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Pers 2499 > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Who did the formal practice of medicine begin with?

A

Greeks and Romans

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2
Q

What combining form refers to blood?

A

hemat/o

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3
Q

What are medical terms composed of?

A

combining forms, prefixes, and suffixes

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4
Q

What is a suffix?

A

An ending that modifies the meaning of a root word

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5
Q

Aden/o is an example of what?

A

A combining form

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6
Q

What is the meaning of the suffix –trophy?

A

Development

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7
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix ecto- ?

A

Outside

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8
Q

What is the meaning of the prefix trans- ?

A

Across or through

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9
Q

What prefix means “slow”?

A

Brady-

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10
Q

What prefix means “backward” or “behind”?

A

Retro-

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11
Q

What prefix means “bad”?

A

Mal-

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12
Q

What combining form means “bone”?

A

Oste/o

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13
Q

An endocrinologist is ____?

A

someone who specializes in studying hormonal problems

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14
Q

What is a macrocyte?

A

A very large cell

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15
Q

What is an osteoma?

A

A type of blood cell

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16
Q

What combining form refers to the kidneys?

A

Nephr/o

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17
Q

What is an electrocardiogram?

A

A record of electrical activity in the heart

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18
Q

What is a tracheotomy?

A

An incision of the trachea

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19
Q

What suffix means “formation”?

A

-form

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20
Q

What prefix means “without”?

A

Semi-

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21
Q

What suffix means pain?

A

-stasis

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22
Q

Who wrote the first code of ethics for physicians?

A

Hippocrates

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23
Q

What body system does the field of orthopedics deal with?

A

Musculoskeletal

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24
Q

Which of the following organs is not considered a visceral organ?

  • skin
  • kidneys
  • liver
  • stomach
  • heart
A

Skin

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25
Q

Which pair of directional terms share the same meaning?

  • inferior and caudal
  • proximal and medial
  • lateral and dorsal
  • superior and ventral
  • anterior and dorsal
A

Inferior and caudal

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26
Q

What is cytology?

A

The study of cells

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27
Q

How are the patient’s arms positioned in the anatomical position?

A

At the sides with the palms facing forward

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28
Q

Which of the following pairs of directional terms have opposite meanings?

  • anterior and lateral
  • inferior and posterior
  • superior and posterior
  • posterior and medial
  • proximal and distal
A

Proximal and distal

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29
Q

What does lateral mean?

A

Toward the side of the body or structure

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30
Q

Near the surface.

A

Superficial

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31
Q

Visceral.

A

Covering the surface of an inner organ

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32
Q

Which of the following body positions might be used for an examination of the posterior body surfaces?

  • Trendelenburg
  • prone
  • dorsal recumbent
  • lithotomy
  • supine
A

Prone

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33
Q

Which of the following body positions does not require the patient to lie on his or her back?

  • modified Trendelenburg
  • supine
  • dorsal recumbent
  • Trendelenburg
  • Sims’
A

Sims

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34
Q

What body positions may be used during child birth?

A

Dorsal recumbent and lithotomy

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35
Q

Fowler’s position is most similar to what other body position?

A

Sitting

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36
Q

Which pair of direction plane terms has the same meaning?

A

Transverse and horizontal

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37
Q

What is the bending of a joint referred to as?

A

Supination

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38
Q

Which pair of movement terms do not have opposite meanings?

  • dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
  • circumduction and eversion
  • supination and pronation
  • flexion and extension
  • abduction and adduction
A

Circumduction and eversion

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39
Q

Which pair of terms refers specifically to the movement of the foot?

  • supination and pronation
  • dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
  • flexion and extension
  • eversion and inversion
  • circumduction and eversion
A

Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

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40
Q

What is it called when you turn the palm of your hand upward?

A

Supinating

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41
Q

Which abdominopelvic region is in the lower middle position, under the navel?

