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VM 610 Gastroenterology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What layer of the stomach can be biopsied?

A

only mucosa, cant biopsy submucosa (holding layer)

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2
Q

What is the surgical treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

pyloromyotomy -incision in just seromuscular layer

pyloroplasty - full thickness longitudinal incision

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3
Q

What surgical treatment is preferred for mucosal hypertrophy with pyloric stenosis?

A

Y-U pyloroplasty

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4
Q

What is most common hypertrophic gastropathy?

A

chronic hypertrophic pyloric gastropathy - mucosal hypertrophy

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5
Q

What is most common neoplasia of stomach in dogs? cats?

A

dog - adenocarcinoma

cat - lymphoma

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6
Q

What different pressures does GDV cause?

A

portal hypertension and systemic hypotension

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7
Q

What xray should be taken for GDV?

A

right lateral

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8
Q

What does the latin word for jejunum mean?

A

empty of food - only liquid stuff in it

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9
Q

Where should intestine be incised for foreign body?

A

aboral side, antimesenteric

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10
Q

What type of enemas should never be used in cats?

A

phosphate enemas

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11
Q

Damage to what nerve can cause incontinence?

A

caudal rectal nerve (branch of pudendal)

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12
Q

What muscle becomes atrophied and leads to perineal herniation?

A

levator ani

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13
Q

What is the cause of perineal herniation?

A

hormonal influence, straining, intact males

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14
Q

What age should palatal defects be surgically repaired?

A

3-4 months

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15
Q

What are salivary mucoceles lined by?

A

inflammatory connective tissue (does not have epithelial lining)

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16
Q

If a ranula reoccurs, what glands must be removed?

A

mandibular and sublingual

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17
Q

How is sialoadenitis treated?

A

trial of phenobarbital, address esophageal dz

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18
Q

What salivary glands most commonly get tumors?

A

parotid and mandibular

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19
Q

What are the most common types of salivary gland tumors?

A

malignant adenocarcinomas and carcinomas

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20
Q

How should sutures be placed in repairing an ear hematoma?

A

mattress sutures parallel to incision

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21
Q

What two types of adhesions involve the peritoneum?

A

fibrinous

fibrous - inflammation

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22
Q

What abdominal fluid chemical is 100% sensitive and specific for septic peritonitis in a dog?

A

lactate (>2.0 mmol/L difference from blood)

also glucose very sensitive

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23
Q

When is hyperparathyroidism considered recurrence?

A

occurs again after 6 months after resection

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24
Q

What small ruminant oral virus is contagious to humans?

A

contagious ecthyma

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25
Q

What is the treatment for wooden tongue?

A

systemic sodium iodine

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26
Q

How is bluetongue virus transmitted?

A

culicoides

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27
Q

How is vescular stomatitis transmitted?

A

blackfly vector, direct contact

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28
Q

What is the first thing to be abnormal in rumen fluid in acute rumenal acidosis?

A

decline in protozoa (at pH 5.5)

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29
Q

What causes dehydration in rumenal acidosis?

A

increased rumen osmotic pressure

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30
Q

What are the sequelae of chronic rumenal acidosis?

A

liver abscesses - bad for meat industry

caudal vena caval syndrome - sudden death

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31
Q

WHat are the 3 reasons for metabolic acidosis in an adult cow?

A

rumen acidosis
neurologic (lose saliva)
about to die

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32
Q

How do you diagnose subacute rumen acidosis in a herd?

A

locomotion scoring
decreased milk fat
cud chewing - should be 50%

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33
Q

What are the 3 specific liver specific tests for horses?

A

SDH, GLDH, (acute) and GGT (chronic)

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34
Q

What two organ systems will cause hyperammonemia?

A

GI disease or liver disease

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35
Q

What is equine hyperlipidemias caused by?

A

increased triglycerides, negative energy balance

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36
Q

What are CS of equine hyperlipidemias?

A

nonspecific - reduced water and feed intake, depression

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37
Q

What hormone increases in hyperlipemia in horses?

A

hormone sensitive lipase up-regulated

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38
Q

What two drugs can improve TG uptake in horses?

A

insulin - suppress hormone sensitive lipase

heparin - stimulates lipoprotein lipase

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39
Q

What plants causes chronic megalocytic hepatopathy in horses?

A

pyrrolizidine alkaloid containg plants (cross links DNA)

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40
Q

What are CS of cholelithiasis in horses?

A

icterus, fever, intermittent colic

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41
Q

What bacteria causes Tyzzers disease?

A

clostridium piliforme

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42
Q

What is Tyzzers disease?

A

acute necrotizing hepatitis in foals

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43
Q

What is Theilers disease?

A

acute serum hepatitis - 4-10 weeks after giving biologic of equine origin

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44
Q

What is another name for failure of omasal transport?

A

anterior functional stenosis

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45
Q

What is another name for failure of transpyloric outflow?

A

posterior functional stenosis

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46
Q

What plant can cause cleft palates in calves?

A

poison hemlock

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47
Q

What is tooth eruption schedule in calves?

A

18, 24, 36, 42

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48
Q

What is the most common cause of pharyngeal abcesses in cattle?

A

iatrogenic - balling gun

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49
Q

What are the 4 sources of pain in a colic?

A

stretch, tension, inflammation, infarction

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50
Q

What is the most important thing to evaluate in a colic?

A

pain

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51
Q

What type of colic is associated with severe pain and visible abdominal distention?

A

large colon volvulus

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52
Q

What type of colic starts with severe pain and then pain decreases as the horse becomes depressed?

A

small intestinal dz

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53
Q

What type of colic has low grade persistant pain?

A

impaction

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54
Q

What is the most common lesions that cause colic in small intestine?

A

pedunculated lipoma, ileal impaction, proximal enteritis

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55
Q

How do you differentiate strangulation vs. proximal enteritis?

A

enteritis - febrile, rare in young horses

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56
Q

What is the most common colic in horse?

A

large colon tympany (spasmotic colic)

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57
Q

WHat is the most common lesions that cause colic in the large intestine?

A

fecal impaction and fecaliths

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58
Q

What bacteria is associated with fecal impaction?

A

salmonella

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59
Q

What is the number one reason to bring a horse to surgery for a colic?

A

intractable pain

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60
Q

What types of colic can be managed medically?

A

simple colon displacement
mild to moderate impactions
nephrosplenic entrapment

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61
Q

What are the 2 locations of intraluminal impactions in the small intestine in horses?

A

pylorus, ileal impactions

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62
Q

What are ileal impactions in horses associated with?

A

tapeworm infection, bermuda grass hay

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63
Q

What age of foals get ascarid impactions?

A

5 months

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64
Q

What causes ileal muscular hypertrophy in horeses?

A

ileal impactionas and recurrent colic, unknown etiology

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65
Q

What two species are prone to abdominal adhesions?

A

horses and people

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66
Q

What disease causes a large volue of nasogastric reflux in horses and may cause functional ileus?

A

proximal enteritis (duedonitis-proximal jejunitis)

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67
Q

What age of horses get strangulating lipoma?

A

older than 10 years

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68
Q

What portion of the horse intestine usually becomes entrapped in the epiploic foramen?

A

ileum and jejunum

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69
Q

What age of horses get epiploic foramen entrapment??

A

under 10 years

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70
Q

How do horses get diaphragmatic hernias?

A

congenital (not traumatic)

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71
Q

What is the most common type of scrotal hernia in horses?

A

indirect (contained within vaginal tunic)

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72
Q

What part of the intestine is usually involved in mesenteric rents in horses?

A

jejunum

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73
Q

What age is small intestinal intussusception usually seen in horses?

A

foals (parasitic in origin)

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74
Q

What part of the intestine is most commonly involved in intussceptions in horses?

A

ileocecal

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75
Q

What parasitic infection is associated with intussceptions in horses?

A

chronic tapeworm infestation

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76
Q

What degree cut should be made to increase ostium and ensure vascular supply in horse intestines?

A

60 degrees

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77
Q

What suture patterns are used in single layer anastomosis in horses?

A

minimally inverting cushing or lembert pattern in the serosubmucosa

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78
Q

What must be done if ileum is necrotic after epiploic foramen entrapment?

A

jejunocecostomy

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79
Q

When can horses be given water and food after surgery?

A

water - after 12 hours

hay at 18 hours

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80
Q

What is the most common cecal disease in horses?

A

cecal impaction

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81
Q

What are the causes of cecal impaction?

A

low water intake, hospitalization (due to orthopedics)

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82
Q

How are cecal impactions treated? What is the sequlae of most concern?

A

medically or surgically

high risk of bowel rupture

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83
Q

What is the most common disease of the large colon of the horse? Second common?

A

large colon tympany, gas colic\

2nd - large colon impaction

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84
Q

How is large colon tympany diagnosed?

A

rectal exam - large colon distention

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85
Q

What is the most common disease of the small colon in horses?

A

small colon impaction - isolated intraluminal

86
Q

What treatment is preferred for fecalith small colon impactions?

87
Q

What is the main differential for meconium impaction in foals?

A

atresia coli

88
Q

What is another name for nephrosplenic entrapment of the colon in horses?

A

left dorsal displacement of large colon

89
Q

What is the most painful and lethal GI disease in horses?

A

large colon volvulus

90
Q

What are risk factors for large colon volvulus?

A

brood mares, recent parturition, diet changes, lush pasture

91
Q

What is the age range of calves infected with ETEC?

A

3 days old

92
Q

What is the mechanism for ETEC diarrhea in calves?

A

extrasecretory diarrhea

93
Q

What diarrhea pathogen affects all ages of cows?

A

salmonella - colon and cecum, bloody diarrhea

94
Q

What are the three entry points to cause calf neonatal septicemia?

A

GI tract, ubilicus, resp system

95
Q

What age of calves is affected by rotavius and coronavirus? What part of intestine is affected?

A

up to 2 weeks of age
rota - jejunum - villi tips
corona - distal SI and LI - whole villi

96
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for cryptospordium?

A

fecal float, acid fast fecal stain

97
Q

What is the age of calves affected by cryptosporidium? What part of intestine?

A

10 days to 2 weeks

large colon - mucoid diarrhea

98
Q

What are the 3 factors for getting milk into the abomasum in calves to allow for rumen development?

A

neck position, sucking, composition of milk

99
Q

What diet is needed for optimal rumen development?

A

milk and grain

100
Q

What acid base problem do neonatal calves get with GI disease?

A

metabolic acidosis (also may have hyperkalemia)

101
Q

When should antibiotics be used for calf diarrhea?

A

sepsis - fever

102
Q

What causes squamous mucosal lesions in EGUS in horses?

A

increased acid

103
Q

What causes glandular mucosal lesions in EGUS in horses?

A

impaired mucosal protection and blood flow (NSAIDS)

104
Q

Do ulcers in horses occur more in the squamous or glandular part of the stomach?

A

squamous (80%)

105
Q

What is the best drug for treating EGUS in adults?

A

gastrogard - omeprazole

106
Q

What age of horses does duodenal ulcers occur?

A

more common in foals, similar signs

107
Q

Where is the abomasum located in the cow?

A

15 cm caudal to xyphoid process and 5 cm to right

108
Q

Which way does an RDA twist with volvulus?

A

always twists to left

109
Q

What is a good prognostic indicator for RDAs?

A

lower chloride = worse prognosis

110
Q

What is the term for simultaneous auscultation and ballotment in a cow?

111
Q

Because adult cow diarrhea is more chronic, what clin path tests are useful?

A

fibrinogen, protein

112
Q

What percent of cows have no CS with johnes disease?

113
Q

What age of cows infected as calves shed johnes disease shed the most bacteria?

A

2-15 years

114
Q

What tests should be used for johnes disease screening?

A

fecal culture or PCR

115
Q

What are the two main control measures for johnes disease?

A

removing calves from feces

culling affected animals

116
Q

What small exotic mammals can tolerate carbs?

A

small rodents

117
Q

What is best diagnostic tool for gastric stasis and ileus in small mammals?

A

radiographs! (TQ)

118
Q

What is the treatment for non obstructive ileus in small mammals?

A 
control pain - opiods, then NSAIDs
rehydrate - crystalloids
prokinetics
start feeding
control gas
119
Q

What is most common site for obstruction in small exotic mammals?

120
Q

What are the antibiotics that should NEVER be given to small exotic mammals orally? (TQ)

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides (+/- injectable forms)

121
Q

WHat is the treatment for enteritis in small exotic mammals?

A

cholestyramine

antidiarrheal

122
Q

What is the go-to antibiotic for small mammal exotics?

A

chloramphenicol

123
Q

What is the treatment for gastric impaction in horses?

A

dioctyl sodium succinate (DSS)

124
Q

What is the main CS for gastric neoplasia in horses?

A

chronic weight loss

125
Q

What is the main ddx for anterior enteritis in horses?

A

small intestinal obstruction

126
Q

What antibiotic that can be given IV to bind endotoxins in horses?

A

polymyxin B

127
Q

What is the treatment for IBD in horses?

A

corticosteroids, dietary alternations

128
Q

What kind of bacteria is lawsonia intracellulars?

A

obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria (seagulls)

129
Q

When is the most common time for horses to be infected with l. intracellularis?

A

weanling foals, stress and parsitism

130
Q

What is a useful clin path diagnostic for L. intracellulars?

A

hypoproteinemia with hypoalbuminemia

131
Q

What is the tx for L. intracellularis in horses?

A

macrolides in foals

tetra

132
Q

Which feeds would generate the highest amount of acid in a cow?

A

ground wheat

133
Q

What is the normal pH of the tumen of an adult cow on 70% forage and 30% grain?

134
Q

What is primary (frothy) bloat caused by?

135
Q

What is the treatment for pasture frothy bloat?

A

poloxalene - detergent (ionic surfactant)

136
Q

What technique causes the highest failure rate with a left displaced abomasum?

A

rolling and blind stitch

137
Q

What are the risk factors for abomasal impaction?

A

poor quality forage or pyloric problems

138
Q

What are the symptoms of a cow with rumenal acidosis?

A

staggering (drunken sailor)

139
Q

What are rumen motility disorders most commonly due to?

A

reticuloperitonitis (craninal abdominal peritonitis with adhesions involving reticulum)

140
Q

What is the treatment for feedlot frothy bloat?

A

mineral oil better, can use poloxalene

141
Q

What is the ddx for RDA?

A

cecal dilatation

142
Q

What are the CS and signalment of RDAs?

A

early lactating cows, acutely off feed, dramatic decrease in milk production

143
Q

What are the complications of post surgical RDA cows?

A

loss of motility
ulcers
peritonitis

144
Q

What are the poor prognostic factors for RDA post surgical?

A

large volume of fluid in abomasum
chloride less than 80
discolored serosa

145
Q

What percentage of dairy cows have LDA?

146
Q

WHat are risk factors for LDA?

A

low DMI post partum
low fiber (low NDF)
other dzs (MF, ketosis, retained placenta)
confinement

147
Q

What age of dairy cattle are most susceptible to LDA?

A

2nd + lactation cows (older)

148
Q

What are the CS of LDA?

A

recently calved, sudden decrease in milk, TPR normal, typically ketotic

149
Q

Where is the ping heard on a LDA?

150
Q

What type of animals get abomasal impaction?

A

pregnant beef cattle and sheep

151
Q

What is the cause of abomasal impaction?

A

poor quality forage (chopped forages)

sand (in root crops)

152
Q

What are the CS of abomasal impaction?

A

gradual decreased appetite, weight loss, weakness, bloat

153
Q

What is the serum chemistry pattern for an upper intestinal obstruction?

A

decreased Cl
decreased K
increased HCO3

154
Q

What is the treatment for abomasal impactions?

A

oral fluids + mineral oil
prokinetic drugs
surgery if no respose to tx

155
Q

What are the causes of primary ruminal tympany?

156
Q

What are the causes of secondary ruminal tympany?

A

impaired eructation - choke, mass, impaired motiility

157
Q

What types of plants cause pasture bloat?

A

legumes, cereal grains (no bloat with hay)

158
Q

What can be fed to feedlot cattle to avoid frothy bloat?

A

ionophores, increase particle size of grain

159
Q

What is the signalment for abomasal tympany/abomasitis?

A

ruminants >2 weeks old, bottle fed

160
Q

What are CS of abomasal tympany?

A

acutely off feed with no diarrhea

161
Q

What is the tx for abomasal tympany?

A

PPG

C. perf type C and D antitoxin

162
Q

What are indications for rumenotomy?

A

acute ruminal acidosis
traumatic reticuloperitonitis
rumen outflow problem

163
Q

What are indications for a temporary rumenostomy?

A

chronic bloat - TRP, acidosis, tetanus

164
Q

What are the CS for acute colitis-enterocolitis in horses?

A

profuse watery diarrhea

mod to severe colic

165
Q

What is the cause of colitis-enterocolitis in foals?

A

infectious agents, associated with bacteremia, definitive diagnosis more common

166
Q

What is the diarrhea caused by in colitis-enterocolitis?

A

hypersecretory and malabsorptive (at same time)

167
Q

What is an early indicator of colitis-enterocolitis?

A

“splitting” pcv increased, normo proteinemic

168
Q

What should always be ruled out in colitis-enterocolitis cases in horses?

A

salmonella

169
Q

What causes potomac horse fever?

A

neorickettsia risticii

170
Q

What is the treatment for potomac horse fever?

A

oxytetracycline

171
Q

What is the diagnostic test for potomac horse fever?

A

paired serum samples

def: morula within WBC or PCR of wbcs or feces

172
Q

What is treatment for clostridial colitis in horses?

A

metronidazole

173
Q

What electrolyte should not be given IV in horse colitis cases?

A

sodium bicarbonate - worsens acidosis (because of sodium)

174
Q

What is the most effective NSAID for preventing endotoxin induced prostaglandin synthesis in horses?

A

flunixen meglumine

175
Q

What drug can be helped to reduce laminitis in endotoxin horses?

A

pentoxiphylline

176
Q

What product has been shown to bind to clostridium enterotoxins?

A

diatomaeous earth

177
Q

What is the most common large colon intussception in the horse?

A

cecocolic intussusception

178
Q

What are standardbreds susceptible to in regards to colic?

A

ileum impaction and cecocolic intussusception

179
Q

What disease of the colon is common in post partum mares?

A

mesocolon tear and segmental ischemia - 48 hours post

180
Q

What are the four grades of rectal tears?

A

1 - mucosa and submucosa
2 - muscle layer only
3 - all layers except serosa (3a) or mesorectum (3b)
4 - all layers

181
Q

What grade rectal tears need surgery in horses?

182
Q

What is the difference between 3A and 3B rectal tears?

A

3A is cranial to peritoneal reflection (in peritoneum)

183
Q

What is the treatment for rectal tears grade 1 -3?

A

food deprivation, evacuate rectum, antibiotics, flunixin, laxatives

184
Q

How is the stomach closed?

A

simple continuous in submucosa

inverting in seromuscular (cushing, lembert, connel)

185
Q

Term for taking stomach and suturing to duedoneum.

A

gastroduodenostomy (end to end) - billroth 1

186
Q

Term for taking stomach and suturing to jejunum?

A

gastrojejunostomy (side to side) - billroth 2

187
Q

What abdominal radiograph must be taken for GDV?

A

RIGHT lateral

188
Q

What is the percent of recurrence from a GDV with incisional gastropexy?

189
Q

What is normal intestinal height?

A

less than 2-3x rib width, or 1-2 times height of L2

190
Q

Where you do you shoot a pig to kill it?

A

ear to eye

191
Q

What are other names for e.coli in pigs?

A

ETEC, white scours, wet tail scours

192
Q

What age of pigs get e coli diarrhea?

A

less than 4 days

193
Q

What are the morbidity and mortality of e coli in baby piglets?

A

100% morbidity

75% mortality

194
Q

What is the tx for colibacillosis in piglets?

A

gentamicin, vax

195
Q

What age of piglets are susceptible to TGE?

A

less than 14 days - death
greater than 14 days - probably live
enzootic usually in weaned pigs

196
Q

What is TGE caused by in piglets?

A

coronavirus

197
Q

What is the season for TGE in pigs?

A

epizootic - winter

enzootic - year round

198
Q

What will be seen in TGE during necropsy?

A

thin walled SI

199
Q

What is PEDV caused by?

A

corona virus (pretty much same as TGE)

200
Q

What is the source of coccidiosis in piglets?

A

oocysts in piglet environment (sow NOT source)

201
Q

What age of piglets get coccidiosis?

202
Q

When will you start seeing oocysts in feces with pigs infected with coccidiosis?

A

17 days after infection

203
Q

What will be seen on necropsy with pigs infected with coccidiosis?

A

thickened jejunum and ileum with fibronecrotic covering

204
Q

What is the tx for pigs with coccidiosis?

A

amprolium, decoquinate, sulfas

205
Q

What age of pigs get clostridial perfringes enteritis?

A

less than 7 days

chronic may affect older piglets

206
Q

What antibiotic can be given to sows prior to farrowing to prevent clostridial perfringes enteritis?

207
Q

What will clostridial perfringes diarrhea piglets look like on necropsy?

A

bright red intestine

208
Q

How does clostridium perfringes type A differ from type C?

A

less mortality with type A

209
Q

What age of pigs are affected by rotavirus?

210
Q

What parasite in pigs is also called small intestinal threadworm?

A

strongyloides ransomi

211
Q

What type of salmonella affects weaned pigs?

A

s. cholerasuis

212
Q

What are the CS of brachyspira hyodysenteriae?

A

mucohemorrhagic colitis - must do wet mount

VM 610 Gastroenterology (2 decks)

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