Midterm Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
What is the canine dental formula?
A
2(I3/3, C1/1, P4/P4, M2/M3) = 42
2
Q
What is the feline dental formula?
A
2 (I3/3, C1/1, P3/2, M1/1) = 30
3
Q
What is the mesial surface and distal surface in regards to teeth?
A
mesial- closest to incisor 1, distal, far from incisor 1
4
Q
What tooth when diseased, is associated with classical facial swelling ventral to the eye?
A
upper 4th premolar
5
Q
Which tooth is associated with unilateral swelling of muzzle?
A
2nd and 4rd premolars
6
Q
What cat conformations are assosciated with skeletal malocclusion?
A
brachycephalic cats
7
Q
What is the difference between gingivitis and periodontitis?
A
perio is permenent damage
8
Q
Does small or large bowl diarrhea have a markedly increased frequency?
A
large bowel
9
Q
Does small or large bowel diarrhea usually have tenesmus, urgency, mucus, melena and weight loss?
A
large bowel
10
Q
Does small or large bowel diarrhea have increased volume?
A
small bowel
11
Q
Does small or large bowel diarrhea have frequent vomiting?
A
small bowel
12
Q
Does small or large bowel diarrhea have steatorrhea and depression?
A
small bowel
13
Q
What are CS of acute pulp exosure? chronic?
A
acute - hypersalivation, reluctance to eat
chronic - facial swelling, sneezing, discharge, fistulas
14
Q
Term for demineralization of tooth of loss of tooth structure.
A
dental caries
15
Q
What is the antibiotic of choice for periodontal dz?
A
clavamox for 14 days
16
Q
What multisystemic diseases are associated with periodontal dz?
A
pyelonephritis, COPD, endocardiosis
17
Q
What is the indication for open flap curettage in periodontal dz?
A
pockets are >5mm deep and do not respond to conservative therapy
18
Q
What are the 3 classes of endodontic-periodontal lesions?
A
class 1 - through apex class 2 - through alveolar margin, advance to apex, affects pulp class 3 - seperate endodontic and periodontal lesions (class 1 and 2 combined)
19
Q
What is difference between dental attrition and abrasion?
A
attrition - wearing against other teeth
abrasion - wearing against other objects
20
Q
What is the response of dental pulp to rapid wear?
A
lays down reparative dentin - brown spots
21
Q
What treatment option for endontic dz is for recent fractures in young animals?
A
vital pulpotomy - tooth sealed
22
Q
What are the two most common oral tumors?
A
SCC and melanoma
23
Q
Term for benign gingival proliferation from periodontal ligament.
A
epulides
24
Q
Which SCC of the mouth is highly metastatic?
A
tonsillar SCC
25
What are the two important premucosal small intestinal diseases?
exocrine pancreas insufficiency
| small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
26
What 3 diseases occur in the mucosal small intestine?
IBD
infectious enteropathies - histo, salmon poisoning
neoplasms - lymphoma, adenocarcinoma
27
What 2 diseases occur in the postmucosal part of the small intestine?
lymphatic obstruction
| vascular dz - portal hypertension, dec CO
28
What part of intestine is associated with folate? cobalamin?
folate - upper (first) -> decreased when upper SI dzd
| cobalamin - bacteria bind cobalamin/b12
29
What can be the causes of increase serum folate?
exogenous sources
endogenous - SIBO
mixed
30
How is folate absorbed? How is cobalamin absorbed?
folate - passively (exo source can overcome)
| cobalamin - active transfer in complex in ileum (exo source does not overcome)
31
What breeds are associated with inherited selective cobalamin malabsorption?
giant schnauzer
border collie
beagle
32
If bacteria overgrows in the small intestine, what effect does this have on folate and cobalamin?
folate absorbed
| cobalamin malabsorbed
33
What is the treatment for bacterial overgrowth in the SI?
metronidazole, tylosin
| diet change
34
What serum test has a strong inverse association with reduced digestive function in old cats?
serum vit E and B12
35
What are the two disorders of the cricopharyngeal phase of swallowing?
achalasia (stricture) and asynchrony
36
What is the treatment for cricopharyngeal achalasia?
cricopharyngeal myotomy, ventral midline
37
What kind of muscle makes up the esophagus in the dog? cat?
dog - skeletal muscle entire length
| cat - terminal 1/3 portion is smooth
38
What are the most common tumors of the esophagus?
SCC and sarcomas
39
Which ventral arch in embryology becomes a PRAA?
right 4th ventral arch becomes aorta instead of left
| also left ligamentum arteriosum (normal) becomes part of the problem
40
What breeds get PRAA?
GSD and setters
41
What is the minimum size for an esophagostomy tube?
min 14 french rubber, premeasure to 8th ICS space
42
What percent of canine patients with ectopic ureters only have 1 side affected?
80%
| cats - bilateral more common
43
What ectopic ureter is more common, extramural or intramural?
intramural - travels through urinary bladder wall
44
Medical term for painful swallowing.
odynophagia
45
What are some secondary problems to esophageal dz?
aspiration pneumonia, rhinitis
46
What should you ask in the history with a dog with megaesophagus?
any recent anesthesia?
47
What are hereditary predisposed breeds to primary megaesophagus?
min schnauzer, fox terrier
| may resolve!
48
What are 2 causes of congenital secondary megaesophagus?
myasthenia gravis
| vascular ring anomalies - PRAA (GSD)
49
What are four common causes of acquired megaesophagus?
most common - idiopathic, myasthenia gravis, esophagitis, anesthesia
50
What is endoscopy used for in megaesophagus?
NOT to diagnose, only to assess or treat
51
What treatment option should be avoided for esophageal stricture?
surgery
52
What process of caudate lobe lives on top of right kidney?
caudate process
53
Where does the vena cava run through the liver?
through right lobes
54
Where does most of the blood come from to supply the liver?
portal VEIN (not artery) - 80% of supply
55
What artery does the cystic artery come from?
hepatic artery
56
What is the signalment for hepatic abscess patients?
middle to older aged dogs
57
What is a alternative to surgery for hepatic abcesses?
percutaneous asipiration of abscess and alchoholization
58
What is a common CS in cats with hepatic abscesses?
hypothermic
59
What hepatic lobe is most susceptible to torsion?
left lateral lobe
60
What are the 4 primary tumors of hepatic neoplasia? Which one has a good prognosis?
hepatocellular - only one with okay prognosis
cholangiocellular
neuroendocrine
mesenchymal
61
What is an alternative to surgery for difficult to resect liver tumors?
interventional radiology - chemoembolization, find artery that supplies tumor
62
What is the greatest cause of negative effects from protosystemic shunts?
protein metabolism decreased and decreased toxin clearance
63
What is the most common form of portosystemic shunts?
single congenital extrahepatic shunt - small dogs (portocaval most common)
(large dogs get congenital intrahepatic)
64
What 3 things need to be done medically before bringing a portosystemic shunt patient to surgery?
antibiotics
lactulose - lowers pH in colon, binds ammonia
low protein diet
65
What is the goal of surgery for an extrahepatic shunt?
close vessel slowly to avoid portal hypertension
66
What 4 techniques are used to treat extrahepatic shunts?
ameroid band constrictor
cellophane banding - stimulates inflammation to clot shunt
suture attenuation - partially ligate then 2nd sx
hydraulic occluder - similar to ectopic ureter
67
Will a patient with bile peritonitis have elevated or decreased serum bilirubin?
increased - absorbed into bloodstream
68
Do patients with acute extrahepatic bile obstruction get hypo or hypertension?
hypotension - decreased CO, severe inflammation
69
What breeds are predisposed to biliary mucoceles?
shelties and also dogs that have hypothyroidism and cushings
70
What does a biliary mucocele look like on US?
"kiwi" gall bladder
71
What is the treatment for biliary mucoceles?
medical - water down bile
| surgical - cholecytectomy
72
What surgical technique is preferred for cholelithiasis?
duodenostomy (not jejunostomy), very long incision
73
What is the term for suturing the gall bladder to the small intestine?
cholecystoenterostomy
74
What is the indication for choledochal stenting?
temporary EHBO across which a stent can be passed
75
WHat will be seen on radiographs with a splenic torsion?
"c" shaped spleen, may have concurrent GDV
76
What are the 3 most common tumors of the spleen that cause diffuse enlargement?
lymphosarcoma, mast cell tumor and hemangiosarcoma
77
What organ zone mediates vomiting due to blood borne chemicals?
chemical receptor trigger zone
78
What mediates vomiting due to vestibular dz and motion sickness?
vestibular apparatus via CRTZ to emetic center
79
What center mediates vomiting due to psychogenic factors, head injury, increased ICP?
higher CNS centers, direct connection to EC
80
What anti emetic drug acts at the CRTZ and peripherally?
metoclopramide
81
What drugs act at the CRTZ for refractory vomiting for chemo?
ondansetron, dolasetron, cyproheptadine
82
What anti emetic drug acts on EC, CRTZ and peripheral causes of vomiting?
maropitant citrate
83
What will be seen in a serum chemistry with gastric outflow obstruction?
hypochloric metabolic alkalosis
84
What tests are used for helicobacter?
biopsy, urease test
85
What is the treatment for helicobacter?
antimicrobial - metronidazole, amoxi
| antisecretory
86
What two parasites can cause parasitic gastritis?
physaloptera and ollulanus tricuspis
87
What parasite causes intense fibrosis of the pylorus?
pythium insidiosum
88
What kind of vomiting is associated with reflux gastritis?
vomiting of bile in the morning
89
What breeds are predisposed to gastric neoplasia?
belgian sheepdog, belgian tervuren, chow chow
90
What are CS of pyloric stenosis?
projectile vomiting, minutes to hours PP
91
What are the 3 causes of viral acute diarrhea in SA?
CDV. CPV, FPV(panleukopenia)
92
What are the bacterial causes of acute diarrhea in SA?
clostridia, e. coli, salmonella, campy
93
What is the signalment for hemorrhagic gastroenteritis? CS?
adult small breed dogs, peracute onset, severe
| gel like bloody diarrhea
94
What are the clinical pathology findings in a patient with hemorrhagic gastroenteritis?
hemoconcentration! (PCV >50%)
hypoproteinemia
fecal clostridial endotoxin assay
95
What antibiotics are recommended for parvo?
penicillin + aminoglycoside
96
What enzyme parallels degree of injury of liver?
ALT
97
What do liver enzyme activities NOT tell you about the patient?
does not correlate with function!
98
What can point you to primary liver disease with ALT?
4-5x normal ALT (2ndary will only be 2x high)
99
What are the two cholestatic enzymes?
ALP and GGT
100
What are the indications for doing a liver biopsy?
persistent elevation of LEA (>1 mo)
altered liver fxn
no identifiable extrahepatic dz
patient deterioration
101
What are hepatic causes of portal hypertension?
resistance to flow thru paranchyma
fibrosis
abnormal structure
102
What are sequalae of portal hypertension?
acquired shunts
thrombosis
splenomegaly
ascites
103
How is ascites treated in portal hypertension?
low sodium diet
diuretics
abdominocentesis
plasma?
104
What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?
low protein diet
lactulose - laxative, traps ammonia in colon
antibiotics
105
What is the main infectious cause of acute hepatic failure in dogs? ccats?
dogs - lepto
| cats - FIP
106
Enlarged kidneys coincide with what hepatic disease?
portosystemic shunt
107
Is bilirubin normal or abnormal in portosystemic shunts?
NORMAL
108
What are the differences between portosystemic shunts and portal vein hypoplasia?
hypoplasia - have normal livers, normal body size
109
What are CS of cholestasis?
jaundice, acholic stools
110
What serum chemistry component will be most increased in cholestasis?
ALP
111
What may be elevated in chronic hepatitis because of inflammation?
globulins
112
What two anti-inflammatory drugs are used for chronic hepatitis?
pred and azathioprine (use only after all things ruled out)
113
What drug is anti fibrotic and can be used in chronic hepatitis?
colchicine
114
What drug waters down bile and can help treat cholestasis?
ursodeoxycholic acid
115
What 3 dog breeds have copper storage dz?
bedlingtons, west highland terriers, dalmations
116
What lab results will be seen with copper toxicity?
hemolytic anemia
| ALT most sensitive for dz
117
What chelating agents are used for copper toxicity?
D-penicillinamine
| Trientine - faster effect for hemolytic anemia
118
What can be added to the diet to increase copper binding in the GI traact?
zinc
119
What are common CS of liver disease in cats?
hepatomegaly
hypersalivation - HE
jaundice - early sign
120
Why are cats more susceptible to bilirubinemia?
deficient in BR conjugation
develop deficiency in protein uptake carriers
need taurine
121
What are the most common causes of jaundice in cats? (important)
hepatic lipidosis - 50%
inflammatory (cholangitis) - 25-40%
lymphosarcoma - 7%
FIP
122
Which species does not have renal conjugation of BR?
cats - bilirubinuria always significant
123
What liver enzyme is much more specific for the liver in the cat?
ALP (and GGT)
124
What can cause an elevation in ALT in cats?
hyperthyroidism
intestinal dz
pancreatitis
125
What liver enzyme is elevated the most in cholangitis complex in cats?
ALT (doesnt make sense because is hepatocellular enzyme but cats are weird)
126
What is the form of cholangitis that is part of "triaditis" in cats?
neutrophilic cholangitis (concurrent pancreatitis and enteritis)
127
Where does lymphocytic cholangitis occur in the cat?
limited to portal areas, not in bile ducts
| younger persian cats
128
What lab results will be seen with lymphocytic cholangitis in cats?
hyperglobulinemia
129
How is lymphocytic cholangitis treated?
immunosuppressants?
antibiotics
ursodeoxycholic acid
130
What type of fat accumulates in hepatic lipidosis?
triglycerides
131
What lab results will be seen in a cat with hepatic lipidosis?
high ALP, normal GGT
132
What is the diagnostic enzyme for pancreas insufficiency?
trypsinogen (TLI)
133
What is the most common cause of EPI in dogs? cats?
dogs - pancreatic acinar atrophy = end stage of immune mediated lymphocytic pancreatitis
cats - chronic pancreatitis
134
What are the causes of decreased serosal detail in the abdomen?
```
lack of fat
brown fat
mass effect
peritonitis
carcinomatosis
fluid - BUSH
```
135
What are radiographic signs of hepatomegaly on lateral view?
caudal displacement of gastric axis, right kidney, transverse colon, cranial duodenal flexure
136
What are causes of diffuse hepatomegaly?
metabolic - vacuolar hepatopathy (TQ) - steroid induced, diabetes
infiltrative - neoplasia, fat
inflammatory
137
What are the 3 causes of microhepatica?
portal shunt, microvascular dysplasia
hepatic cirrhosis
diaphragmatic hernia
138
What is the main cause of pancreatitis?
ischemia/hypoperfusion
139
What type of tests for pancreatitis are neither sensitive nor specific in SA?
serum amylase and lipase ACTIVITY
140
What is the majority of cancer for dogs, cats in the stomach and intestine?
dogs - adenocarcinoma
| cats - lymphoma
141
Lymphoma in the GI tract is usually primary or secondary in cat? dog?
dog - secondary (metastasis)
| cat - primary
142
What kind of cancer do male intact dogs get around their butt?
perianal adenoma
143
What butt tumor causes hypercalcemia?
AGASACA
144
Whats best diagnosis technique for AGASACA?
cytology
145
When are all adult teeth in a horse?
5 years
146
What are CS of choke in horses?
nasal discharge, salivation, anxious
147
What drug can be used in choke when its in top 2/3 of esophagus in horse?
oxytocin
148
What drug can be used in choke in distal part of esophagus?
buscopan
149
What are the treatment aspects of IBD in SA?
melasamine, fiber, corticosteroids
150
What is another name for histiocytic ulcerative colitis?
boxer colitis - esp young males
151
What is the treatment for histiocytic ulcerative colitis?
enrofloxacin for 4-8 weeks
152
Which prokinetic does NOT work on constipated patients?
metoclopramide
153
What is prokinetic drug of choice for constipation?
cisapride