  • right lumbar
  • epigastric
  • hypogastric
  • left lumbar
  • umbilical
A

Hypogastric

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42
Q

Which abdominopelvic region is in the upper right position, beneath the ribs?

  • umbilical
  • right hypochondriac
  • right inguinal
  • epigastric
  • right lumbar
A

Right hypochondriac

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43
Q

Which of the following abdominopelvic regions is in the uppermost position?

  • epigastric
  • umbilical
  • left inguinal
  • hypogastric
  • right lumbar
A

Epigastric

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44
Q

Which two spinal divisions contain fused vertebrae?

  • coccygeal and cervical
  • sacral and coccygeal
  • sacral and thoracic
  • thoracic and lumbar
  • cervical and thoracic
A

Sacral and coccygeal

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45
Q

Microscopic study of tissues.

A

Histology

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46
Q

The lumbar spinal division corresponds to which region of the back?

A

Loin

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47
Q

The buccal body region refers to the what area?

A

Cheek

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48
Q

Which body region term is used for the arm?

A

Brachial

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49
Q

If you are kicked in the shin, what type of injury might you sustain?

A

Crural

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50
Q

Another term for sonography is?

A

Ultrasound

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51
Q

This medical imaging technique uses sensitized film to capture the energy waves generated by a cathode ray tube.

A

X-rays

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52
Q

Which imaging technique was used in shoe stores from the 1930s through the 1950s to assess how well shoes fit?

A

Fluoroscopy

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53
Q

Computed tomography uses computerized interpretation of what to produce images?

A

X-rays

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54
Q

An image on x-ray film is referred to as what?

A

Radiogram

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55
Q

Which term refers to x-rays of the spinal cord?

A

Myelography

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56
Q

What type of tissue is found throughout the body and covers internal and external surfaces?

A

Epithelial tissue

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57
Q

The surgical removal of a body part is referred to as what?

A

Resection

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58
Q

The instrument used to separate or hold tissues apart during surgery is called what?

A

Retractor

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59
Q

In a prescription, the abbreviation p.o. means what?

A

By mouth

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60
Q

Which unit of drug measurement belongs to the apothecary system rather than the metric system?

A

Dram

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61
Q

What abbreviation is used to indicate immediately?

A

Stat

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62
Q

In a subcutaneous injection, where is the drug injected?

A

Just beneath the skin

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63
Q

The pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchial tubes are major structures in the ____ system.

A

Respiratory

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64
Q

What is the purpose of a scratch test?

A

To determine the patients particular allergy

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65
Q

A surgical procedure removes a cancer layer by layer and tests each layer before removing the next.

A

Mohs technique

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66
Q

For what is the surgical procedure known as debriding used?

A

Removing eschar from a burn victim

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67
Q

What is hyaluronic acid?

A

A natural sugar molecule

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68
Q

Which topical cosmetic procedure uses glycolic acid or phenol to create smoother skin?

A

Chemical peels

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69
Q

According to the rule of nines, a burn covering a person’s chest and abdomen would account for this percentage of the body.

A

18%

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70
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands found?

A

Armpits and genital areas

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71
Q

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with third degree burns?

  • skin grafts are usually required
  • minimal fluid loss
  • complete destruction of the dermis
  • tissue death extends into subcutaneous layer
  • complete destruction of the epidermis
A

Minimal fluid loss

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72
Q

The small tube-like structures within which hair is formed are called ____.

A

Follicles

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73
Q

What is the term for hair’s growing phase?

A

Anagen

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74
Q

The highly vascular epithelial cells beneath fingernails and toenails are referred to as the ____.

A

Nail bed

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75
Q

Skin, hair, and nails are part of the ____ system.

A

Integumentary

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76
Q

Where are the new keratinized cells of the nail produced?

A

Nail root

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77
Q

The ____ portion of the skin protects against pathogenic and chemical entry into the body.

A

Stratum corneum

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78
Q

How does the skin function in temperature regulation?

A

Sweat glands help release heat, subcutaneous insulation stores heat, the epidermis reflects more or less heat based in body temperature

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79
Q

From the combining form contained in the word hidrosis, you know its meaning has something to do with the ____.

A

Sweat glands

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80
Q

In addition to derm/o and dermat/o, this combining form also means skin.

A

Cutane/o

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81
Q

Product of the sebaceous glands.

A

Sebum

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82
Q

Medical term for a freckle.

A

Ephelis

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83
Q

The term apocrine means relating to the ____.

A

Sweat glands

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84
Q

The medical term for a mole or birthmark is ____.

A

Nevus

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85
Q

The protective layer of moist, white, cheese-like substance covering the newborn is called the ____.

A

Vernix caseosa

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86
Q

The medical specialty concerned with the integumentary system is ____.

A

Dermatology

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87
Q

What is lanugo?

A

The fine hair on a newborn

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88
Q

____ is the term for the bluish color observed around the lips, hands, fingernails, feet, and toenails of some newborns.

A

Acrocyanosis

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89
Q

Which of the following conditions is not one change associated with pregnancy?

  • striae
  • vascular spiders
  • alopecia
  • linea nigra
  • chloasma
A

Alopecia

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90
Q

The small, punctate, slightly raised bright red dots that appear on the trunk during middle age are called ____.

A

Cherry angiomas

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91
Q

By what common name are senile lentigines known?

A

Liver spots

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92
Q

Ringworm is caused by a ____.

A

Fungus

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93
Q

One of the most common disorders of the skin is ____, an inflammation of the skin that may be caused by contact with an allergen.

A

Dermatisis

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94
Q

What is the medical term for cradle cap?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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95
Q

The majority of skin cancers are

A

Basal cell carcinomas

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96
Q

A raised, erythematous, irregularly shaped area that is transient (as exemplified by the allergic reaction to a mosquito bite) is called a

A

Wheal

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97
Q

What type of skin lesion is associated with both impetigo and acne?

A

Pustule

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98
Q

This type of skin lesion is a round, flat, pigmented area and is exemplified by measles and freckles.

A

Macule

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99
Q

This secondary skin lesion is connective tissue that remains after a skin lesion has healed.

A

Scar

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100
Q

The secondary skin lesion known as a fissure is a

A

linear crack that extends into the dermis

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101
Q

This term is used to describe reddened abrasions, usually from itching.

A

Excoriation

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102
Q

What is hirsutism?

A

Excessive hair growth

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103
Q

In which racial/ethnic group would you not find Mongolian spots?

A

Caucasians

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104
Q

____ is an inflammation of the skin caused by an allergic response.

A

Atopic dermatitis

105
Q

New skin cells are formed in the ____.

A

Stratum germinativum

106
Q

This is an orange pigment transported via the blood that results in a change in skin color.

A

Carotonemia

107
Q

What is keratosis?

A

A lesion formed form an overgrowth of the horny layer of skin

108
Q

This term refers to the overactivity of the sebaceous glands.

A

Seborrhea

109
Q

This diagnostic procedure involves removing a sample of affected tissue and examining it under the microscope.

A

Biopsy

110
Q

What is the function of the articular cartilage found on the epiphyses of long bones?

A

To cushion the joint where two bones meet

111
Q

The existence of this feature in the long bones indicates that bone growth is complete.

A

Epiphyseal line

112
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cartilage is not true?

  • It lacks a blood supply.
  • It receives its nutrients by a process called diffusion.
  • It consists of collagen fibers embedded in a gelatinous substance.
  • It is made up of cells called chondrocytes.
  • It heals very quickly after an injury.
A

It heals very quickly after an injury.

113
Q

What do tendons connect?

A

Muscles to bones

114
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

Prevents friction between the bone and the joint

115
Q

What combining form is used to refer to the fingers or toes?

A

pod/o

116
Q

This combining form refers to the foot.

A

pod/o

117
Q

____ is the movement of molecules from one area to another to produce a uniform population in both.

A

Resorption

118
Q

What is the name of the bone in the arm between the shoulder and elbow?

A

Humerus

119
Q

The area inside a bone that contains the bone marrow is called the ____.

A

Medullary cavity

120
Q

Which pair of terms for the types of muscle tissue has the same meaning?

  • skeletal muscle; smooth muscle
  • smooth muscle; cardiac muscle
  • skeletal muscle; voluntary muscle
  • cardiac muscle; voluntary muscle
  • voluntary muscle; smooth muscle
A

skeletal muscle; voluntary muscle

121
Q

What does the masseter muscle do?

A

Closes the jaw during chewing

122
Q

What is the only bone in the human body that does not articulate with another bone?

A

Hyoid

123
Q

A podiatrist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the ____.

A

Foot

124
Q

What muscle is responsible for flexing the arm?

A

Biceps brachii

125
Q

During exercise, the rate and depth of respiration increases to replace the extra oxygen being used by the muscles. This an example of how the body attempts to ____.

A

Maintain homeostasis

126
Q

Insufficient oxygenation during exercise results in a buildup of ____, which causes muscle pain.

A

Lactic acid

127
Q

Chondritis is an inflammation of the

A

Cartilage

128
Q

Which of the following combining forms means pertaining to movement?

  • articul/o
  • ankyl/o
  • tend/o
  • my/o
  • kinesi/o
A

Kinesi/o

129
Q

A ____ is a band of fibrous tissue connecting two or more bones.

A

Ligament

130
Q

Which of the following pairs of combining forms share the same meaning?

  • kinesi/o and chondr/o
  • muscul/o and my/o
  • tendin/o and my/o
  • asthen/o and fibr/o
  • ankyl/o and arthr/o
A

Muscul/o and my/o

131
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

A break in the softer, more pliable bone of an infant

132
Q

The areas where the bones of the skull meet are called ____.

A

Suture lines

133
Q

This congenital musculoskeletal deformity results in the feet being turned outward.

A

Metatarsus valgus

134
Q

Human bones are categorized into one of four categories based on their shape. Which of the following is not one of those categories?

  • flat bones
  • round bones
  • short bones
  • long bones
  • irregular bones
A

Round bones

135
Q

What is the congenital malformation known as syndactyly?

A

Webbed or fused fingers or toes

136
Q

What is the usual method of treating the abnormality known as genu valgum (knock-knee)?

A

The condition generally disappears by age three

137
Q

What is the common name for the abnormality called pes planum?

A

Flatfoot

138
Q

It is not uncommon to see this spinal deformity, known as humpback, in teenagers.

A

Kyphosis

139
Q

This change in a pregnant woman’s posture is known commonly as swayback.

A

Lordosis

140
Q

Nearly all persons over age sixty have signs of this condition.

A

Osteoarthritis

141
Q

Gout is a metabolic disorder caused by an accumulation of ____ in the joints.

A

Uric acid

142
Q

The most common orthopedic operation performed on the older adult population involves this joint.

A

Hip

143
Q

What is the medical term for the condition commonly known as tennis elbow?

A

Epicondylitis

144
Q

A ____ is an incomplete dislocation, where there is some articulation between the bone and the joint.

A

Subluxation

145
Q

This fibrous membrane lines the cavity within the long bones that contains bone marrow.

A

Endosteum

146
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

A fluid-filled cyst that appears over a tendon

147
Q

Osteosarcoma is a malignancy arising from ____.

A

Bone

148
Q

Osteosarcoma occurs most frequently in this phase of life.

A

Puberty

149
Q

____ is a condition resulting from lack of blood supply, which leads to erosion and destruction of a joint.

A

Avascular necrosis

150
Q

What is podagra?

A

Severe pain in the foot

151
Q

What does photon absorptiometry measure?

A

Bone density

152
Q

An elevated level of calcium in the blood (a measure of bone destruction) is called ____.

A

Hypercalcemia

153
Q

Arthrodesis is a surgical procedure for ____ joints.

A

Fixating or fusing

154
Q

____ is the procedure that involves placing a prosthesis in the joint capsule.

A

Arthroplasty

155
Q

Of the following brand names used as pharmacological agents in orthopedics, which does not function to relieve pain and decrease swelling?

  • Flexeril
  • Advil
  • Anacin
  • Motrin
  • Bufferin
A

Flexeril

156
Q

What do uricosuric agents do?

A

Lower the level of uric acid in the blood

157
Q

____ are the living cells of bone.

A

Osteocytes

158
Q

What is the name for the cartilage cells?

A

Chrondocytes

159
Q

____ are physicians who specialize in treating patients who suffer from diseases of the joints, connective tissues, collagen, and other structures.

A

Rheumatologists

160
Q

The fluid portion of blood is called the ____.

A

Plasma

161
Q

Megakaryocytes in the bone marrow form these small cells in the blood that help in clotting.

A

Platelets

162
Q

The combining form onc/o refers to ____.

A

Tumor

163
Q

This hematology term refers to a protein in the blood.

A

Albumin

164
Q

The state of having too little oxygen in the blood is referred to as ____.

A

Hypoxia

165
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

Protein in the red blood cell that carries oxygen

166
Q

Chapter 5 refers to these cells as “the body’s soldiers, ready and able to attach and destroy bacteria and other foreign invaders.”

A

Leukocytes

167
Q

The two primary groupings of leukocytes are differentiated based on whether they are ____ in appearance.

A

Grainy

168
Q

The ____ is the main site of fetal blood cell production from the second to the sixth month of gestation.

A

Liver

169
Q

Blood cell production that takes place outside the bone marrow is referred to as ____.

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

170
Q

The most common hematologic disorder in infancy and childhood is ____.

A

Dietary iron deficiency

171
Q

The human body contains ____ liters of blood.

A

Between four and six

172
Q

This hereditary hematologic disorder is marked by abnormally-shaped red blood cells that get caught in the blood vessels.

A

Sickle cell anemia

173
Q

Thalassemia is a hereditary blood disorder caused by ____.

A

An inequal production of alpha and other globin chains, resulting in the ineffective production of red blood cells

174
Q

A deficiency in this vitamin, a condition known as pernicious anemia, can cause megaloblastic anemia.

A

B12

175
Q

This hematologic disorder is often seen in seniors and is marked by high hemoglobin levels arising from an increase in total red blood cell volume.

A

Polycythemia vera

176
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by ____.

A

Antibodies that destroy red blood cells

177
Q

What is the meaning of the term hypochromia?

A

Too little hemoglobin

178
Q

A macrocyte is a ____ red blood cell.

A

Large

179
Q

An ecchymosis is a ____.

A

Black and blue mark caused by leakage of blood from the vessel

180
Q

A blood clot that has broken free within the body is called a(n) ____.

A

Embolus

181
Q

What does pallor mean?

A

Pale appearance

182
Q

Blood and bone marrow contain three main types of blood cells: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and ____.

A

Thrombocytes

183
Q

An increased size of the spleen is referred to as ____.

A

Splenomegaly

184
Q

The condition of having too few white blood cells is referred to as ____.

A

Leukocytopenia

185
Q

Thrombocytosis is the condition of having too ____.

A

Many platelets

186
Q

Anemia is the condition of decreased ____.

A

Hemoglobin level

187
Q

____ is the most common malignancy of the hematopoietic system.

A

Leukemia

188
Q

In the complete blood count (CBC), the measure of the amount of hemoglobin carried in the red blood cells is reflected in this index.

  • MCV
  • MCHC
  • All of the above
  • MCH
  • None of the above
A

MCH

189
Q

The blood test known as the differential counts these cells.

A

White blood cells

190
Q

The prothrombin time (PT) test is used to assess ____.

A

Clotting

191
Q

This test is used to determine whether the patient has an autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

A

Coomb’s test

192
Q

This class of pharmaceutical agents breaks down clots that have formed.

A

Thrombolytic

193
Q

Granulocytes and agranulocytes are subgroups of ____.

A

Leukocytes

194
Q

Antithrombotic agents are also known as ____.

A

Anticoagulants

195
Q

Antihemophilic factors are used to ____.

A

Promote clotting

196
Q

The physician who specializes in the treatment of ____ is called an oncologist.

A

Cancer

197
Q

Cancer cells show a loss of contact inhibition, which is the signal to the cell to ____.

A

Stop dividing

198
Q

The successful management of cancer focuses on ____.

  • a, b, and c
  • assessing patient risk factors.
  • a and b
  • prevention.
  • early detection.
A

A, b, and c

199
Q

A tumor’s grade refers to ____.

A

The tumor cells’ degree of maturity

200
Q

The term anaplastic refers to a cell’s loss of ____.

A

Differentiation

201
Q

This is the abbreviation for the most widely used tumor classification system.

A

TNM

202
Q

The process of cell division is called ____.

A

Mitosis

203
Q

Combining different cancer treatment strategies is called ____ therapy.

A

Multimodal

204
Q

The process of creating red blood cells is called ____.

A

Erythropoiesis

205
Q

If a tumor is found not to be cancerous, it is said to be ____.

A

Benign

206
Q

When the body needs more red blood cells, cells in this organ secrete erythropoietin.

A

Kidney

207
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four ABO blood types?

A

AO

208
Q

When a donor’s and a recipient’s blood is mixed prior to transfusion, what happens if the blood types are not compatible?

A

The mixture will clump, or agglutinate.

209
Q

When a blood vessel is damaged, the body works to stop the bleeding through the process of ____.

  • vascular constriction.
  • a, b, and c
  • local blood coagulation.
  • platelet plug formation.
  • a and b
A

A, b, and c

210
Q

Which of the following is not one of the organs of the immune system?

  • lymph nodes
  • thymus
  • tonsils
  • liver
  • spleen
A

Liver

211
Q

Once they enter the tissue to fight infection, monocytes mature into ____.

A

Macrophages

212
Q

B cells change into these cells, which produce proteins called immunoglobulins.

A

Plasma cells

213
Q

What does the T in T cells stand for?

A

Thymus

214
Q

Which of the following is associated with specific immunity rather than nonspecific immunity?

  • mucus
  • tears
  • mucous membrane
  • macrophages
  • skin
A

Macrophages

215
Q

The inflammatory response is part of ____ immunity.

  • cell-mediated
  • humoral
  • nonspecific
  • All of the above
  • specific
A

Nonspecific

216
Q

This type of immunity is developed through exposure to a disease.

A

Active immunity

217
Q

Maternal immunity develops when a mother passes her antibodies to her child through ____.

  • the placenta.
  • skin-to-skin contact.
  • a and b
  • a, b, and c
  • her breast milk.
A

A and b (placenta and breast milk)

218
Q

This combining form means gland.

A

Aden/o

219
Q

What does the combining form auto- mean?

A

Self

220
Q

An immunoglobulin that is specific to an antigen and that protects an individual from disease is called a(n) ____.

A

Antibody

221
Q

Which of the following sets of lymph nodes are found below the waist?

  • popliteal
  • axillary
  • inguinal
  • cervical
  • submandibular
A

Popliteal

222
Q

The term humors refers to ____.

A

Watery fluids in the body

223
Q

The ____ is the lymphoid tissue located on either side of the pharynx.

A

Palatine tonsil

224
Q

Phagocytosis is the process of ____.

A

Ingesting and destroying cells or foreign substances

225
Q

The ____ is the drainage sac for the lymph of the abdominal and lumbar regions.

A

Cisterna chyli

226
Q

Lymphatic tissue is the only tissue in the body that ____.

A

Reaches adult growth during childhood

227
Q

A mother’s immunity provides her newborn protection for ____.

A

Several months

228
Q

What happens to the immune system as a person ages?

A

It appears to function less efficiently.

229
Q

When a body fights disease, the cells that it attacks and attempts to destroy are called ____.

A

Antigens

230
Q

This autoimmune disorder, also called thyrotoxicosis, attacks the follicle membrane in the thyroid.

A

Grave’s disease

231
Q

This autoimmune disorder has its onset in young adulthood, and is most common in females.

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

232
Q

When does the thymus reach its maximum size, and what happens afterward?

A

It reaches its maximum size during puberty, after which it shrinks and becomes fatty tissue.

233
Q

The most common allergy is hay fever, which was named in ____ in ____.

A

England; 1865

234
Q

Anaphylactic shock results from ____.

A

A severe allergic reaction

235
Q

____ is a local anaphylactic reaction resulting from swelling within the respiratory tract.

A

Asthma

236
Q

A person with AIDS is especially at risk for this type of cancer.

A

Lymphoma

237
Q

This infection, caused by a fungus normally found in the gastrointestinal tract, can cause systemic infection in a person with AIDS.

A

Candidiasis

238
Q

This bacterial infection usually affects birds, but has also been found to be an opportunistic infection in AIDS patients.

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (MAI) complex

239
Q

This progressive immunodeficiency disorder involves many systems, particularly the nervous system.

A

Ataxia telangiectasia

240
Q

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune condition of the ____.

A

Thyroid

241
Q

Hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disorder caused by antibodies directed against ____.

A

Red blood cells

242
Q

____ is an immunologic disorder characterized by thickening of the skin.

A

Scleroderma

243
Q

The ____ is the largest lymphoid structure.

A

Spleen

244
Q

“Shotty” refers to a rubbery, freely movable, abnormal-feeling ____.

A

Lymph node

245
Q

This immunoglobulin is the most common and crosses the placenta and assists with passive and recall immunity.

A

IgG

246
Q

Which immunoglobulin accounts for about 5-10 percent of the total immunoglobulins in the blood and acts as the first line of defense?

A

IgM

247
Q

The presence of HIV is assessed with this test.

  • ELISA
  • Western blot
  • a, b, and c
  • a and b
  • Gallium scan
A

A and b (ELISA and Western blot)

248
Q

When testing the immune system, a gallium scan is used to enhance the visibility of ____.

A

Lymphoid tissue

249
Q

____ are the mainstay of treatment for bacterial infections.

A

Antibiotics

250
Q

The drug AZT is used to combat ____.

A

HIV

251
Q

For what is an antihistamine prescribed?

A

Allergies

252
Q

Which of the following drug is an antifungal agent?

A

Mycostatin

253
Q

Which of the following drugs is not an antiviral agent?

  • Foscavir
  • Videx
  • Bactrim
  • Retrovir
  • Zovirax
A

Bactrim

254
Q

The ____ is (are) the immune system’s first line of defense against the outside environment.

A

Tonsils

255
Q

Of these medical abbreviations discussed in Chapter 6, which refers to a surgical procedure?

  • AZT
  • T&A
  • STD
  • PCP
  • CMV
A

T&A

256
Q

The function of the lymph nodes is to

A

Filter lymph fluid

257
Q

Lymph fluid flows into the ____ and the ____ before being emptied into the veins of the neck.

  • appendix; gallbladder
  • spleen; liver
  • right lymphatic duct; thoracic duct
  • liver; pancreas
  • gallbladder, spleen
A

Right lymphatic duct; thoracic duct

258
Q

Lymph in the abdomen is often referred to as ____.

A

Chyle

259
Q

The lymphocytes known as ____ cells secrete antibodies into the blood in response to the presence of foreign substances.

A

B

Pers 2499 (2 decks)

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