Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VM 610 Gastroenterology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the canine dental formula?

A

2(I3/3, C1/1, P4/P4, M2/M3) = 42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the feline dental formula?

A

2 (I3/3, C1/1, P3/2, M1/1) = 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mesial surface and distal surface in regards to teeth?

A

mesial- closest to incisor 1, distal, far from incisor 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What tooth when diseased, is associated with classical facial swelling ventral to the eye?

A

upper 4th premolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which tooth is associated with unilateral swelling of muzzle?

A

2nd and 4rd premolars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cat conformations are assosciated with skeletal malocclusion?

A

brachycephalic cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between gingivitis and periodontitis?

A

perio is permenent damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does small or large bowl diarrhea have a markedly increased frequency?

A

large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does small or large bowel diarrhea usually have tenesmus, urgency, mucus, melena and weight loss?

A

large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does small or large bowel diarrhea have increased volume?

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does small or large bowel diarrhea have frequent vomiting?

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does small or large bowel diarrhea have steatorrhea and depression?

A

small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are CS of acute pulp exosure? chronic?

A

acute - hypersalivation, reluctance to eat

chronic - facial swelling, sneezing, discharge, fistulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Term for demineralization of tooth of loss of tooth structure.

A

dental caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for periodontal dz?

A

clavamox for 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What multisystemic diseases are associated with periodontal dz?

A

pyelonephritis, COPD, endocardiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the indication for open flap curettage in periodontal dz?

A

pockets are >5mm deep and do not respond to conservative therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 classes of endodontic-periodontal lesions?

A 
class 1 - through apex
class 2 - through alveolar margin, advance to apex, affects pulp
class 3 - seperate endodontic and periodontal lesions (class 1 and 2 combined)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is difference between dental attrition and abrasion?

A

attrition - wearing against other teeth

abrasion - wearing against other objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the response of dental pulp to rapid wear?

A

lays down reparative dentin - brown spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What treatment option for endontic dz is for recent fractures in young animals?

A

vital pulpotomy - tooth sealed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two most common oral tumors?

A

SCC and melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Term for benign gingival proliferation from periodontal ligament.

A

epulides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which SCC of the mouth is highly metastatic?

A

tonsillar SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two important premucosal small intestinal diseases?

A

exocrine pancreas insufficiency

small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 3 diseases occur in the mucosal small intestine?

A

IBD
infectious enteropathies - histo, salmon poisoning
neoplasms - lymphoma, adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What 2 diseases occur in the postmucosal part of the small intestine?

A

lymphatic obstruction

vascular dz - portal hypertension, dec CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What part of intestine is associated with folate? cobalamin?

A

folate - upper (first) -> decreased when upper SI dzd

cobalamin - bacteria bind cobalamin/b12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can be the causes of increase serum folate?

A

exogenous sources
endogenous - SIBO
mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is folate absorbed? How is cobalamin absorbed?

A

folate - passively (exo source can overcome)

cobalamin - active transfer in complex in ileum (exo source does not overcome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What breeds are associated with inherited selective cobalamin malabsorption?

A

giant schnauzer
border collie
beagle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If bacteria overgrows in the small intestine, what effect does this have on folate and cobalamin?

A

folate absorbed

cobalamin malabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial overgrowth in the SI?

A

metronidazole, tylosin

diet change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What serum test has a strong inverse association with reduced digestive function in old cats?

A

serum vit E and B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two disorders of the cricopharyngeal phase of swallowing?

A

achalasia (stricture) and asynchrony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the treatment for cricopharyngeal achalasia?

A

cricopharyngeal myotomy, ventral midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What kind of muscle makes up the esophagus in the dog? cat?

A

dog - skeletal muscle entire length

cat - terminal 1/3 portion is smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the most common tumors of the esophagus?

A

SCC and sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which ventral arch in embryology becomes a PRAA?

A

right 4th ventral arch becomes aorta instead of left

also left ligamentum arteriosum (normal) becomes part of the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What breeds get PRAA?

A

GSD and setters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the minimum size for an esophagostomy tube?

A

min 14 french rubber, premeasure to 8th ICS space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What percent of canine patients with ectopic ureters only have 1 side affected?

A

80%

cats - bilateral more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What ectopic ureter is more common, extramural or intramural?

A

intramural - travels through urinary bladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Medical term for painful swallowing.

A

odynophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some secondary problems to esophageal dz?

A

aspiration pneumonia, rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What should you ask in the history with a dog with megaesophagus?

A

any recent anesthesia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are hereditary predisposed breeds to primary megaesophagus?

A

min schnauzer, fox terrier

may resolve!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are 2 causes of congenital secondary megaesophagus?

A

myasthenia gravis

vascular ring anomalies - PRAA (GSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are four common causes of acquired megaesophagus?

A

most common - idiopathic, myasthenia gravis, esophagitis, anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is endoscopy used for in megaesophagus?

A

NOT to diagnose, only to assess or treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What treatment option should be avoided for esophageal stricture?

A

surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What process of caudate lobe lives on top of right kidney?

A

caudate process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where does the vena cava run through the liver?

A

through right lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does most of the blood come from to supply the liver?

A

portal VEIN (not artery) - 80% of supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What artery does the cystic artery come from?

A

hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the signalment for hepatic abscess patients?

A

middle to older aged dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a alternative to surgery for hepatic abcesses?

A

percutaneous asipiration of abscess and alchoholization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a common CS in cats with hepatic abscesses?

A

hypothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What hepatic lobe is most susceptible to torsion?

A

left lateral lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the 4 primary tumors of hepatic neoplasia? Which one has a good prognosis?

A

hepatocellular - only one with okay prognosis
cholangiocellular
neuroendocrine
mesenchymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an alternative to surgery for difficult to resect liver tumors?

A

interventional radiology - chemoembolization, find artery that supplies tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the greatest cause of negative effects from protosystemic shunts?

A

protein metabolism decreased and decreased toxin clearance

63
Q

What is the most common form of portosystemic shunts?

A

single congenital extrahepatic shunt - small dogs (portocaval most common)
(large dogs get congenital intrahepatic)

64
Q

What 3 things need to be done medically before bringing a portosystemic shunt patient to surgery?

A

antibiotics
lactulose - lowers pH in colon, binds ammonia
low protein diet

65
Q

What is the goal of surgery for an extrahepatic shunt?

A

close vessel slowly to avoid portal hypertension

66
Q

What 4 techniques are used to treat extrahepatic shunts?

A

ameroid band constrictor
cellophane banding - stimulates inflammation to clot shunt
suture attenuation - partially ligate then 2nd sx
hydraulic occluder - similar to ectopic ureter

67
Q

Will a patient with bile peritonitis have elevated or decreased serum bilirubin?

A

increased - absorbed into bloodstream

68
Q

Do patients with acute extrahepatic bile obstruction get hypo or hypertension?

A

hypotension - decreased CO, severe inflammation

69
Q

What breeds are predisposed to biliary mucoceles?

A

shelties and also dogs that have hypothyroidism and cushings

70
Q

What does a biliary mucocele look like on US?

A

“kiwi” gall bladder

71
Q

What is the treatment for biliary mucoceles?

A

medical - water down bile

surgical - cholecytectomy

72
Q

What surgical technique is preferred for cholelithiasis?

A

duodenostomy (not jejunostomy), very long incision

73
Q

What is the term for suturing the gall bladder to the small intestine?

A

cholecystoenterostomy

74
Q

What is the indication for choledochal stenting?

A

temporary EHBO across which a stent can be passed

75
Q

WHat will be seen on radiographs with a splenic torsion?

A

“c” shaped spleen, may have concurrent GDV

76
Q

What are the 3 most common tumors of the spleen that cause diffuse enlargement?

A

lymphosarcoma, mast cell tumor and hemangiosarcoma

77
Q

What organ zone mediates vomiting due to blood borne chemicals?

A

chemical receptor trigger zone

78
Q

What mediates vomiting due to vestibular dz and motion sickness?

A

vestibular apparatus via CRTZ to emetic center

79
Q

What center mediates vomiting due to psychogenic factors, head injury, increased ICP?

A

higher CNS centers, direct connection to EC

80
Q

What anti emetic drug acts at the CRTZ and peripherally?

A

metoclopramide

81
Q

What drugs act at the CRTZ for refractory vomiting for chemo?

A

ondansetron, dolasetron, cyproheptadine

82
Q

What anti emetic drug acts on EC, CRTZ and peripheral causes of vomiting?

A

maropitant citrate

83
Q

What will be seen in a serum chemistry with gastric outflow obstruction?

A

hypochloric metabolic alkalosis

84
Q

What tests are used for helicobacter?

A

biopsy, urease test

85
Q

What is the treatment for helicobacter?

A

antimicrobial - metronidazole, amoxi

antisecretory

86
Q

What two parasites can cause parasitic gastritis?

A

physaloptera and ollulanus tricuspis

87
Q

What parasite causes intense fibrosis of the pylorus?

A

pythium insidiosum

88
Q

What kind of vomiting is associated with reflux gastritis?

A

vomiting of bile in the morning

89
Q

What breeds are predisposed to gastric neoplasia?

A

belgian sheepdog, belgian tervuren, chow chow

90
Q

What are CS of pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile vomiting, minutes to hours PP

91
Q

What are the 3 causes of viral acute diarrhea in SA?

A

CDV. CPV, FPV(panleukopenia)

92
Q

What are the bacterial causes of acute diarrhea in SA?

A

clostridia, e. coli, salmonella, campy

93
Q

What is the signalment for hemorrhagic gastroenteritis? CS?

A

adult small breed dogs, peracute onset, severe

gel like bloody diarrhea

94
Q

What are the clinical pathology findings in a patient with hemorrhagic gastroenteritis?

A

hemoconcentration! (PCV >50%)
hypoproteinemia
fecal clostridial endotoxin assay

95
Q

What antibiotics are recommended for parvo?

A

penicillin + aminoglycoside

96
Q

What enzyme parallels degree of injury of liver?

A

ALT

97
Q

What do liver enzyme activities NOT tell you about the patient?

A

does not correlate with function!

98
Q

What can point you to primary liver disease with ALT?

A

4-5x normal ALT (2ndary will only be 2x high)

99
Q

What are the two cholestatic enzymes?

A

ALP and GGT

100
Q

What are the indications for doing a liver biopsy?

A

persistent elevation of LEA (>1 mo)
altered liver fxn
no identifiable extrahepatic dz
patient deterioration

101
Q

What are hepatic causes of portal hypertension?

A

resistance to flow thru paranchyma
fibrosis
abnormal structure

102
Q

What are sequalae of portal hypertension?

A

acquired shunts
thrombosis
splenomegaly
ascites

103
Q

How is ascites treated in portal hypertension?

A

low sodium diet
diuretics
abdominocentesis
plasma?

104
Q

What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

low protein diet
lactulose - laxative, traps ammonia in colon
antibiotics

105
Q

What is the main infectious cause of acute hepatic failure in dogs? ccats?

A

dogs - lepto

cats - FIP

106
Q

Enlarged kidneys coincide with what hepatic disease?

A

portosystemic shunt

107
Q

Is bilirubin normal or abnormal in portosystemic shunts?

A

NORMAL

108
Q

What are the differences between portosystemic shunts and portal vein hypoplasia?

A

hypoplasia - have normal livers, normal body size

109
Q

What are CS of cholestasis?

A

jaundice, acholic stools

110
Q

What serum chemistry component will be most increased in cholestasis?

A

ALP

111
Q

What may be elevated in chronic hepatitis because of inflammation?

A

globulins

112
Q

What two anti-inflammatory drugs are used for chronic hepatitis?

A

pred and azathioprine (use only after all things ruled out)

113
Q

What drug is anti fibrotic and can be used in chronic hepatitis?

A

colchicine

114
Q

What drug waters down bile and can help treat cholestasis?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

115
Q

What 3 dog breeds have copper storage dz?

A

bedlingtons, west highland terriers, dalmations

116
Q

What lab results will be seen with copper toxicity?

A

hemolytic anemia

ALT most sensitive for dz

117
Q

What chelating agents are used for copper toxicity?

A

D-penicillinamine

Trientine - faster effect for hemolytic anemia

118
Q

What can be added to the diet to increase copper binding in the GI traact?

A

zinc

119
Q

What are common CS of liver disease in cats?

A

hepatomegaly
hypersalivation - HE
jaundice - early sign

120
Q

Why are cats more susceptible to bilirubinemia?

A

deficient in BR conjugation
develop deficiency in protein uptake carriers
need taurine

121
Q

What are the most common causes of jaundice in cats? (important)

A

hepatic lipidosis - 50%
inflammatory (cholangitis) - 25-40%
lymphosarcoma - 7%
FIP

122
Q

Which species does not have renal conjugation of BR?

A

cats - bilirubinuria always significant

123
Q

What liver enzyme is much more specific for the liver in the cat?

A

ALP (and GGT)

124
Q

What can cause an elevation in ALT in cats?

A

hyperthyroidism
intestinal dz
pancreatitis

125
Q

What liver enzyme is elevated the most in cholangitis complex in cats?

A

ALT (doesnt make sense because is hepatocellular enzyme but cats are weird)

126
Q

What is the form of cholangitis that is part of “triaditis” in cats?

A

neutrophilic cholangitis (concurrent pancreatitis and enteritis)

127
Q

Where does lymphocytic cholangitis occur in the cat?

A

limited to portal areas, not in bile ducts

younger persian cats

128
Q

What lab results will be seen with lymphocytic cholangitis in cats?

A

hyperglobulinemia

129
Q

How is lymphocytic cholangitis treated?

A

immunosuppressants?
antibiotics
ursodeoxycholic acid

130
Q

What type of fat accumulates in hepatic lipidosis?

A

triglycerides

131
Q

What lab results will be seen in a cat with hepatic lipidosis?

A

high ALP, normal GGT

132
Q

What is the diagnostic enzyme for pancreas insufficiency?

A

trypsinogen (TLI)

133
Q

What is the most common cause of EPI in dogs? cats?

A

dogs - pancreatic acinar atrophy = end stage of immune mediated lymphocytic pancreatitis
cats - chronic pancreatitis

134
Q

What are the causes of decreased serosal detail in the abdomen?

A 
lack of fat
brown fat
mass effect
peritonitis
carcinomatosis
fluid - BUSH
135
Q

What are radiographic signs of hepatomegaly on lateral view?

A

caudal displacement of gastric axis, right kidney, transverse colon, cranial duodenal flexure

136
Q

What are causes of diffuse hepatomegaly?

A

metabolic - vacuolar hepatopathy (TQ) - steroid induced, diabetes
infiltrative - neoplasia, fat
inflammatory

137
Q

What are the 3 causes of microhepatica?

A

portal shunt, microvascular dysplasia
hepatic cirrhosis
diaphragmatic hernia

138
Q

What is the main cause of pancreatitis?

A

ischemia/hypoperfusion

139
Q

What type of tests for pancreatitis are neither sensitive nor specific in SA?

A

serum amylase and lipase ACTIVITY

140
Q

What is the majority of cancer for dogs, cats in the stomach and intestine?

A

dogs - adenocarcinoma

cats - lymphoma

141
Q

Lymphoma in the GI tract is usually primary or secondary in cat? dog?

A

dog - secondary (metastasis)

cat - primary

142
Q

What kind of cancer do male intact dogs get around their butt?

A

perianal adenoma

143
Q

What butt tumor causes hypercalcemia?

A

AGASACA

144
Q

Whats best diagnosis technique for AGASACA?

A

cytology

145
Q

When are all adult teeth in a horse?

A

5 years

146
Q

What are CS of choke in horses?

A

nasal discharge, salivation, anxious

147
Q

What drug can be used in choke when its in top 2/3 of esophagus in horse?

A

oxytocin

148
Q

What drug can be used in choke in distal part of esophagus?

A

buscopan

149
Q

What are the treatment aspects of IBD in SA?

A

melasamine, fiber, corticosteroids

150
Q

What is another name for histiocytic ulcerative colitis?

A

boxer colitis - esp young males

151
Q

What is the treatment for histiocytic ulcerative colitis?

A

enrofloxacin for 4-8 weeks

152
Q

Which prokinetic does NOT work on constipated patients?

A

metoclopramide

153
Q

What is prokinetic drug of choice for constipation?

A

cisapride

VM 610 Gastroenterology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions