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Pers 2499 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

The combining form tympan/o means ____.

A

drum.

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2
Q

The watery fluid in front of the lens is referred to as the ____.

A

aqueous humor.

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3
Q

The conjunctiva refers to the ____.

A

clear mucous membrane lining the inner eyelids and anterior of the eye.

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4
Q

When a physician records the results of an eye examination as PERRLA, it means that the patient’s eyes are ____.

A

normal.

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5
Q

In this condition, the retina is not fully developed and the blood vessels can become leaky, causing irreversible blindness.

A

retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

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6
Q

What is diplopia?

A

double vision

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7
Q

An inward turning of the eyes is referred to as ____, while an outward turning of the eyes is called ____. -amblyopia; diplopia

  • diplopia; amblyopia
  • exotropia; esotropia
  • esotropia; exotropia
  • amblyopia; hypertropia
A

esotropia; exotropia

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8
Q

This progressive thinning of the cornea is most often seen in females and becomes evident in puberty.

A

keratoconus

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9
Q

The farsightedness associated with aging is referred to as ____.

A

presbyopia.

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10
Q

A cataract is the clouding of the ____.

A

crystalline lens.

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11
Q

Loss of sight occurs with retinal detachment because ____.

A

the rods and cones no longer receive nourishment.

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12
Q

____ is caused by damage to the photoreceptor cells in the area of the macula.

A

Macular degeneration

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13
Q

Of the following practitioners related to the special senses, which is not a doctor (MD or OD)? -otolaryngologist

  • optometrist
  • ophthalmologist
  • otorhinolaryngologist
  • optician
A

optician

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14
Q

Nearsightedness, or myopia, occurs when the eyeball is too ____.

A

long.

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15
Q

____ is an inflammation of the lining of the eye and eyelid and can be caused by bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic organisms.

A

Conjunctivitis

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16
Q

Keratitis is an infection of the ____.

A

cornea.

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17
Q

A(n) ____ is an inflammatory cyst or granuloma of the meibomian gland.

A

chalazion

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18
Q

What is leukocoria?

A

a white reflection from a mass in the eye

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19
Q

Phacoemulsification uses ultrasonic waves to ____.

A

disintegrate cataracts.

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20
Q

This test measures for intraocular pressure (IOP).

A

tonometry

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21
Q

The visible portion of the external ear is called the ____.

A

auricle.

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22
Q

The canal that leads from the auricle to the eardrum is called the ____.

A

external auditory meatus.

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23
Q

The eardrum, or ____, separates the external ear from the middle ear.

A

tympanic membrane

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24
Q

The area that contains the sebaceous glands of the eye is known as the ____.

A

lacrimal caruncle.

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25
Q

Which of the following is not part of the ossicular chain?

  • cochlea
  • incus
  • malleus
  • a and b
  • stapes
A

cochlea

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26
Q

The structure of the inner ear is called the ____.

A

labyrinth.

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27
Q

The saclike structures contained within the vestibule are called the ____ and ____.

  • endolymph; perilymph
  • helix; incus
  • malleus; meatus
  • utricle; saccule
  • round window; oval window
A

utricle; saccule

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28
Q

This part of the ear is considered the main organ of hearing.

A

cochlea

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29
Q

In the process of hearing, the ____ acts as a satellite dish that catches sound waves.

A

outer ear

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30
Q

The passageway leading from the middle ear to the nasopharynx is called the ____.

A

eustachian tube.

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31
Q

The incus is a bone of the middle ear that is shaped like a(n) ____.

A

anvil.

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32
Q

A child born without ears has this condition.

A

anotia

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33
Q

Ear pain is known by this term.

A

otalgia

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34
Q

A person wearing contact lenses would place the lens on this part of the eye.

A

cornea

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35
Q

A deliberate perforation of the eardrum is called a(n) ____.

A

myringotomy.

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36
Q

The hardening of the spongy bone surrounding the oval window that is often seen in seniors is called ____.

A

otosclerosis.

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37
Q

What is typanosclerosis?

A

hardening of the tympanic membrane

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38
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

a tumor-like mass of scaly epithelial tissue and cholesterol in the middle ear

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39
Q

Tinnitus is a ____.

A

ringing in the ears.

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40
Q

A(n) ____ is a medical instrument used to visualize the external ear and tympanic membrane.

A

otoscope

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41
Q

This surgical procedure involves the removal of one of the bones of the middle ear.

A

stapedectomy

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42
Q

This mushroom-shaped area near the tip of the tongue contains some of the more than 10,000 taste buds on the tongue.

A

fungiform

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43
Q

Each taste bud is made up of supporting cells and hair cells known as ____ receptors.

A

gustatory

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44
Q

Signals are transmitted along the olfactory nerve to the ____ regions in the temporal lobe of the brain.

A

rhinencephalon

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45
Q

The retina contains about 120 million ____, which are very sensitive to light and are responsible for night vision.

A

rods

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46
Q

The sense of touch includes ____, an awareness of the position of one’s body parts in relation to the whole body.

A

proprioception

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47
Q

Photopic vision is vision in ____.

A

bright light.

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48
Q

This small area within the macula lutea at the back of the eye is the spot where visual acuity is the greatest.

A

fovea centralis

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49
Q

This combining form means tears.

A

lacrim/o

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50
Q

An ____ is a medical doctor (MD) who diagnoses and treats eye disorders.

  • a, b, and c
  • optician
  • ophthalmologist
  • a and b
  • optometrist
A

ophthalmologist

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51
Q

The bluish color associated with decreased oxygen is called ____.

A

cyanosis.

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52
Q

Oxygen is converted into this waste product and expelled through expiration.

A

carbon dioxide

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53
Q

The ____ is the area between the vocal cords.

A

glottis

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54
Q

In the analogy of the bronchial tree, the bronchioles represent the ____.

A

branches.

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55
Q

As the bronchial tree branches out, it ends with the ____.

A

alveoli.

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56
Q

The average adult body has about ____ alveoli.

A

600 million

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57
Q

The superior portion of each lung is called the ____.

A

apex.

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58
Q

This thin, moist membrane covers the outer surfaces of the lungs and allows them to move smoothly against the ribs during respiration.

A

pleura

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59
Q

The intercostal muscles are attached to the ____.

A

ribs.

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60
Q

During this process, the high concentration of oxygen in the alveoli is exchanged for the low oxygen concentration in the capillaries of the lungs.

A

diffusion

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61
Q

The rib area is connoted by the combining form

A

pleur/o.

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62
Q

Which of the following structures of the respiratory system is not part of the upper respiratory tract?-nasopharynx

  • diaphragm
  • nasal cavity
  • larynx
  • oropharynx
A

diaphragm

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63
Q

This combining form relates to the nose.

A

rhin/o

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64
Q

This combining form refers to the windpipe.

A

trache/o

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65
Q

In the respiratory system, these hairlike structures help move out foreign substances.

A

cilia

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66
Q

The process of breathing out is known as exhalation or ____.

A

expiration.

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67
Q

The substance secreted into the alveoli to decrease surface tension is called ____.

A

surfactant.

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68
Q

____ sounds are the abnormal chest sounds heard through the stethoscope on auscultation.

A

Adventitious

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69
Q

____ are continuous chest sounds which are usually more prominent during expiration and cleared with coughing.

A

Rhonchi

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70
Q

Dyspnea is the medical term for ____.

A

difficulty breathing.

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71
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

the condition of having too little oxygen

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72
Q

During inspiration, air enters the nose through the ____, or nostrils.

A

nares

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73
Q

Difficulty in breathing when lying down is called ____.

A

orthopnea.

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74
Q

In utero, the ____ system is the only system that is non-functional.

A

respiratory

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75
Q

This condition is a major cause of death in premature infants who are born before surfactants are produced.

A

infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)

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76
Q

The infant breathes through the nose rather than the mouth until about ____ of age.

A

three months

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77
Q

This condition causes cells to mesh rather than remain singular, and in infants and children can cause pneumonia.

A

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

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78
Q

As children are exposed to ____ and experience the symptoms, they develop immunity.

A

upper respiratory infections (URIs)

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79
Q

This viral infection in children produces noisy and difficult respiration and a barklike cough.

A

croup

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80
Q

____ is often first diagnosed in childhood and may be caused by an allergy to the environment, food, or other substances.

A

Asthma

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81
Q

A common respiratory disease among seniors is ____, in which a loss of alveolar elasticity prevents movement of air from the air sacs.

A

emphysema

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82
Q

This contagious, opportunistic infection of the respiratory system was in decline in the United States until the outbreak of AIDS.

A

tuberculosis

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83
Q

The hairlike structures that line the nasal cavities are called ____.

A

cilia.

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84
Q

Lung cancer is also known as ____.

A

bronchogenic carcinoma.

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85
Q

____ is an inflammation of the lung tissue.

A

Pneumonia

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86
Q

An inflammation of one of the paranasal sinuses is referred to as ____.

A

sinusitis.

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87
Q

A(n) ____ is an x-ray procedure that uses a contrast medium to view the bronchial tree.

A

bronchogram

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88
Q

Bronchoscopy is an examination of the bronchi using ____.

A

an endoscope.

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89
Q

As it relates to pulmonary function tests, what does the abbreviation TV stand for?

A

tidal volume

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90
Q

What is a thoracotomy?

A

an incision made into the chest wall

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91
Q

____ are pharmacologic agents used to decrease fever.

A

Antipyretics

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92
Q

Antitussives are used to suppress ____.

A

coughs.

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93
Q

Which of the following brand names is not an asthma preparation?

  • Beconase
  • Proventil
  • Atrovent
  • Claritin
  • Ventolin
A

Claritin

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94
Q

The upper respiratory tract includes ____ paranasal sinuses.

A

four

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95
Q

What abbreviation is used to denote a chest x-ray?

A

CXR

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96
Q

Which of these is not the name of a sinus?

  • superior
  • ethmoidal
  • maxillary
  • sphenoidal
  • frontal
A

superior

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97
Q

The section of the pharynx known as the oropharynx is located behind the ____.

A

mouth.

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98
Q

By what common name is the larynx known?

A

voice box

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99
Q

The ____ is a cartilaginous structure that covers the larynx during swallowing.

A

epiglottis

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100
Q

What does a lipid risk panel measure?

  • low-density lipoproteins
  • triglycerides
  • high-density lipoproteins
  • All of the above
  • serum cholesterol
A

All of the above(low-density lipoproteins, triglycerides, high-density lipoproteins, serum cholesterol)

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101
Q

Embolism is the term for ____.

A

an obstruction of a vessel by a clot.

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102
Q

Which of the following cardiac tests uses a nuclear scan to depict the workings of the heart?

  • lipid risk panel
  • MUGA scan
  • echocardiogram
  • angiogram
  • echocardiogram
A

MUGA scan

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103
Q

In this procedure, a catheter with a balloon tip is inserted into an occluded vessel to open it up and allow blood to flow freely.

A

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PCTA)

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104
Q

An endarterectomy involves the ____.

A

removal of the lining of artery that contains plaque.

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105
Q

Which of the following tests uses a radioactive substance to visualize the heart’s action during physical activity?

  • echocardiogram
  • percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
  • angiogram
  • thallium stress test
  • balloon angioplasty
A

thallium stress test

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106
Q

The class of drugs known as antianginals are used to ____.

A

relieve the pain of acute angina.

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107
Q

This class of drug decreases fluid retention by promoting increased urinary output.

A

diuretics

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108
Q

What valve connects the right atrium and the right ventricle?

A

tricuspid

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109
Q

Hypolipidemics are drugs that ____.

A

decrease cholesterol level in the blood.

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110
Q

These structures attach the valves to the heart walls.

A

chordae tendineae

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111
Q

The two semilunar valves, the aortic and pulmonary, are ____.

  • All of the above
  • open at the same time.
  • closed when the atrioventricular valves are open.
  • closed at the same time.
  • open when the atrioventricular valves are closed.
A

All of the above(opens at the same time, closed when the atrioventricular valves are open, closed at the same time, open when the atrioventricular valves are closed)

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112
Q

The cardiac cycle consists of a contraction, called the ____ followed by a relaxation phase called the ____.

  • systole; diastole
  • wax; wane
  • pulse; lumen
  • warp; weft
  • pronation; supination
A

systole; diastole

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113
Q

Blood enters the right atrium through the ____.

A

superior and inferior venae cavae.

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114
Q

The outer membrane of the heart wall is called the ____.

A

pericardium.

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115
Q

After leaving the right atrium, blood is pumped into the ____.

A

right ventricle.

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116
Q

Blood flows from the liver into the ____ on its way to the heart.

A

inferior vena cava

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117
Q

The pulmonary veins carry blood from the ____ to the ____.

  • lungs; left atrium
  • lungs; right ventricle
  • left ventricle; lungs
  • left atrium; lungs
  • lungs; left ventricle
A

lungs; left atrium

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118
Q

Which of the following is not part of the electrical conduction system of the heart?

  • Bundle of His
  • atrioventricular node
  • apex
  • Purkinje fibers
  • sinoatrial node
A

apex

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119
Q

The arteries carry blood ____ the heart.

A

away from

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120
Q

Which of the following blood vessels is smallest in diameter?

  • vena cava
  • aorta
  • venules
  • veins
  • arteries
A

venules

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121
Q

The passage in a blood vessel through which the blood flows is called the ____.

A

lumen.

122
Q

In addition to moving blood around the body for nutrient and gas exchange, the arteries and arterioles also help maintain the body’s ____.

A

blood pressure.

123
Q

High blood pressure is known by this medical term.

A

hypertension

124
Q

The top number in a blood pressure reading is the ____.

A

systolic pressure

125
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

the thick layer muscle tissue between the pericardium and the endocardium

126
Q

The combining form angi/o refers to ____.

A

vessels.

127
Q

To what does the combining form phleb/o refer?

A

vein

128
Q

This combining form means relating to the pulse.

A

sphygm/o

129
Q

This membrane forms the inner layer of the pericardium.

A

epicardium

130
Q

The ____ is the dilation of an artery from the contraction of the heart causing blood to be sent into the vessel.

A

pulse

131
Q

What is the largest vein in the body?

A

vena cava

132
Q

The smallest vessels are called the ____.

A

capillaries.

133
Q

When a physician auscultates the heart, he or she is ____.

A

listening to the sound of the heart.

134
Q

The foramen ovale is found in the ____.

A

atrial septum of the fetal heart.

135
Q

What happens to the fetal shunts after birth?

A

they close within about 15 hours after birth.

136
Q

The left half of the heart pumps oxygen-____ blood to the ____.

  • rich; body’s tissues
  • depleted; brain
  • depleted; lungs
  • rich; lungs
  • depleted; body’s tissues
A

rich; body’s tissues

137
Q

The newborn’s heart rate may range from ____ to ____ beats per minute.

  • 200;400
  • 20;40
  • 100; 180
  • 150;300
  • 20;60
A

100; 180

138
Q

This type of congenital heart defect involves a severe narrowing of the descending portion of the aorta.

A

coarctation of the aorta

139
Q

Which of the following types of heart valve defect features a mitral valve that does not open properly because of calcification?

  • mitral stenosis
  • aortic stenosis
  • pulmonic stenosis
  • tricuspid regurgitation
  • mitral regurgitation
A

mitral stenosis

140
Q

Innocent or functional ____ are not uncommon in childhood and have no health significance.

A

murmurs

141
Q

During pregnancy, a woman’s blood volume increases by about ____ percent.

A

40

142
Q

Myocardial infarction is known by what common name?

A

heart attack

143
Q

From age 20 to age 80, an individual’s blood pressure normally ____.

A

increases by about 25 percent.

144
Q

Coronary artery disease is sometimes called ____.

A

hardening of the arteries.

145
Q

An enlargement of the heart is referred to as ____.

A

cardiomegaly.

146
Q

This term is used to refer to very rapid unsynchronized heartbeats in which the heart muscle fibers are beating at different times.

A

fibrillation

147
Q

The upper chambers of the heart are called the ____.

A

atria.

148
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

a balloonlike swelling or outpouching of an artery

149
Q

This cardiac test uses ultrasound to visualize the valves and flow of blood through the heart.

A

echocardiogram

150
Q

The alimentary canal is another name for the ____.

A

gastrointestinal tract

151
Q

Ducts in the middle of the ____ empty digestive juices from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

A

duodenum

152
Q

Where is the ileocecal valve located?

A

between the small intestine and large intestine

153
Q

How long does it take material to pass through the large intestine?

A

1 to 5 days

154
Q

The digestive process breaks proteins down into ____.

A

amino acids

155
Q

____ are broken down in the small intestine by amylase and other enzymes.

A

Carbohydrates

156
Q

The ____ is a serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.

A

peritoneum

157
Q

The combining form -ase means ____.

A

enzyme

158
Q

This combining form is used to refer to the gums.

A

gingiv/o

159
Q

This combining form means tongue.

A

gloss/o

160
Q

The ____ is a bony socket in which the root of each tooth sits.

A

alveolus

161
Q

What is the function of the uvula?

A

prevents food from entering the nasal cavity

162
Q

Amylase is secreted by the ____.

A

pancreas

163
Q

From where is gastric juice secreted?

A

stomach

164
Q

The ____ is a fan-shaped fold of the peritoneum that covers most of the small intestine.

A

mesentery

165
Q

____ is the action of the intestine characterized by alternating contraction and relaxation.

A

Peristalsis

166
Q

____ are folds in the lining of the stomach.

A

Rugae

167
Q

Premature infants are at risk for this disorder, which is characterized by tissue death in the ileum and colon.

A

neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis

168
Q

This condition in the infant can be more evident when he or she cries.

A

umbilical hernia

169
Q

A newborn’s first stool is called the ____.

A

meconium

170
Q

This condition causes projectile vomiting and appears at about six weeks of age, most commonly in males.

A

pyloric stenosis

171
Q

Crohn’s disease is a disease of the gastrointestinal system marked by ____.

  • weight loss.
  • diarrhea.
  • All of the above
  • cramps.
  • abdominal pain.
A

All of the above(weight loss, diarrhea, cramps, abdominal pain)

172
Q

About how much saliva is produced by an adult human’s saliva glands each day?

A

one liter

173
Q

One of the most common gastrointestinal disorders affecting adults is ____, which is a hole in the mucosa of the alimentary canal.

A

an ulcer

174
Q

Diverticula are ____ that develop in the GI tract.

A

pouches

175
Q

A hiatal hernia is a hernia of the ____ and frequently occurs in older adults.

A

stomach

176
Q

Lactose intolerance is the inability to properly digest a(n) ____ found in diary products.

A

sugar

177
Q

This condition is an inflammation of the gall bladder after fatty foods are ingested.

A

cholecystitis

178
Q

In this condition, the tongue is not freely moveable.

A

ankyloglossia

179
Q

____ is the formation of gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts.

A

Cholelithiasis

180
Q

____ is the absence of peristalsis, causing obstruction in the intestine.

A

Ileus

181
Q

Jaundice is a yellowish color of the skin and mucous membranes because of increased ____ in the blood.

A

bile pigment

182
Q

____ is the backward flow of stomach contents.

A

Reflux

183
Q

What are the parotids, submandibulars, and the sublinguals?

A

salivary glands

184
Q

A(n) ____ is an abnormal opening between the trachea and the esophagus.

A

tracheoesophageal fistula

185
Q

The procedure in which gallstones are crushed and removed is called ____.

A

lithotripsy

186
Q

What is cholangiography?

  • None of the above
  • an endoscopic visualization of the rectum and anal canal
  • an x-ray of the gallbladder and its ducts
  • a test to determine the functioning of the liver
  • the removal of the gallbladder
A

an x-ray of the gallbladder and its ducts

187
Q

The general term for the procedure to view the various organs of the GI tract using a flexible tube is ____.

A

endoscopy

188
Q

A gastrectomy is the removal of part of the ____.

A

stomach

189
Q

The sigmoidoscopy is the endoscopic examination of the sigmoid region of the ____.

A

colon

190
Q

The brand name drugs Maalox and Mylanta fall into this category of drugs.

  • appetite suppressants
  • antidiarrheals
  • antacids and antiflatulents
  • laxatives
  • antiemetics
A

antacids and antiflatulents

191
Q

The drugs known as histamine (H2) receptor antagonists are used to treat ____.

A

ulcers

192
Q

Which of the following drug brands is used to replace a pancreatic digestive enzyme?

  • Maalox
  • Dulcolax
  • Lactaid
  • Pepcid
  • Zantac
A

Lactaid

193
Q

This region of the abdomen is above the pubic area and below the umbilicus.

A

hypogastric

194
Q

After food passes through the esophagus, it enters the ____.

A

stomach

195
Q

This medical abbreviation means before meals.

  • ULQ
  • BM
  • a.c.
  • PP
  • IVC
A

a.c.

196
Q

The cardiac sphincter prevents food from moving from the ____ to the ____.

  • stomach; large intestine
  • stomach; esophagus
  • larynx; pharynx
  • esophagus; pharynx
  • large intestine; small intestine
A

stomach; esophagus

197
Q

What is chyme?

A

the semisolid mixture of food produce by the digestive process of the stomach

198
Q

About how long is an adult’s small intestine?

A

20 feet

199
Q

Bicarbonate, the alkaline substance that neutralizes hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice, is secreted from the ____.

A

pancreas

200
Q

Sperm develop within the walls of the ____.

A

seminiferous tubules

201
Q

The spongy tissues of the shaft fill with ____ during arousal, causing the penis to become erect.

A

blood

202
Q

The function of the sperm’s tail is to ____.

  • store the genetic material that will combine with the ovum.
  • propel the sperm during its journey.
  • puncture the ovum.
  • All of the above
  • manufacture energy for the sperm’s journey.
A

propel the sperm during its journey

203
Q

The ductus deferens is also known as the ____.

A

vas deferens

204
Q

About 60 percent of the volume of semen is created by the ____.

A

seminal vesicles

205
Q

The seminal vesicles join to form the ____.

A

ejaculatory duct

206
Q

The prostate secretes a(n) ____ that ____ the sperm.

  • lipid; nourishes
  • milky fluid; aids the mobility of
  • pH-balanced fluid; preserves
  • enzyme; activates
  • sugar; nourishes
A

milky fluid; aids the mobility of

207
Q

The bulbourethral glands are also known as the ____ glands.

A

Cowper’s

208
Q

The purpose of the Cowper’s glands is to ____.

A

lubricate the urethra

209
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly identifies the route sperm take from their spot of creation to the location where they are stored?

  • testes to vas deferens to prostate gland
  • vas deferens to seminal vesicles to prostate gland
  • epididymis to vas deferens to seminal vesicles
  • testes to seminiferous tubules to epididymis
  • prostate gland to bulbourethral glands to urethra
A

testes to seminiferous tubules to epididymis

210
Q

When a sperm and an ovum meet and join, the product is a ____.

A

zygote

211
Q

This combining form means male or masculine.

A

andr/o

212
Q

This combining form means testicle.

A

orchid/o

213
Q

Male and female sex cells are called ____.

A

gametes

214
Q

The testes develop in the ____ of the fetus.

A

abdominal cavity

215
Q

The singular of ova is ____.

A

ovum

216
Q

The size of the testes grow only slightly from birth through childhood, but begin to increase in size

A

at the onset of puberty

217
Q

Male sexual development is completed in the span of about ____ years.

A

three to five

218
Q

Around what age does sperm production decrease?

A

40

219
Q

What does circumcision remove?

A

prepuce

220
Q

What is epispadias?

A

an abnormality in which the urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis

221
Q

The congenital abnormality in which the testicles are absent is referred to as ____.

A

anorchism

222
Q

The external organs of the reproductive system are called ____.

A

genitalia

223
Q

Hermaphroditism is a congenital abnormality characterized by ____.

A

the presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue

224
Q

Polyorchism is a congenital abnormality marked by the ____.

A

presence of more than two testicles

225
Q

This condition of early childhood is marked by varicose veins in the spermatic cord which can cause the affected testicle to be smaller.

A

varicocele

226
Q

This serious condition occurs in late childhood and is caused by an incomplete or faulty attachment of the testis to the scrotum wall.

A

testicular torsion

227
Q

This condition is often associated with sickle cell anemia, which causes a blockage of blood flow from the penis.

A

priapism

228
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia can cause ____.

  • frequent urination.
  • All of the above
  • painful urination
  • a squeezing of the urethra.
  • difficult urination.
A

All of the above(frequent urination, painful urination, a squeezing of the urethra, difficult urination)

229
Q

The inability to have and/or maintain an erection is known by two names: erectile dysfunction and ____.

A

impotence

230
Q

____ is the inability to produce sperm.

A

Aspermatogenesis

231
Q

What is aspermia?

  • the inability to produce an erection
  • a, b, and c
  • the inability to produce sperm
  • the inability to produce semen
  • a and b
A

a, b, and c(the inability to produce an erection, sperm, and semen)

232
Q

A decreased amount of sperm in the ejaculate is called ____.

A

oligospermia

233
Q

The pouch-like sac containing the testes is called the ____.

A

scrotum

234
Q

Orchitis is an inflammation of the ____.

A

testis

235
Q

Prostatitis is a(n) ____ of the prostate gland.

A

inflammation

236
Q

The blood test known as PSA is used to help diagnose ____.

A

cancer of the prostate

237
Q

What is accomplished with semen analysis?

  • Determination of the presence of prostate-specific antigen
  • Evaluation of sperm viability
  • a, b, and c
  • Count of the amount of sperm ejaculated
  • a and b
A

a and b(evaluation of sperm viability, count of the amount of sperm ejaculated)

238
Q

An epididymotomy is usually performed to ____.

A

to drain fluid or pus resulting from epididymitis

239
Q

Orchiectomy is the surgical ____.

A

removal of one or both testicles

240
Q

In a vasectomy, the ____ is surgically removed.

A

vas deferens

241
Q

The surgical removal of the seminal vesicle is called a ____.

A

vesiculectomy

242
Q

Which of the following brand name is not used as a therapy for erectile dysfunction?

  • Levitra
  • Viagra
  • Muse Pellet
  • Caverject Injection
  • AndroGel
A

AndroGel

243
Q

Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure that is preformed through the urethral opening?

  • STD
  • TURP
  • PSA
  • BPH
  • DRE
A

TURP

244
Q

What hormone is secreted by the seminiferous tubules?

A

testosterone

245
Q

Which of the following brand names is used as testosterone replacement hormone?

  • Testoderm
  • Testred
  • AndroGel
  • All of the above
  • Androderm
A

All of the above(Testoderm, Testred, AndroGel, Androderm

246
Q

Medical descriptions of the penis assume an orientation in the ____ state, thus putting the ventral side ____ the body and the dorsal side facing ____.

  • flaccid; next to; outward
  • flaccid; away from; inward
  • erect; toward; outward
  • erect; away from; inward
  • flaccid; toward; outward
A

erect; away from; inward

247
Q

The retractable, loose-fitting skin covering the glans penis is called the ____.

A

foreskin

248
Q

The foreskin can also be referred to as the ____.

A

prepuce

249
Q

The sperm’s mitochondria are located within the ____.

A

midpiece

250
Q

A Pap smear screens for ____.

A

cervical cancer

251
Q

Gravida is the medical term for ____.

A

pregnancy

252
Q

The term used to indicate the number of times a woman has given birth is ____.

A

para

253
Q

Acute salpingitis is the inflammation and infection of the ____.

A

fallopian tubes

254
Q

____ are firm, mobile, painless nodules in the uterine wall.

A

Fibroids

255
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of menopause?

  • decreased fat on the mons pubis
  • vagina becomes shorter and narrower
  • uterus shrinks in size
  • decreased pubic hair
  • ovaries increase production of estrogen
A

ovaries increase production of estrogen

256
Q

Even though they play no direct role in reproduction, the ____ are considered part of the female reproductive system.

A

breasts

257
Q

Uterine prolapse is a condition associated with menopause in which the uterus

A

protrudes into the vagina

258
Q

Cystocele is a condition associated with menopause in which the ____.

A

bladder protrudes into the vagina

259
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease is a condition in which the pelvic cavity is inflamed, usually as the result of a(n) ____.

A

infection

260
Q

What is a rectocele?

A

a prolapse of the rectum through the vagina

261
Q

The most common procedure associated with the female reproductive system is ____, which is performed to obtain endometrial or endocervical tissue for cytologic examination.

A

dilation and curettage

262
Q

A hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the ____.

A

uterus

263
Q

A colposcopy is the examination of the ____ using an endoscope.

A

cervix

264
Q

Which of the following drug brands is not a contraceptive?

  • Ortho Evra
  • Depo-Provera
  • Ortho-Cyclen
  • Pergonal
  • Ortho-Novum 1/50
A

Pergonal

265
Q

The drug brands Clomid and Pergonal are used as ____.

A

fertility agents

266
Q

What is the medical abbreviation used to indicate gonorrhea?

  • PID
  • BTL
  • GYN
  • GC
  • PMP
A

GC

267
Q

The ____ is the pad of fatty tissue that lies over the bone on the lower portion of the pelvis.

A

mons pubis

268
Q

Of the following abbreviations associated with the female reproductive system, which one does not refer to a procedure?

  • VH
  • TAH
  • D&C
  • GYN
  • TAH/BSO
A

GYN

269
Q

This structure of the female external genitalia is translated to mean large lips.

A

labia majora

270
Q

This erectile tissue lies just behind the anterior juncture of the labia minora.

A

clitoris

271
Q

The area between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the ____.

A

perineum

272
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

the production of ova

273
Q

Obstetrics is the medical specialty concerned with ____.

A

pregnancy and the delivery of a baby

274
Q

The ____ is (are) the female gonad(s).

A

ovaries

275
Q

The fingerlike projections at the end of the fallopian tubes are called ____.

A

fimbriae

276
Q

The uterus is normally about the size of a ____.

A

pear

277
Q

The main portion of the uterus is called the ____.

A

body or corpus

278
Q

The structures within the breast that hold the milk are called the ____.

A

lactiferous sinuses

279
Q

The breasts produce milk in response to ____.

  • a, b, and c
  • the stimulation of the infant’s sucking.
  • a and b
  • established infant feeding times.
  • hormonal secretions.
A

a and b(the stimulation of the infant’s sucking, hormonal secretions)

280
Q

Females are born with about ____ ovarian follicles.

A

one million

281
Q

This hormone is secreted from an oocyte when it matures.

A

estrogen

282
Q

As a girl grows to puberty, about ____ follicles remain.

A

400,000

283
Q

This event begins the process of ovulation.

A

the follicle breaks open and releases the ovum

284
Q

The study and treatment of the newborn infant, especially the premature infant, is called ____.

A

neonatology

285
Q

After an ovarian follicle has released its ovum, it shrinks to become the yellowish-colored ____.

A

corpus luteum

286
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four phases of the menstrual cycle?

  • ovulation
  • gestation
  • proliferative phase
  • menses
  • secretory phase
A

gestation

287
Q

Ovulation occurs over days ____ of a 28-day menstrual cycle.

A

14-15

288
Q

The pigmented area surrounding the nipple of the breast is called the ____.

A

areola

289
Q

When a pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum shrinks and becomes a whitish structure called the ____.

A

corpus albicans

290
Q

A female’s first menstrual cycle is referred to as her ____.

A

menarche

291
Q

What is the myometrium?

A

the muscular wall of the uterus

292
Q

Part of the examination of the female reproductive system usually involves the examiner teaching the patient how to perform a ____.

  • cervical palpation.
  • pap smear.
  • All of the above
  • uterine palpation.
  • breast self examination.
A

breast self examination

293
Q

The instrument inserted into the vaginal opening to allow visualization and palpation during an examination is called a ____.

A

speculum

294
Q

The absence of the cervical opening is a congenital anomaly known as cervical ____.

A

atresia

295
Q

Which of the following structures is not part of the female reproductive system?

  • ovaries
  • cervix
  • uterus
  • urethra
  • fallopian tubes
A

urethra

296
Q

The beginning of breast development during female puberty is called ____.

A

thelarche

297
Q

What is hypermenorrhea?

A

long or excessive bleeding during menstruation

298
Q

Painful menstruation is referred to as ____.

A

menorrhalgia

299
Q

Scanty menstrual flow is referred to as ____.

A

oligomenorrhea

300
Q

Gas exchange takes place in this part of the bronchial tree.

A

alveoli

Pers 2499 (2 decks)

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