errors (in thinking) that afflict other people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Error of believing we are immune from errors (in thinking) that afflict other people

A

Not me fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Appeal to authority fallacy

A

Error of accepting a claim merely because an authority figure endorses it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Error of accepting a claim merely because an authority figure endorses it

A

Appeal to authority fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Genetic fallacy

A

Error of confusing the correctness of a belief with its origins or genesis

Ex: the belief was influenced by the time period, therefore cannot be considered valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Error of confusing the correctness of a belief with its origins or genesis

Ex: the belief was influenced by the time period, therefore cannot be considered valid

A

Genetic fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Argument from antiquity fallacy

A

Error of assuming that a belief must be valid just because it’s been around for a long time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Error of assuming that a belief must be valid just because it’s been around for a long time

A

Argument from antiquity fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Argument from adverse consequences fallacy

A

Error of confusing the validity of an idea with its potential real-world consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Error of confusing the validity of an idea with its potential real-world consequences

A

Argument from adverse consequences fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Appeal to ignorance fallacy

A

Error of assuming that a claim must be true because no one has shown it to be false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Error of assuming that a claim must be true because no one has shown it to be false

A

Appeal to ignorance fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Naturalistic fallacy

A

Error of inferring a moral judgement from a scientific fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Error of inferring a moral judgement from a scientific fact

A

Naturalistic fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hasty generalization fallacy

A

Error of drawing a conclusion on the basis of insufficient evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Error of drawing a conclusion on the basis of insufficient evidence

A

Hasty generalization fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Circular reasoning fallacy

A

Error of basing a claim on the same claim reworded in slightly different terms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Error of basing a claim on the same claim reworded in slightly different terms

A

Circular reasoning fallacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Scientific skepticism

A

approach of evaluating all claims with an open mind but insisting on persuasive evidence before accepting them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

approach of evaluating all claims with an open mind but insisting on persuasive evidence before accepting them

A

Scientific skepticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Critical Thinking

A

set of skills for evaluating all claims in an open-minded and careful fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

set of skills for evaluating all claims in an open-minded and careful fashion

A

Critical Thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Six principles of scientific thinking

A
  • Ruling out rival hypotheses
  • Correlation vs. Causation
  • Falsifiability
  • Replicability
  • Extraordinary claims
  • Occam’s Razor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ruling out rival hypotheses

A

findings consistent with several hypotheses require additional research to eliminate these hypotheses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

findings consistent with several hypotheses require additional research to eliminate these hypotheses.

A

Ruling out rival hypotheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Correlation vs. causation

A

a phrase used in statistics to emphasize that two things are associated with each other doesn’t mean that one causes the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

a phrase used in statistics to emphasize that two things are associated with each other doesn’t mean that one causes the other.

A

Correlation vs. causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Falsifiability

A

claims must be capable of being disproved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

claims must be capable of being disproved.

A

Falsifiability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Replicability

A

a finding must be capable of being duplicated by independent researchers following the same “recipe”/“formula”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

a finding must be capable of being duplicated by independent researchers following the same “recipe”/“formula”.

A

Replicability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Extraordinary claims

A

the more a claim contradicts what we already know, the more persuasive the evidence must be before we should accept it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

the more a claim contradicts what we already know, the more persuasive the evidence must be before we should accept it.

A

Extraordinary claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Occam’s razor

A

if two hypotheses explain a phenomenon equally well, we should generally select the simpler one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

if two hypotheses explain a phenomenon equally well, we should generally select the simpler one.

A

Occam’s razor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who is the founder of Structuralism?

A

Wilhelm Wundt and his assistant, Edward Titchener.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Wilhelm Wundt and his assistant, Edward Titchener.

A

Who is the founder of Structuralism?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Wilhelm Wundt

A

Opened the Institute for Experimental Psychology at the University of Leipzig in Germany in 1879. This was the first laboratory dedicated to psychology, and its opening is usually thought of as the beginning of modern psychology. Indeed, he is often regarded as the father of psychology. His assistant: Edward Titchener.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Opened the Institute for Experimental Psychology at the University of Leipzig in Germany in 1879. This was the first laboratory dedicated to psychology, and its opening is usually thought of as the beginning of modern psychology. Indeed, he is often regarded as the father of psychology. His assistant: Edward Titchener.

A

Wilhelm Wundt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A theory of consciousness developed by Wilhelm Wundt and his mentee Edward Bradford Titchener. The “What”. Seeks to analyze the adult mind (the total sum of experience from birth to the present) in terms of the simplest definable components and then to find how these components fit together to form more complex experiences as well as how they correlated to physical events.

A

Structuralism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Structuralism

A

A theory of consciousness developed by Wilhelm Wundt and his mentee Edward Bradford Titchener. The “What”. Seeks to analyze the adult mind (the total sum of experience from birth to the present) in terms of the simplest definable components and then to find how these components fit together to form more complex experiences as well as how they correlated to physical events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Issues of Structuralism? (3)

A

a. reductionistic (it reduced all complex human experience to simple sensations);
b. elemental (it sought to combine parts, or elements, into a whole rather than study complex, or whole, behaviours directly); and
c. mentalistic (it studied only verbal reports of human conscious awareness, ignoring the study of individuals who could not describe their introspections, including animals, children and the mentally disturbed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Gestalt psychology

A

________ psychology tries to understand the laws of our ability to acquire and maintain meaningful perceptions in an apparently chaotic world. Founder: Max Wertheimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

________ psychology tries to understand the laws of our ability to acquire and maintain meaningful perceptions in an apparently chaotic world. Founder: Max Wertheimer

A

Gestalt psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Who founded Gestalt psychology?

A

Max Wetheimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Max Wetheimer

A

Who founded Gestalt psychology?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Functionalism

A

Mental states (beliefs, desires, being in pain, etc.) are constituted solely by their functional role – that is, they have causal relations to other mental states, numerous sensory inputs, and behavioral outputs. Founder: William James.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mental states (beliefs, desires, being in pain, etc.) are constituted solely by their functional role – that is, they have causal relations to other mental states, numerous sensory inputs, and behavioral outputs. Founder: John Dewey

A

Functionalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

John Dewey

A

Who is the founder of Functionalism?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who is the founder of Functionalism?

A

John Dewey (focus on education)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

William James

A

Founder of American Psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Founder of American Psychology

A

William James

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

It assumes that the behavior of a human or an animal is a consequence of that individual’s history, including especially reinforcement and punishment, together with the individual’s current motivational state and controlling stimuli. (focus primarily on environmental factors). Founder: John B. Watson

A

Behaviourism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Behaviourism

A

It assumes that the behavior of a human or an animal is a consequence of that individual’s history, including especially reinforcement and punishment, together with the individual’s current motivational state and controlling stimuli. (focus primarily on environmental factors). Founder: John B. Watson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

“Little Albert” experiment

A

Conditioning babies with fear (Watson)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Conditioning babies with fear (Watson)

A

“Little Albert” experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

B.F. Skinner

A

Positive/Negative reinforcement & positive/negative punishment are theories on behaviour of this psychologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Humanistic perspective

A

holistic psychological model that emphasizes an individual’s phenomenal world and inherent capacity for making rational choices and developing to his/her maximum potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

holistic psychological model that emphasizes an individual’s phenomenal world and inherent capacity for making rational choices and developing to his/her maximum potential

A

Humanistic perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Carl Rogers

A

Fully functioning person; unconditional positive regard; conditions of worth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Fully functioning person; unconditional positive regard; conditions of worth

A

Carl Rogers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Abraham Maslow

A

coined the term self-actualization (an individual’s drive toward the fullest development of his or her potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

coined the term self-actualization (an individual’s drive toward the fullest development of his or her potential

A

Abraham Maslow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Cognitive perspective

A

the perspective on psychology that stresses human thought and the processes of knowing, such as attending, thinking, remembering, expecting, solving problems, fantasizing, and consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

the perspective on psychology that stresses human thought and the processes of knowing, such as attending, thinking, remembering, expecting, solving problems, fantasizing, and consciousness

A

Cognitive perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Biological Perspective

A

strives to identify causes of behaviour by focusing on the functioning of genes, the brain, the nervous system, and the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

strives to identify causes of behaviour by focusing on the functioning of genes, the brain, the nervous system, and the endocrine system

A

Biological Perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Evolutionary Perspective

A

stresses the importance of behavioural and mental adaptiveness, based on the assumption that mental capabilities evolved over millions of years to serve particular adaptive purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

stresses the importance of behavioural and mental adaptiveness, based on the assumption that mental capabilities evolved over millions of years to serve particular adaptive purposes

A

Evolutionary Perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Sociocultural Perspective

A

focuses on cross-cultural differences in the causes and consequences of behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

focuses on cross-cultural differences in the causes and consequences of behaviour

A

Sociocultural Perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Existential Psychology

A

concerned with the meaningless and alienation from modern life (leads to apathy, fear, and other psychological problems); Rollo May and “lost souls”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

concerned with the meaningless and alienation from modern life (leads to apathy, fear, and other psychological problems); Rollo May and “lost souls”

A

Existential Psychology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Great debates in psychology

A

Nature VS Nurture; Free-will VS determinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Determinism

A

the belief that all events (physical, mental, or behavioural) are determined by specific causal factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

the belief that all events (physical, mental, or behavioural) are determined by specific causal factors

A

Determinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

An error in data collection or data reporting that is due to the personal motives and expectations of the viewer

A

Observer Bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Observer Bias

A

An error in data collection or data reporting that is due to the personal motives and expectations of the viewer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Standardization

A

Means using uniform procedures in all phases of the research process (i.e., all participants should experience the same procedure, and other researchers should be able to replicate the procedure exactly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Means using uniform procedures in all phases of the research process (i.e., all participants should experience the same procedure, and other researchers should be able to replicate the procedure exactly)

A

Standardization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

a variable of condition in terms of its measurement, operation, or procedure used to determine its existence in the research setting

A

Operational definition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Operational definition

A

a variable of condition in terms of its measurement, operation, or procedure used to determine its existence in the research setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Expectancy effects

A

occur when a researcher subtly communicates to the participant the results that he or she expects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

occur when a researcher subtly communicates to the participant the results that he or she expects

A

Expectancy effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

participants are randomly assigned to experimental group(s) or control group(s)

A

Between-subjects designs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Between-subjects designs

A

participants are randomly assigned to experimental group(s) or control group(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Within-subjects designs

A

each participant serves as his or her own control group (exposed to both control and experimental conditions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

each participant serves as his or her own control group (exposed to both control and experimental conditions)

A

Within-subjects designs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

represented by “r” (can vary between -1.0 and +1.0: 0 (zero) means no relationship exists)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Positive correlation

A

as one variable increases so does the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

as one variable increases so does the other

A

Positive correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Negative correlation

A

as one variable decreases the other increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

as one variable decreases the other increases

A

Negative correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

researcher sets up a lab situation that evokes the behaviour of interest so that every participant has an equal opportunity to display the response

A

Structured observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Structured observation

A

researcher sets up a lab situation that evokes the behaviour of interest so that every participant has an equal opportunity to display the response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

ethnography

A

a descriptive, qualitative technique directed toward understanding a culture or a distinct social group through participant observation [researcher spends time in the community participating in daily life]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Neuroscience

A

interdisciplinary field studying how biological processes relate to behavioural and mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

interdisciplinary field studying how biological processes relate to behavioural and mental processes

A

Neuroscience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Biopsychology or Biological Psychology

A

scientific study of the biology of behaviour and mental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Neuron

A

cell of the nervous system responsible for receiving and transmitting electrochemical information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Types of neurons

A

three types: sensory, motor and inter-neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

neurons are held in place and supported by ___________ cells that surround neurons, perform cleanup tasks, insulate one neuron from another so that their neural messages are not scrambled (communication function)

A

Glial cells (“glue”) [glia/neuroglia]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Glial cells (“glue”) [glia/neuroglia]

A

neurons are held in place and supported by ___________ cells that surround neurons, perform cleanup tasks, insulate one neuron from another so that their neural messages are not scrambled (communication function)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Dendrites (“little tree”)

A

receive electrochemical information and transmit to cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

receive electrochemical information and transmit to cell body

A

Dendrites (“little tree”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Cell body (“soma”)

A

accepts incoming messages; if enough stimulation the soma will pass the message on to the axon
Contains nucleus where proteins are manufactured; damage to this part of the neuron is fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

accepts incoming messages; if enough stimulation the soma will pass the message on to the axon
Contains nucleus where proteins are manufactured; damage to this part of the neuron is fatal

A

Cell body (“soma”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Axon (“axle”)

A

similar to a miniature cable, it carries information away from the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

similar to a miniature cable, it carries information away from the cell body

A

Axon (“axle”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

gaps (approximately 1 micrometer wide) formed between myelin sheath cells along the axons which helps the conduction of nerve impulses

Action potentials occur at these gaps in myelinated neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

gaps (approximately 1 micrometer wide) formed between myelin sheath cells along the axons which helps the conduction of nerve impulses

Action potentials occur at these gaps in myelinated neurons

A

Nodes of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Myelin sheath

A

white, fatty coating around the axons of some neurons

helps insulate and speed neural impulses

since fat serves as a good insulator, speeds the rate of transmission of an electrical impulse along the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

white, fatty coating around the axons of some neurons

helps insulate and speed neural impulses

since fat serves as a good insulator, speeds the rate of transmission of an electrical impulse along the axon

A

Myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How fast does a neural impulse travel?

A

more slowly than electricity through a wire (97% speed of light - 300 million metres per second)

10 metres per second (non-myelinated)

100 metres per second (myelinated) [This rapid rate of conduction is called saltatory conduction.]

Myelinated axons are rare in the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

saltatory conduction

A

100 metres per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Action Potential

A

Electrical impulse that travels down the axon triggering the release of neurotransmitters.
When _______________ reaches the axon terminal, it stimulates the release of neurotransmitter molecules into the synaptic gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Refactory period

A

a period immediately following stimulation during which a nerve or muscle is unresponsive to further stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Resting potential

A

electrical change difference across the neuronal membrane when the neuron is not being stimulated or inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

electrical change difference across the neuronal membrane when the neuron is not being stimulated or inhibited

A

Resting potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Threshold

A

membrane potential necessary to trigger an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

membrane potential necessary to trigger an action potential

A

Threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Absolute refractory period

A

time during which another action potential is impossible; limits maximal firing rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Near the end of the axon, it branches out and at the tip of each branch are ____________

A

Terminal buttons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

chemicals released by neurons that affect other neurons; some excite and some inhibit

produced from materials in the blood (originally derived from foods)

some regulate actions of glands and muscles

some promote sleep or stimulate mental and physical alertness

some affect learning and memory

some affect motivation, emotions, and psychological disorders (e.g., schizophrenia and depression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Glutamate

A

Excites; related to enhanced learning and memory; may contribute to schizophrenia and other mental disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid)

A

Inhibits; inhibits so most anti-anxiety medications bind to _______ receptors; critical roles in learning, memory and sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

Roles in arousal, selective attention, REM sleep, memory, emotion, muscle action

Implicated in Alzheimer’s Disease (Aricept boosts levels of Acetylcholine)

Used in insecticides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Roles in arousal, selective attention, REM sleep, memory, emotion, muscle action

Implicated in Alzheimer’s Disease (Aricept boosts levels of Acetylcholine)

Used in insecticides

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Excites; related to enhanced learning and memory; may contribute to schizophrenia and other mental disorders

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Inhibits; inhibits so most anti-anxiety medications bind to _______ receptors; critical roles in learning, memory and sleep

A

GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid)

158
Q

Norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin are _____________neurotransmitters

A

the monoamines (called “monoamines” because they contain only one amino acid, the building blocks of proteins)

159
Q

Norephinephrine (NE) or Noradrenaline

A

learning, memory, dreaming, emotion, waking from sleep, eating, alertness, wakefulness, reactions to stress; low levels of ___________ associated with depression; high levels with agitated, manic states

160
Q

Dopamine (DA)

A

movement, attention, memory, learning, emotion; excess ________ associated with Schizophrenia; too little ________ associated with Parkinson’s Disease; also plays a role in addiction and the reward system

161
Q

Serotonin

A

mood, sleep, appetite, sensory perception, temperature regulation, pain suppression, and impulsivity; low levels associated with depression

162
Q

discovered in early 70s (Pert and Snyder), it is a neuropeptide (short strings of amino acids in the nervous system)

produce effects similar to those of opiod-based drugs such as morphine (reduce pain and promote pleasure), codeine, and heroin

mood, pain reduction, memory, and learning

A

Endorphins (endogenous opioid peptides)

163
Q

Endorphins (endogenous opioid peptides)

A

discovered in early 70s (Pert and Snyder), it is a neuropeptide (short strings of amino acids in the nervous system)

produce effects similar to those of opiod-based drugs such as morphine (reduce pain and promote pleasure), codeine, and heroin

mood, pain reduction, memory, and learning

164
Q

Anandamide

A

Roles in eating, motivation, memory, and sleep

165
Q

Antagonist

A

that decrease receptor site activity, such as medications for serotonin

166
Q

that decrease receptor site activity, such as medications for serotonin

A

Antagonist

167
Q

Agonists

A

they increase receptor site activity

168
Q

During course of development, network of neurons change in four primary ways:

A
  • Growth of dendrites and axons
  • Synaptogenesis (formation of new synapses)
  • Pruning (death of certain neurons and retraction of axons to remove connections that aren’t useful)
  • Myelinization (insulation of axons with a myelin sheath)
169
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

refers to the potential that the brain has to reorganize by creating new neural pathways to adapt, as it needs

170
Q

refers to the potential that the brain has to reorganize by creating new neural pathways to adapt, as it needs

A

Neuroplasticity

171
Q

Nervous system network

A

includes the Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

172
Q

includes the Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

A

Nervous system network

173
Q

Central Nervous System

A

consists of the brain and the spinal cord; it directs mental and basic life processes

174
Q

consists of the brain and the spinal cord; it directs mental and basic life processes

A

Central Nervous System

175
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

consists of the many nerves that lie outside of your skull and spine and carries messages between the system and the ________ of the body

176
Q

consists of the many nerves that lie outside of your skull and spine and carries messages between the system and the ________ of the body

A

Peripheral Nervous System

177
Q

Brain organization

A

Each system involves several brain regions that carry out different types of information processing

There are identifiable pathways that project from one area to the next

Each part of the brain projects to the next in an orderly fashion, resulting in topographically organized regions that can be mapped spatially

the brain is hierarchically organized

the brain systems are organized so that one side of the brain controls the other side of the body

178
Q

two large cerebral hemispheres (right and left), joined by _________ (joins the two halfs and permits for transfer of information between the two halfs)

A

corpus callosum

179
Q

Forebrain

A

the anterior part of the brain, including the cerebral hemispheres, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus.

the most advanced brain structure (organizationally and structurally)

largest and most complicated because of many interrelated parts

180
Q

the anterior part of the brain, including the cerebral hemispheres, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus.

the most advanced brain structure (organizationally and structurally)

largest and most complicated because of many interrelated parts

A

Forebrain

181
Q

Midbrain

A

a small central part of the brainstem, developing from the middle of the primitive or embryonic brain.

least understood area of the brain

very small structure that consists of nuclei (collections of cell bodies) that receive afferent signals from other parts of the brain and from the spinal cord, interprets the signals, and either relay the information to a more complex part of the brain or cause the body to act at once

two divisions

inferior colliculus (auditory) and superior colliculus (visual)

reticular formation and areas important for sensorimotor function and pain mediation

  • also governs smoothness of movement, temperature regulation, and other reflexive movements (e.g., movement of eyeball in the socket is the superior colliculus)

substantia nigra: smoothness of swinging a bat or getting out of a chair

182
Q

a small central part of the brainstem, developing from the middle of the primitive or embryonic brain.

least understood area of the brain

very small structure that consists of nuclei (collections of cell bodies) that receive afferent signals from other parts of the brain and from the spinal cord, interprets the signals, and either relay the information to a more complex part of the brain or cause the body to act at once

two divisions

inferior colliculus (auditory) and superior colliculus (visual)

reticular formation and areas important for sensorimotor function and pain mediation

  • also governs smoothness of movement, temperature regulation, and other reflexive movements (e.g., movement of eyeball in the socket is the superior colliculus)

substantia nigra: smoothness of swinging a bat or getting out of a chair

A

Midbrain

183
Q

Hindbrain

A

the lower part of the brainstem, comprising the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata.

184
Q

the lower part of the brainstem, comprising the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata.

A

Hindbrain

185
Q

Medulla

A

controls heartbeat and breathing and through which many afferent and efferent signals pass

186
Q

controls heartbeat and breathing and through which many afferent and efferent signals pass

A

Medulla

187
Q

controls a person’s state of arousal; normal function controls waking and sleeping but damage can result in coma and death. extends into and through the pons and the midbrain, with projections toward the cortex

A

Reticular Formation

188
Q

Reticular Formation

A

controls a person’s state of arousal; normal function controls waking and sleeping but damage can result in coma and death. extends into and through the pons and the midbrain, with projections toward the cortex

189
Q

Pons

A

provides link; affects sleep and dreaming

190
Q

provides link; affects sleep and dreaming

A

Pons

191
Q

Cerebellum (“little brain”)

A

influences balance, coordination, and movement, including single joint actions (flexing of elbow or knee). 10% of total volume of brain but more than ½ of the total neurons, allows you to walk a straight line, type accurately, coordinate dancing movements, hit a golf ball

192
Q

influences balance, coordination, and movement, including single joint actions (flexing of elbow or knee). 10% of total volume of brain but more than ½ of the total neurons, allows you to walk a straight line, type accurately, coordinate dancing movements, hit a golf ball

A

Cerebellum (“little brain”)

193
Q

Thalamus

A

acts primarily as a relay station for sensory information
integrates and analyzes this input and sends information on to the primary sensory cortex
all sensory information (except olfaction)

194
Q

acts primarily as a relay station for sensory information
integrates and analyzes this input and sends information on to the primary sensory cortex
all sensory information (except olfaction)

A

Thalamus

195
Q

Hypothalamus

A

numerous connections with rest of forebrain, midbrain
influences “species-specific” functions such as eating, drinking and sexual arousal
plays huge role in maintaining body’s internal environment (homeostasis or balance in blood sugar levels, body temperature)
involved in regulation of endocrine system

196
Q

numerous connections with rest of forebrain, midbrain
influences “species-specific” functions such as eating, drinking and sexual arousal
plays huge role in maintaining body’s internal environment (homeostasis or balance in blood sugar levels, body temperature)
involved in regulation of endocrine system

A

Hypothalamus

197
Q

Limbic System

A

an interconnected group of structures involved in emotions, memory, motivation, and brain disorders (e.g., epilepsy)
hippocampus and amygdala (a set of nuclei connected to the hippocampus)
-involved in emotional control and in the formation of emotional memories
- stimulation of the amygdala in animals produces attack responses (i.e., rabies leads to the destruction of the amygdala)
- learning of fear and other emotional responses
- possible “pleasure centres” in animals

198
Q

an interconnected group of structures involved in emotions, memory, motivation, and brain disorders (e.g., epilepsy)
hippocampus and amygdala (a set of nuclei connected to the hippocampus)
-involved in emotional control and in the formation of emotional memories
- stimulation of the amygdala in animals produces attack responses (i.e., rabies leads to the destruction of the amygdala)
- learning of fear and other emotional responses
- possible “pleasure centres” in animals

A

Limbic System

199
Q

Basal Ganglia

A

series of nuclei that control movements and posture (associated with Parkinson’s Disease)
parts influence muscle tone and initiate commands to the cerebellum and to higher brain centres
damage can cause severe behavioural consequences

200
Q

series of nuclei that control movements and posture (associated with Parkinson’s Disease)
parts influence muscle tone and initiate commands to the cerebellum and to higher brain centres
damage can cause severe behavioural consequences

A

Basal Ganglia

201
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

thick band of 200 million or so nerve fibres

damage can result in two separate brains

202
Q

thick band of 200 million or so nerve fibres

damage can result in two separate brains

A

Corpus Callosum

203
Q

Cortex

A

exterior covering, two millimeters thick and consists of six thin layers of nerve cells
convoluted or furrowed (gyri and fissures) to create more surface area in a small space

intimately involved in thought and reasoning

204
Q

exterior covering, two millimeters thick and consists of six thin layers of nerve cells
convoluted or furrowed (gyri and fissures) to create more surface area in a small space

intimately involved in thought and reasoning

A

Cortex

205
Q

Frontal Lobe

A

concerned with higher order functions such as memory; monitoring, organizing, and directing thought processes; planning and paying attention

specialized speech and language production area (Broca’s area)

primary motor cortex (Walter Penfield, 1958)

right ___________’s role in appreciating humour (Shammi and Stuss, 1999) and self-awareness (Stuss, 1991)

damage: personality, impulsivity, planning, initiating

206
Q

concerned with higher order functions such as memory; monitoring, organizing, and directing thought processes; planning and paying attention

specialized speech and language production area (Broca’s area)

primary motor cortex (Walter Penfield, 1958)

right ___________’s role in appreciating humour (Shammi and Stuss, 1999) and self-awareness (Stuss, 1991)

damage: personality, impulsivity, planning, initiating

A

Frontal Lobe

207
Q

Temporal Lobe

A

left contains a language comprehension centre (Wernicke’s area) and is connected to Broca’s area

memory function and social understanding

contains auditory cortex

damage: memory loss, altered emotional responding, language difficulties

208
Q

left contains a language comprehension centre (Wernicke’s area) and is connected to Broca’s area

memory function and social understanding

contains auditory cortex

damage: memory loss, altered emotional responding, language difficulties

A

Temporal Lobe

209
Q

integrating visual input and monitoring the body’s position in space

somatosensory cortex registers information from the skin senses (touch, temperature, pain) (figure 3.11, page 102 of textbook)

Melzack (McGill U) “phantom limb”

damage differs depending on whether damage is left or right hemisphere

damage to left tends to produce aphasias: (language disorders) or agnosias: (inability to perceive objects)

damage to right lobe causes individual to neglect the left side of his body (e.g., failure to dress that side)

A

Parietal Lobe

210
Q

Parietal Lobe

A

integrating visual input and monitoring the body’s position in space

somatosensory cortex registers information from the skin senses (touch, temperature, pain) (figure 3.11, page 102 of textbook)

Melzack (McGill U) “phantom limb”

damage differs depending on whether damage is left or right hemisphere

damage to left tends to produce aphasias: (language disorders) or agnosias: (inability to perceive objects)

damage to right lobe causes individual to neglect the left side of his body (e.g., failure to dress that side)

211
Q

aphasias

A

language disorders

212
Q

language disorders

A

aphasias

213
Q

agnosias

A

inability to perceive objects

214
Q

inability to perceive objects

A

agnosias

215
Q

Occipital Lobe

A

processes visual input

primary visual cortex receives sensory input directly from the eyes

parietal and __________ in concert for hand-eye coordination

216
Q

processes visual input

primary visual cortex receives sensory input directly from the eyes

parietal and __________ in concert for hand-eye coordination

A

Occipital Lobe

217
Q

Autonomic Nervous System

A

Controls involuntary basic life functions, such as heartbeat, digestion, pupil dilation, breathing; it consists of

218
Q

Controls involuntary basic life functions, such as heartbeat, digestion, pupil dilation, breathing; it consists of

A

Autonomic Nervous System

219
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

Arouses body to expend energy and respond to threat

part of Autonomic Nervous System

220
Q

Arouses body to expend energy and respond to threat

part of Autonomic Nervous System

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

221
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

Calms the body to conserve energy and restore the status quo (part of Autonomic Nervous System)

222
Q

Calms the body to conserve energy and restore the status quo (part of Autonomic Nervous System)

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System

223
Q

Somatic Nervous System

A

Controls voluntary muscles and conveys sensory information to the CNS and sends motor messages to muscles

224
Q

Controls voluntary muscles and conveys sensory information to the CNS and sends motor messages to muscles

A

Somatic Nervous System

225
Q

Sensory neurons

A

transmit messages from sense organs to the CNS (brain and spinal cord), also known as afferent neurons

226
Q

transmit messages from sense organs to the CNS (brain and spinal cord), also known as afferent neurons

A

Sensory neurons

227
Q

Motor neurons

A

transmit messages from the CNS to organs, muscles, and glands; also known as efferent neurons

228
Q

transmit messages from the CNS to organs, muscles, and glands; also known as efferent neurons

A

Motor neurons

229
Q

Inter-neurons

A

neurons within the CNS that internally communicate and intervene between the sensory and motor neurons

230
Q

neurons within the CNS that internally communicate and intervene between the sensory and motor neurons

A

Inter-neurons

231
Q

Endocrine System

A

collection of glands located throughout the body that manufacture and secrete hormones into the bloodstream

instead of neurotransmitters, it uses hormones released directly into the bloodstream

232
Q

collection of glands located throughout the body that manufacture and secrete hormones into the bloodstream

instead of neurotransmitters, it uses hormones released directly into the bloodstream

A

Endocrine System

233
Q

Single-unit recording

A

insert a thin wire, needle, or glass tube containing an electrolyte solution into or next to a single neuron to measure its electrical activity (usually animals)

234
Q

record of electrical brain wave patterns obtained through electrodes placed on the scalp

A

Electoencephalogram (EEG)

235
Q

Electoencephalogram (EEG)

A

record of electrical brain wave patterns obtained through electrodes placed on the scalp

236
Q

CT (computerized tomography) Scan

A

computer-assisted x-ray images in three dimensions (photographic slices)

tumours or regions destroyed by strokes, accidents, or other brain abnormalities

237
Q

computer-assisted x-ray images in three dimensions (photographic slices)

tumours or regions destroyed by strokes, accidents, or other brain abnormalities

A

CT (computerized tomography) Scan

238
Q

PET (positron emission tomography) Scan

A

tracks radioactive markers injected into bloodstream to enable researchers to observe metabolic activity by recording glucose use taking place in the brain (cerebral blood flow)

problem: although they efficiently display cortical function, they lack spatial resolution and precise anatomical localization of the activated region

239
Q

tracks radioactive markers injected into bloodstream to enable researchers to observe metabolic activity by recording glucose use taking place in the brain (cerebral blood flow)

problem: although they efficiently display cortical function, they lack spatial resolution and precise anatomical localization of the activated region

A

PET (positron emission tomography) Scan

240
Q

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

A

uses magnetic fields instead of x-rays (greater clarity and resolution)

can distinguish brain parts as small as one or two millimeters

f_______(functional ______) registers changes in metabolism; activity as it happens

241
Q

uses magnetic fields instead of x-rays (greater clarity and resolution)

can distinguish brain parts as small as one or two millimeters

f_______(functional ______) registers changes in metabolism; activity as it happens

A

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

242
Q

the process in which the sense organ receptor cells are stimulated and relay their initital information to higher brain centres for further processing

A

Sensation

243
Q

Sensation

A

the process in which the sense organ receptor cells are stimulated and relay their initital information to higher brain centres for further processing

244
Q

Perception

A

The processes used to arrive at a meaningful interpretation of sensations; through perception, the simple component sensations are organized and interpreted into meaningful, recognizable forms

245
Q

The processes used to arrive at a meaningful interpretation of sensations; through perception, the simple component sensations are organized and interpreted into meaningful, recognizable forms

A

Perception

246
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

Sensing of individual stimulus elements
Breakdown analysis of stimuli (including feature detection)
Combination and interpretation of whole

247
Q

Sensing of individual stimulus elements
Breakdown analysis of stimuli (including feature detection)
Combination and interpretation of whole

A

Bottom-up processing

248
Q

Top-down processing

A

examines complex perceptual phenomena from more complex interpretations or memories
focuses on aspects of the perceptual process such as selective attention and active decision-making.
also known as conceptually driven or hypothesis driven processing because the concepts you have stored in memory affect interpretation of the sensory data.

249
Q

examines complex perceptual phenomena from more complex interpretations or memories
focuses on aspects of the perceptual process such as selective attention and active decision-making.
also known as conceptually driven or hypothesis driven processing because the concepts you have stored in memory affect interpretation of the sensory data.

A

Top-down processing

250
Q

Transduction

A

Is the process by which the nervous system converts an external stimulus, like light or sound, into electrical signals within neurons

251
Q

Is the process by which the nervous system converts an external stimulus, like light or sound, into electrical signals within neurons

A

Transduction

252
Q

specialized cell responsible for converting external stimuli into neural activity for a specific sensory system

A

Sense receptor

253
Q

Sense receptor

A

specialized cell responsible for converting external stimuli into neural activity for a specific sensory system

254
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

activation is greatest when a stimulus is first detected

255
Q

activation is greatest when a stimulus is first detected

A

Sensory adaptation

256
Q

Threshold (psychophysics)

A

a dividing line, a point at which things become different

257
Q

a dividing line, a point at which things become different

A

Threshold (psychophysics)

258
Q

Absolute Threshold

A

The minimum level of stimulation necessary to define the transition from what is undetectable to that which is detectable 50% of the time

259
Q

The minimum level of stimulation necessary to define the transition from what is undetectable to that which is detectable 50% of the time

A

Absolute Threshold

260
Q

the amount of change necessary for an observer to report 50% of the time that a level of stimulation (say mass) has changed or is different from another value (has gotten heavier or lighter)

A

Difference threshold

261
Q

Difference threshold

A

the amount of change necessary for an observer to report 50% of the time that a level of stimulation (say mass) has changed or is different from another value (has gotten heavier or lighter)

262
Q

Weber’s Law

A

there is a constant proporational relationship between the JND and ongoing stimulus intensity

263
Q

there is a constant proporational relationship between the JND and ongoing stimulus intensity

A

Weber’s Law

264
Q

Method of limits

A

various values of a stimulus are presented in ascending or descending order

265
Q

various values of a stimulus are presented in ascending or descending order

A

Method of limits

266
Q

Method of constant stimuli

A

values of a signal are presented in random order; respond yes or no, indicating that s/he has either detected a stimulus or not

267
Q

values of a signal are presented in random order; respond yes or no, indicating that s/he has either detected a stimulus or not

A

Method of constant stimuli

268
Q

holds that an observer’s perception is dependent not only on the intensity of the stimulus but on the observer’s motivation

A

Signal Detection Theory

269
Q

Signal Detection Theory

A

holds that an observer’s perception is dependent not only on the intensity of the stimulus but on the observer’s motivation

270
Q

Synesthesia

A

A condition in which people experience cross-modal sensations

271
Q

A condition in which people experience cross-modal sensations

A

Synesthesia

272
Q

Filter Theory

A

states that human beings possess a limited capacity to process information and that perceptual “filters” screen out extraneous information

273
Q

Attenuation Theory

A

states that all information is analyzed but that intervening factors inhibit (attenuate) attention so that only selected information reaches the highest centres of processing

274
Q

Subliminal Perception

A

subliminal stimuli can influence perception, attitudes, and behaviour. Perception below the threshold of awareness

275
Q

Inattentional Blindness

A

Inability to detect unexpected objects

276
Q

Inability to detect unexpected objects

A

Inattentional Blindness

277
Q

Sensory Deprivation

A

the deliberate reduction or removal of stimuli from one or more of the senses.

278
Q

Electromagnetic spectrum

A

Includes gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared rays, radar, broadcast bands, and AC currents

Visible light is a very small portion of that spectrum

279
Q

Visual Transduction

A

a process by which light is converted into electrical signals in the rod cells, cone cells and photosensitive ganglion cells of the retina of the eye.

280
Q

a process by which light is converted into electrical signals in the rod cells, cone cells and photosensitive ganglion cells of the retina of the eye.

A

Visual Transduction

281
Q

Wavelength

A

(ranging from about 400 to 700 nanometres “nm”); changes experienced as changes in hue

282
Q

(ranging from about 400 to 700 nanometres “nm”); changes experienced as changes in hue

A

Wavelength

283
Q

1st step in transduction process

A

Bring the incoming light energy to the light-sensitive receptor cells at the back of each eye

284
Q

Bring the incoming light energy to the light-sensitive receptor cells at the back of each eye

A

1st step in transduction process

285
Q

Eye

A

Light passes through the cornea (sm. Transparent bulge) covering the pupil (dark opening in the centre of the eye) and the pigmented (coloured) iris

286
Q

Iris

A

Coloured part of eye which regulates the amount of light entering the eye (constriction and dilation)

287
Q

Cornea

A

the transparent layer forming the front of the eye.

288
Q

the transparent layer forming the front of the eye.

A

Cornea

289
Q

The hole or opening that is located in the center of the iris of the eye. The ______ controls the amount of light that enters the eye. _____size is controlled by the dilator and sphincter muscles of the iris

A

Pupil

290
Q

Pupil

A

The hole or opening that is located in the center of the iris of the eye. The ______ controls the amount of light that enters the eye. _____size is controlled by the dilator and sphincter muscles of the iris

291
Q

Behind the pupil is the ______; both the cornea and ______ contribute to image formation

A

Lens

292
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsighted

293
Q

Nearsighted

A

Myopia

294
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsighted

295
Q

Farsighted

A

Hyperopia

296
Q

Retina

A

layer of neurons that lines the back of the eye, capture images and sends them to the brain for processing, thus producing conscious visual experience

297
Q

layer of neurons that lines the back of the eye, capture images and sends them to the brain for processing, thus producing conscious visual experience

A

Retina

298
Q

the central part of the retina and is responsible for acuity or sharpness of vision

A

fovea

299
Q

fovea

A

the central part of the retina and is responsible for acuity or sharpness of vision

300
Q

photoreceptor

A

light sensitive cells

301
Q

light sensitive cells

A

photoreceptor

302
Q

______ cells are photoreceptor cells in the retina of the eye that can function in less intense light than the other type of visual photoreceptor. They are concentrated at the outer edges of the retina and are used in peripheral vision.

A

Rod

303
Q

Rod

A

______ cells are photoreceptor cells in the retina of the eye that can function in less intense light than the other type of visual photoreceptor. They are concentrated at the outer edges of the retina and are used in peripheral vision.

304
Q

A type of specialized light-sensitive cell (photoreceptor) in the retina of the eye that provides color vision and sharp central vision.

A

Cone

305
Q

Cone

A

A type of specialized light-sensitive cell (photoreceptor) in the retina of the eye that provides color vision and sharp central vision.

306
Q

Duplexity Theory

A

Assets there are two separate receptor systems in the retina (rods and cones)

307
Q

Assets there are two separate receptor systems in the retina (rods and cones)

A

Duplexity Theory

308
Q

an increase in sensitivity to light that occurs when the illumination level changes from high to low

A

Dark adaptation

309
Q

Dark adaptation

A

an increase in sensitivity to light that occurs when the illumination level changes from high to low

310
Q

A______ cell is a type of neuron which has two extensions. Bipolar cells are specialized sensory neurons for the transmission of special senses.

A

bipolar cell

311
Q

bipolar cell

A

A______ cell is a type of neuron which has two extensions. Bipolar cells are specialized sensory neurons for the transmission of special senses.

312
Q

It receives visual information from photoreceptors via two intermediate neuron types: bipolar cells and retina amacrine cells.

A

Ganglion cell

313
Q

Ganglion cell

A

It receives visual information from photoreceptors via two intermediate neuron types: bipolar cells and retina amacrine cells.

314
Q

The axons of the ganglion cells make up the _______________(carries messages to the brain)

A

Optic Nerve

315
Q

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus

A

One of the major visual projection areas of the visual system

316
Q

One of the major visual projection areas of the visual system

A

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus

317
Q

Simple cells

A

respond to the shape and size of lights

318
Q

respond to the shape and size of lights

A

Simple cells

319
Q

Complex cells

A

respond most vigorously to the movement of light in one direction

320
Q

respond most vigorously to the movement of light in one direction

A

Complex cells

321
Q

Hypercomplex cells

A

respond only to a line of the correct length and orientation that moves in the proper direction

322
Q

respond only to a line of the correct length and orientation that moves in the proper direction

A

Hypercomplex cells

323
Q

Field detector cell

A

cell that detects lines and edges

324
Q

cell that detects lines and edges

A

Field detector cell

325
Q

Agnosia

A

an inability to recognize a sensory stimuli that should be recognizable (because all normal perception processes are intact and there is no verbal, memory, or intellectual impairment)

326
Q

an inability to recognize a sensory stimuli that should be recognizable (because all normal perception processes are intact and there is no verbal, memory, or intellectual impairment)

A

Agnosia

327
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

inability to recognize faces

328
Q

inability to recognize faces

A

Prosopagnosia

329
Q

Saccades

A

rapid, voluntary movements of the eyes

330
Q

rapid, voluntary movements of the eyes

A

Saccades

331
Q

size of the region a person sees when fixating visually

A

Perceptual scan

332
Q

Perceptual scan

A

size of the region a person sees when fixating visually

333
Q

______________depends on the wavelengths of the visible light that stimulates the photo receptors

A

Colour

334
Q

when some colours look more vibrant when placed next to other colours

A

Colour contrast

335
Q

Colour contrast

A

when some colours look more vibrant when placed next to other colours

336
Q

inability to perceive different hues

A

Colour blindness

337
Q

Colour blindness

A

inability to perceive different hues

338
Q

Dichromats

A

can distinguish only two of the three colours; difficulty with red/green (2% of men) or blue/yellow

339
Q

can distinguish only two of the three colours; difficulty with red/green (2% of men) or blue/yellow

A

Dichromats

340
Q

ability of the perceptual system to recognize that an object remains constant in size regardless of its distance from the observer or the size of its image on the retina

A

Size Constancy

341
Q

Ability to recognize a shape despite changes in the angle or position from which it is viewed

A

Shape Constancy

342
Q

Shape Constancy

A

Ability to recognize a shape despite changes in the angle or position from which it is viewed

343
Q

Size Constancy

A

ability of the perceptual system to recognize that an object remains constant in size regardless of its distance from the observer or the size of its image on the retina

344
Q

motion parallax (monocular depth cue)

A

when a moving observer stares at a fixed point, the objects behind the point appear to move in the same direction and objects in front of the point appear to move in the opposite direction

345
Q

when a moving observer stares at a fixed point, the objects behind the point appear to move in the same direction and objects in front of the point appear to move in the opposite direction

A

motion parallax (monocular depth cue)

346
Q

objects that look flat when they are stationary appear three-dimensional when set in motion (e.g., a paper clip)

A

kinetic depth effect (monocular depth cue)

347
Q

kinetic depth effect (monocular depth cue)

A

objects that look flat when they are stationary appear three-dimensional when set in motion (e.g., a paper clip)

348
Q

linear perspective (monocular depth cue)

A

based on the principle that distant objects appear to be closer together than nearer objects

349
Q

based on the principle that distant objects appear to be closer together than nearer objects

A

linear perspective (monocular depth cue)

350
Q

when one object blocks part of another, the first appears to be closer

A

interposition (monocular depth cue)

351
Q

interposition (monocular depth cue)

A

when one object blocks part of another, the first appears to be closer

352
Q

Atmospheric perspective (monocular depth cue)

A

e.g. distant mountains often look blue (wavelengths)

353
Q

e.g. distant mountains often look blue (wavelengths)

A

Atmospheric perspective (monocular depth cue)

354
Q

Retinal Disparity

A

slight difference between the visual images projected on the two retinas

355
Q

slight difference between the visual images projected on the two retinas

A

Retinal Disparity

356
Q

the movement of the eyes toward the nose and each other in order to keep visual inputs at corresponding points on the retinas as an object moves closer to the observer
the movement of the eyes toward the nose and each other in order to keep visual inputs at corresponding points on the retinas as an object moves closer to the observer

A

Convergence

357
Q

Convergence

A

the movement of the eyes toward the nose and each other in order to keep visual inputs at corresponding points on the retinas as an object moves closer to the observer

358
Q

Illusion

A

A perception of a physical stimulus that differs from measurable reality and the normal expectations about its appearance (misperception of stimulation)

359
Q

A perception of a physical stimulus that differs from measurable reality and the normal expectations about its appearance (misperception of stimulation)

A

Illusion

360
Q

Empiricism

A

the theory that the origin of all knowledge is sense experience. It emphasizes the role of experience and evidence, especially sensory perception, in the formation of ideas, and argues that the only knowledge humans can have is a posteriori (i.e. based on experience).

361
Q

the theory that the origin of all knowledge is sense experience. It emphasizes the role of experience and evidence, especially sensory perception, in the formation of ideas, and argues that the only knowledge humans can have is a posteriori (i.e. based on experience).

A

Empiricism

362
Q

the detailed study of the shape and size of the cranium as a supposed indication of character and mental abilities.

A

Phrenology

363
Q

Phrenology

A

the detailed study of the shape and size of the cranium as a supposed indication of character and mental abilities. Founder: Joseph Gall.

364
Q

either of two masses of gray matter lying between the cerebral hemispheres on either side of the third ventricle, relaying sensory information and acting as a center for pain perception.

A

thalamus

365
Q

thalamus

A

either of two masses of gray matter lying between the cerebral hemispheres on either side of the third ventricle, relaying sensory information and acting as a center for pain perception.

366
Q

a region of the forebrain below the thalamus that coordinates both the autonomic nervous system and the activity of the pituitary, controlling body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other homeostatic systems, and involved in sleep and emotional activity.

A

hypothalamus

367
Q

hypothalamus

A

a region of the forebrain below the thalamus that coordinates both the autonomic nervous system and the activity of the pituitary, controlling body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other homeostatic systems, and involved in sleep and emotional activity.

368
Q

An area in the posterior temporal lobe of the left hemisphere of the brain involved in the recognition of spoken word

A

Wernicke’s area

369
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

An area in the posterior temporal lobe of the left hemisphere of the brain involved in the recognition of spoken word

370
Q

a region of the brain concerned with the production of speech, located in the cortex of the dominant frontal lobe. Damage in this area causes Broca’s aphasia, characterized by hesitant and fragmented speech with little grammatical structure.

A

Broca’s Area

371
Q

Broca’s Area

A

a region of the brain concerned with the production of speech, located in the cortex of the dominant frontal lobe. Damage in this area causes Broca’s aphasia, characterized by hesitant and fragmented speech with little grammatical structure.

372
Q

The six monocular depth cues

A
  1. motion parallax
  2. kinetic depth effect
  3. linear perspective
  4. interposition
  5. texture
  6. Atmospheric perspective
373
Q

Three physical dimensions of colour

A

Hue, brightness and saturation

374
Q

trichromatic theory

A

there are three receptors in the retina that are responsible for the perception of color. One receptor is sensitive to the color green, another to the color blue and a third to the color red

375
Q

there are three receptors in the retina that are responsible for the perception of color. One receptor is sensitive to the color green, another to the color blue and a third to the color red

A

trichromatic theory

376
Q

Hippocampus

A

the elongated ridges on the floor of each lateral ventricle of the brain, thought to be the center of emotion, memory, and the autonomic nervous system.

377
Q

the elongated ridges on the floor of each lateral ventricle of the brain, thought to be the center of emotion, memory, and the autonomic nervous system.

A

Hippocampus

378
Q

Amygdala

A

a roughly almond-shaped mass of gray matter inside each cerebral hemisphere, involved with the experiencing of emotions.

379
Q

a roughly almond-shaped mass of gray matter inside each cerebral hemisphere, involved with the experiencing of emotions.

A

Amygdala

380
Q

the major endocrine gland. A pea-sized body attached to the base of the brain, is important in controlling growth and development and the functioning of the other endocrine glands.

A

pituitary gland

381
Q

pituitary gland

A

the major endocrine gland. A pea-sized body attached to the base of the brain, is important in controlling growth and development and the functioning of the other endocrine glands.

382
Q

Frontal lobes

A

Speaking, planning, judging, abstract thinking and personality aspects

383
Q

Parietal lobe

A

Sense of touch and body position

384
Q

Temporal lobe

A

Comprehension, sound and speech

385
Q

Motor cortex

A

At rear of frontal lobe, controls voluntary movements

386
Q

Tri-chromatic Theory

A

Young-Helmholtz’s Theory: the human retina contains three different receptors for color (meaning each one is most sensitive to one color): one is most sensitive to red, one is most sensitive to green, and one is most sensitive to blue. These color receptors combine the colors to produce the perception of virtually any color.

387
Q

Young-Helmholtz’s Theory: the human retina contains three different receptors for color (meaning each one is most sensitive to one color): one is most sensitive to red, one is most sensitive to green, and one is most sensitive to blue. These color receptors combine the colors to produce the perception of virtually any color.

A

Tri-chromatic Theory

388
Q

Opponent-Process Theory

A

Hering’s Theory: At level of retinal ganglion cell, sensory input from three cone types is translated into an opponent colour system with red opposing green, blue opposing yellow, white opposing black

389
Q

Hering’s Theory: At level of retinal ganglion cell, sensory input from three cone types is translated into an opponent colour system with red opposing green, blue opposing yellow, white opposing black

A

Opponent-Process Theory

390
Q

Synapse

A

A “joint” between two nerve cells, with a TINY gap across which impulses pass by diffusion of a neurotransmitter.

391
Q

A “joint” between two nerve cells, with a TINY gap across which impulses pass by diffusion of a neurotransmitter.

A

Synapse

Psych 102 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions