Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VM 610 Derm > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

What are the hair cycle growth phases?

A

anagen - growth
catagen - transition
telogen - resting
shedding - mosaic pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can anagen:telogen ratio help diagnose?

A

cause of alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Term for small solid elevation of the skin.

A

papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Term for solid elevation of skin with a flattened top less than 1 cm

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Term for a circumscribed flat spot with change in color of the skin

A

macule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Term for sharply circumscribed elevation of the skin filled with serum/blood

A

vesicle/bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is skin scraping done for sarcoptes and notedres mites?

A

scrape area of active crusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is skin scraping done for demodex mites?

A

squeeze skin while scraping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 dermatophytes seen on KOH preperations and what do they look like?

A

M. gypseum - sparse chaings 5-8 m
M. canis - dense masses 5-8 m
T. metagrophytes - dense chains 3-7m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do the 3 dermatophyes look like with india ink?

A

M canis - macroconidia w/ thick walls more than 6 cells, asymmetric
M. gypseum - thin walled, less than 6
T. mentagrophytes - cigar/club shaped with thin smooth walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is epidermal turnover for dogs and humans?

A

dogs - 22 days

humans - 28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What 3 ingredients in shampoos are humectants?

A

propylene glycol, urea, glycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does chlorohexidine do to the skin?

A

binds to stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first line of antibiotics for skin infections?

A

narrow gram + : lincomycin, erythromycin, clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which shampoo ingredient is synergistic with sulfur?

A

salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What shampoo ingredient is the most effective antifungal?

A

miconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What shampoo ingredient is keratolytic, antibacterial and anti yeast and can be irritating?

A

selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What shampoo ingredient binds antigens and has anti cyclooxegenase activity?

A

colloidal oatmeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What shampoo ingredient is a topical anesthetic?

A

pramoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the pH of dog, cat, and human skin?

A

dog - 7.5
cat - 6-7
human - 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the number of epidermal layers of dog, cat, and human skin?

A

dog and cat - 3 to 5

human - 10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What shampoo ingredients are topical calcineurin inhibitors and block T cell function?

A

tracolimus and picrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What ointment ingredient blocks activity of isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase thereby blocking protein synthesis?

A

mupiracin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is mupiracin given to eliminate/reduce carraige of MRSA?

A

intranasally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do retinoid creams work?

A

decrease sebaceous gland secretions, anti inflammatory, activity against some cutaneous tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the actions of zinc gluconate cream?

A

normalization of keratinization
down regulates sebum production
synergistic with vit B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What group of shampoo ingredients decreases bacterial colonization and is antiinflammatory?

A

oligosaccharides

prevents binding of lectin with exogenous carbs?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which shampoo ingredient raises pruritic threshold?

A

menthol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What shampoo contains oligosacchardies?

A

allermyl shampoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What shampoo ingredient forms a protective film and acts as a moisturizing agent?

A

chitosanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the actions of phytosphingosine?

A

does everything, repair of epidermal permeability barrier, anti seborrheic, anti inflamm, anti microb
(pro ceramide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What shampoo ingredient repairs split ends by binding to hair keratin?

A

hydrolyzed proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What shampoo ingredient is best at follicle flushing?

A

benzoyl peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What shampoo ingredient is most potent keratoplastic agent?

A

tar??????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What 2 shampoo ingredients are toxic to cats?

A

hexachlorophene and tar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between humectants and emollients?

A

emollients - smooth skin, decrease water evaporation

humectants - attract and bind water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common skin dz of dogs?

A

recurrent superficial staphylococcal pyoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What antibiotics are used in mixed/deep skin infections?

A

fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When should systemic antibiotics be given to a patient with pyotraumatic dermatitis?

A

satellite lesions or folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the term for superficial pustular dermatitis, usually seen in young dogs in the groin area?

A

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What bacteria in involved in superficial pyoderma in dogs?

A

staph pseudintermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the treatment for nasal pyodermas?

A

dry off, systemic antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What 2 skin infections are just surface pyodermas?

A 
acute moist dermatitis
fold pyoderma (intertrigo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is another name for fold pyoderma?

A

intertrigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What 2 skin infections are superficial pyodermas?

A

impetigo

recurrent superficial staph pyoderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the treatment for puppy strangles?

A

systemic antibiotics and systemic corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is callus pyoderma treated?

A

prevent trauma, systemic antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How long should deep pyodermas be treated?

A

2 weeks beyond clinical cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte in dogs and especially cats?

A

microsporum canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What dermatophyte is found on rodents?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do dermatophyte infections look in the dog? cat?

A

dog - peripherally expanding crusts/alopecia

cat - generalized alopecia/folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most reliable test for dermatophytes?

A

fungal culture, then examine under microscope for ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What technique is used to screen cats that are asymptomatic for dermatophytes?

A

mackenzie collection technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where do dermatophytes grow in the skin?

A

migrate down shaft of hair into keratogenous zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which antifungal works by inhibiting the cell wall of dermatophytes?

A

griseofulvin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What antifungals work by inhibiting p450?

A

Itraconazole and ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What antifungal inhibits ergosterol synthesis in dermatophytes?

A

terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What dermatophyte drugs should the patient be monitored for liver enzymes?

A

itraconazole, ketoconazole, terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What should be monitored in a patient given griseofulvin?

A

CBC - bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the treatment for a cattery infected with dermatophytes?

A

topical and systemic therapy for + cats
topical for neg cats
treat until all cats culture neg 3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the lesions seen with crypto?

A

cutaneous lesions, pulmonary dz, ocular, neurologic involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How is crypto diagnosed?

A

cytology, biopsy, serology, culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating crypto?

A

itraconazole, treat 1 month past titer negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What drugs are used if crypto has neurological involvement?

A

fluconazole

flucytosine + ampho B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What breed of dogs is predisposed to infection with pythium (swamp cancer, oomyces)?

A

GSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is pythium infection treated?

A

aggressive sx, itraconazole + terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the signalment for dogs at risk of blastomycosis?

A

young male dogs of large/sporting breed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

For which deep mycosis infections is culture not recommended?

A

histoplasmosis, coccidiomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which deep fungal infections are zoonotic?

A

crypto and histo?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is malessezia disease transmitted?

A

opportunist, normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How does a wood’s lamp work?

A

reacts with tryptophan in hairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Term for ingrown claw.

A

onchyocryptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the length of HPA suppression for cortisone and hydrocortisone?

A

8-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What 2 cortisol drugs last 36 to 72 hours?

A

betamethasone, dexmethasone

75
Q

What breed is predisposed to malessezia dermatitis?

A

basset hounds

76
Q

What is the most common flea species on dogs and cats?

A

Ctencephalides felis

77
Q

Drug that inhibits chitin formation in young fleas and prevents reproduction.

A

Lufenuron

78
Q

Term for inflamed claw folds.

A

Paroncychia

79
Q

What are the indications for performing a skin biopsy?

A

neoplasia, persistant ulcerations, non-responsive

80
Q

What types of skin conditions can be treated with tacrolimus?

A

immune mediated skin dz

81
Q

WHen do flea eggs hatch? molt?

A

hatch in 1-10 days

molt in 5-11 days

82
Q

Which flea products are toxic to cats?

A

permethrins - cyphenothrin

productgs - certifect, parastar plus, advantix, vectra 3d

83
Q

What flea drugs are insect growth regulators and kill eggs/larvae?

A

mehtoprene or ovitrol

84
Q

What flea drugs is a GABA receptor antagonist and works on fleas and ticks?

A

fipronyl

85
Q

What flea drug interferes with neuronal transmission in flea?

A

imidacloprid (advantage)

86
Q

What additional drug does advantage 2 have in it besides imidacloprid?

A

pyriproxyfen - added development inhibitor

87
Q

What are the ingredients of advantix?

A

imidaclopride and permethrin

88
Q

What are the ingredients of advantage multi?

A

imidacloprid and moxidectin - does hw, intestinal parasites and mites

89
Q

What drug is more effective in cats than dogs and does fleas, ticks and mites?

A

selamectin (revolution)

90
Q

What is the ingredient in capstar?

A

nitenpyram - adulticide

91
Q

What is the ingrdient in comfortis?

A

spinosad -both cats and dogs, may lower seizure threshold

92
Q

What type of mite requires deep skin scraping and squeezing of the skin?

A

demodex canis

93
Q

What demodex mite prefers sebaceous glands and presents as a greasy haircoat?

A

demodex injai

94
Q

What are two common differential diagnoses for canine demodicosis?

A

sarcoptic mange, pyodermatitis flea allergy dermatitis

95
Q

What are the CS of sarcoptes in dogs?

A

ventral distribution, erythemetaous papule and crust, alopecia

96
Q

How is sarcoptes treated?

A

keratolytic shampoo, steroids, miticides

97
Q

What are the different types of miticide drugs?

A

lime sulfur dip, amitraz dip, selamectin, ivermectin, milbemycin, advantage multi

98
Q

How is cheyletiella treated?

A

treat all animals, treat envment, keratolytic shampoo, lime sulfur dip, fipronil, selamectin

99
Q

Which parasitic skin dz is corticosteroids contraindicated?

A

demodicosis

100
Q

What parasite is associated with the pinnal-pedal reflex?

A

sarcoptes

101
Q

Which mites have the worst pruritis?

A

sarcoptes, notoedres cati (feline scabies), cheyletiella

102
Q

What is the pathogenesis of color mutant alopecia?

A

clumping of melatonin within hair shafts makes them fragile

103
Q

How are color mutant alopecia dogs treated?

A

follicule flushing shampoos, humectants, melatonin

104
Q

WHat breeds get dermatomyositis?

A

shelties and collies

105
Q

How is dermatomyositis treated?

A

pentoxyphylline, tetracycline, pred, tacrolimus

106
Q

What is the pathogenesis of acral mutilation sydnrome?

A

sensory neuropathy - degeneration of dorsal ganglia

107
Q

What is the pathogenesis of cutaneous asthenia?

A

defect in collagen synthesis, tears easily

108
Q

What breeds get lethal acrodermatitis?

A

bull terriers - unable to utilize zinc

109
Q

What is the survival time of dogs with lethal acrodermatitis?

A

7 months

110
Q

What breed is predisposed to epidermal dysplasia?

A

west highland terriersq

111
Q

What breeds are predisposed to sebaceous adenitis?

A

standard poodles, akita, vizsla, samoyed

112
Q

What is the prognosis for sebaceous adenitis?

A

no cure, minimize symptoms

113
Q

What is sebaceous adenitis?

A

atrophy of sebaceous glands - dorsum, face, ears

114
Q

How is sebaceous adenitis diagnosed?

A

biopsy shows no sebaceous glands, ddx is cushings

115
Q

How is sebaceous adenitis treated?

A

follicle flushing shampoos, moisturizers, treat 2ndary infections

116
Q

How is ichthyosis diagnosed?

A

skin biopsy

117
Q

How is ichthyosis treated?

A

hydrotherapy, topical antiseborrhics, emollients, keratolytic/keratoplastic shampoos

118
Q

What breed of cat is predisposed to primary seborrhea oleosa?

A

persians and himalayans

119
Q

What breeds are affected by pattern baldness?

A

dachsunds, boston terrier, chihuahua

120
Q

Syndrome that causes spontaneous lacerations to heal in loose folds.

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, rubber puppy dz

121
Q

What is the normal skin extensibility in dogs?

A

9-16% (ehlers has 18-24%)

122
Q

Disease where there is blistering and sloughing of skin on footpads/extremities.

A

epidermolysis bullosa

123
Q

How is epidermolysis bullosa diagnosed?

A

nikolskys sign, skin biopsy

124
Q

What disease is when comedones and crusted papules form along dorsal midline?

A

schnauzer comedone syndrome

125
Q

What must be ruled out before schnauzer comedone syndrome is diagnosed?

A

everything - mites, fungus, staph, malessezia, cushings

126
Q

What breeds are predisposed to vitamin A responsive dermatitis>

A

cocker spaniels

127
Q

What are the CS of vitamin A responsive dermatitis?

A

seborrhea, follicular plugging, hyperkeratotic plaques

128
Q

What breeds are predispsed to zinc responsive dermatosis?

A

huskies, malamutes, bull terriers

129
Q

What is the pathognomic sign associated with zinc responsive dermatosis?

A

parakeratotic hyperplasia (retention of nuclei in keratized layer)

130
Q

What are the causes of syndrome II zinc responsive dermatosis?

A

oversupplementation of calcium or phytates (decreases zinc)

131
Q

What topical therapy should be used in seborrhea?

A

medicated shampoos, emollients for sicca form, vitamin A, treat underlying cause

132
Q

What are indications for systemic retinoids?

A

sebaceous adenitis and idiopathic seborrhea

133
Q

What 3 breeds have an increased incidence of seasonal flank alopecia?

A

airedale terrier, bulldog, boxer

134
Q

What are four breeds with an increased incidence of alopecia X?

A

pomeranian, chow chow, keeshond, samoyed (plush coated breeds)

135
Q

What is lesion distribution in alopecia X?

A

head and extremities - dry haircoat, alopecia

136
Q

What are the CS of feline solar dermatitis?

A

erythema and alopecia of ear tips –> ulceration of non pigmented areas –> SCC

137
Q

Term for UV light damage

A

actinic

138
Q

What type of dogs are predisposed to actinic keratosis?

A

white breeds

139
Q

What behavioral drug acts by prolonging serotonin activity?

A

fluoxetine (SSRI)

140
Q

What behavioral drug is condraindicated with amitraz?

A

L-deprenyl (MAO inhibitor)

141
Q

What 2 drugs can be used for feline psychogenic alopecia and dermatitis?

A

fluoxetine and clomipramine

142
Q

What are the antigens involved in pemphigus?

A

Desmoglein 1 - superficial (foliaceus)

Desmoglein 3 - deeper (vulgaris), mucocutaneous jxns

143
Q

What skin layer has active mitosis?

A

stratum basale

144
Q

Which layer of the skin is keratin synthesized?

A

stratum spinosum

145
Q

How to decrease contagiousness of cat with m. canis infection?

A

lime sulfur dips

146
Q

What is lesion distribution for atypical mycobacterial linfections in cats?

A

inguinal fat pads

147
Q

What lesion distribution is associated with demodex gatoi?

A

alopecia localized to ventral abdomen

148
Q

What antifungal causes vomiting in cats?

A

ketoconazole

149
Q

What drug causes bone marrow suppression especially in FIV/Felv cats?

A

griseofulvin

150
Q

What drug causes drug induced vasculitis in dogs?

A

itraconazole

151
Q

What antifungal drug is nephrotoxic?

A

amphotericin B

152
Q

What flea med is safe to use in rabbits?

A

advantage

153
Q

What demodecosis has pruritis on abdomen?

A

sarcoptes

154
Q

What percent of hair pluck in telogen phase points to endocrinopathy?

A

> 90%

155
Q

What parasite lives in straw bedding?

A

pelodera strongyloides

156
Q

What disease is associated with sandy soil?

A

coccidiomycosis

157
Q

What fungal infection is associated with river valleys?

A

histoplasmosis

158
Q

What fungal infection is associated with construction and beaver dams?

A

blastomycosis

159
Q

What drug causes gingival hyperplasia?

A

cyclosporin

160
Q

What drug groups cause KCS?

A

sulfa drugs

161
Q

What drug causes sterile hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

cyclophasphamide

162
Q

What are the roles of omega 3 and omega 6 in the skin?

A

3- decrease inflammation

6 - barrier function

163
Q

What type of immune reaction is involved in systemic lupus erythematous and bullous pemphigoid?

A

type 2 - damage by IgG, IgM, and C3

164
Q

What type of immune reaction is involved in systemic/discoid lupus erythematous?

A

type 3 - immune complexes

165
Q

What type of immune reaction is uveodermatologic syndrome?

A

type 4 - t cell mediated, delayed

166
Q

What type of immune reaction is pemphigus?

A

type 5 - antibodies bind to desmoglien, form blister

167
Q

Which pemphigus disease is found in chows, akitas, and cocker spaniels?

A

pemphigus foliaceous

168
Q

What is the lesion distribution of P. foliaceous?

A

dorsum of nose, feet, pinna, periocular, abdomen, paw pads

169
Q

Which pemphigus disease is seen in collies and GSDs?

A

pemphigus erythematosus

170
Q

What is the lesion distribution for pemphigus erythematosus?

A

face, pinna, nose, paws, genitals

171
Q

What pemphigus disease is seen on oral and mucocutaneous junctions?

A

P. vulgaris, bullous pemphigoid

172
Q

Which pemphigus disease can sometimes be treated topically?

A

P. erythematosus

173
Q

Which pemphigus disease has no acantholytic keratinocytes and a grave prognosis?

A

bullous pemphigoid

174
Q

What is an alternative for treatment for cats with pemphigus foliaceous? SE?

A

chlorambucil

SE - myelosuppression

175
Q

What disease is caused by degeneration of basal epidermis with no acantholytic cells?

A

discoid lupus erythematous

176
Q

What is the treatment for discoid lupus erythematous?

A

avoid sunlight, topical glucocorticoids/tacrolimus

177
Q

What vaccine is associated with focal cutaneous vasculitis in dogs?

A

rabies

178
Q

What derm disease is caused by autoimmune reaction to melanin?

A

uveodermatological syndrome

179
Q

What drug is last resort in treating autoimmune skin disorders?

A

cyclophosphamide

180
Q

What autoimmune derm drug is toxic to cats and causes myelosuppression?

A

azathioprine

181
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine?

A

toxic to T cells, slow onset

182
Q

What drug targets TH2 cells to inhibit cytokine release and inhibits langerhan cells?

A

cyclosproine

183
Q

What type of immune reaction is atopy? contact dermatitis?

A

atopy - 1-4

contact - type 4

VM 610 Derm (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions