Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

UI 607 Bacteriology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Where are techoic acids found?

A

only in gram +, attached to wall and plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where are LPS only found in abundance?

A

gram negative outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 parts of LPS?

A

o-antigen, core region, Lipid A (endotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What part of LPS is responsible for reducing phagocytosis and confers smoothness?

A

O-antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is periplasmic space found?

A

gram negatives b/w inner and outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are porins found in gram + or gram - bacteria?

A

gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the term for inability of an organism to synthesize a particular organic compound required for its growth?

A

auxotrophy (opposite - prototrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the term for gain of electrons?

A

reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the term for loss of electrons?

A

oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the part of the nernst equation we have to know?

A

Eh = Oxidant/reductant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does increasing O2 prevent growth of anaerobes?

A

increases redox potential (more + value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Eh of normal tissue?

A

+150 mvolts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which 3 brucella spp have an unrestricted host range and are therefore zoonotic?

A

melitensis (small ruminants)
abortus (cattle)
suis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the morphology of brucella?

A

gram - coccobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do brucella live in host?

A

obligate intracellular bacteria in monocytes and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is brucella highly invasive?

A

can penetrate intact mucosa and has hematogenous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does brucella escape lysosomes?

A

redirects vesicular traffic then directs to endoplasmic reticulum via Type IV secretion system (molecular syringe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why does brucella have tropism for reproductive tissue?

A

erythritol (but not in humans – undulant fever instead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are brucella spp speciated in diagnosis?

A

PCR follwed by pulsed field electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can brucella be diagnoosed?

A

isolation or direct observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug do enterococcus have innate resistance to?

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Are staph spp catalase positive or negative?

A

catalase positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the morphology of staph?

A

gram + non motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 2 molecules are involved in adhesion of staph?

A

Protein A and fibronectin binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 2 molecules help staph capsules resist phagocytosis?

A

protein A and polyurinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 2 molecules help staph resist oxidative burst?

A

carotenoids (staphyloxanthin) and catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What staph enzyme results in walling off of necrotic areas?

A

coagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the species of staph that causes the most dog and cat dz?

A

s. pseudintermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is different with s. pseudintermedius than other CP staph?

A

ONPG positive (beta galactosidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What molecule is destroyed by S. hyicus in greasy pig dz?

A

desmoglein 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What staph species causes bumble foot?

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a characteristic of MRSA staph that causes it to be more virulent?

A

lyses PMN after phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What gene causes virulence of S. aureus in bovine mastitis?

A

adhesive protein Bap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the term for E coli virulence profile shown as fimbria/toxin?

A

pathotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are e coli serogroups?

A

O, LPS, K(capsule), H (flagella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an important serotype of E coli that is causing problems in US?

A

O157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What two types of E coli cause hypersecretory diarrhea?

A

ETEC

EAggEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 4 fimbria types used for vaccines against E coli in piglets?

A

K88, K99, 987P, and F18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 4 fimbria types for vax against e coli in calves?

A

K99, F41, CS31A, FI845

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can be used to make a vaccine against E coli already on the farm?

A

autogenous bacterins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What 2 fibriae types are responsible for weanling diarrhea in e coli infection?

A

K88 or F18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What can shiga like toxin cause in weanling diarrhea in pigs?

A

edema dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the cause of neurological signs in edema dz of swine?

A

shiga like toxin (NOT infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of ecoli produces EAST toxin?

A

enteroaggregative (EAggEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the main MOA of E coli causing malabsorptive diarrhea?

A

intimin ->actin filament changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 4 e coli types involved in malabsorptive diarrhea?

A

AEEC, EPEC, EHEC, and EIEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 2 main diseases seen with salmonella?

A

diarrhea and respiratory dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do the salmonella serotypes consist of?

A

O and H antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What determines serotypes in salmonella?

A

slide agglutination assays - suggests virulence type or host specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the term used for salmonella groups that are determined by the combo of serogroups expressed?

A

serovar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the main serovars of salmonella for bovine?

A

D (dublin)
B (typh)
C (newport)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the main serovars of salmonella in porcine?

A

C (cholera-suis)

B (typh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the main serovars in poultry for salmonella?

A

D (enteritidis or Pullorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the main serovars in equine species for salmonella?

A

B (anatum or typh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How can salmonella use its flagella in escaping hosts humoral response?

A

flips between H1 and H2 motility type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What gene is responisble for salmonellas inherent invasive abiity and is the basis for PCR methods?

A

invA gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What two pathogenecity islands in the invA gene help with attachment and apoptosis of PMNs?

A

SP1-I : attachment and invasion

SPI-2: apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does salmonella differ in its invasion of the intestines from e. coli?

A

first goes through M cells (rather than enterocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a characteristic chronic lesion associated with salmonella enterica?

A

hemorrhagic necrotizing enteritis - ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What organs are mostly involved with salmonella septicemia?

A

spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is enterococcus usually found?

A

flora of GIT in warm blooded animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What kind of diseases does enterococcus cause?

A

fecal contamination –> metritis, UTI, otitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What enterococcus is spread by AI of sows by semen? What is the virulence factor?

A

E. fecalis

cytolysis L + S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What antibiotic does enterococcus have an innate resistance to?

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What enterococcus causes osteomyelitis in broilers?

A

E. cecorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is MRS resistant to beta lactams?

A

posess penicillin binding protein type 2 (beta lactamase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where is the MRS gene located?

A

staph cassette chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the major virulence factors of MRS on mobile genetic elements?

A

phenol soluble modulins
enterotoxins
adhesive protein Bap (bovine mastitis)
exfoliative toxins ETA, ETA2, and ETA3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What important virulence factor of MRS is encoded on bacteriophages?

A

exfoliative toxins ETA, ETA2, and ETA3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How do MRS convey host specificty?

A

sequence differences in the chyotrypsin serine protease (desmoglein 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the major virulence factors for septicemic E. coli?

A

siderophores, endotoxin
cytotoxigenic necrotizing factor (CNF)
cytolethal distending toxin (CLDT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What E. coli vaccine resulted in enhanced humoral response for coliform mastitis?

A

E.coli J-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the 3 predominant sergroups of uropathogenic e. coli?

A

O2, O4, and O6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the e. coli fimbria involved in cystitis?

A

Type 1, often hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What iare the 2 major virulence factor in pyelonephritis with E. coli?

A

Pap (pyeloneph associated pili) and S-fimbria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the 2 important serotypes involved in avian pathogenic e. coli causing septicemia?

A

O2 and O78

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the leading cause of mare infertility and meningitis in foals? (specific)

A

klebsiella with k1 capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What klebsiella serogroup causes UTIs in horses?

A

K2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What two enterobactericiae are found in the oral flora of dogs and cause mastitis?

A

Serratia marcescens and Klebsiella spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a gram negative cocci that is often an oral contaminant of respiratory cultures?

A

Neisseria sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What opportunistic infections can Neisseria sp. cause?

A

bite wound –> sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What gram negative bacteria, found in the oral cavity of dogs, is used as indicator for oral contamination of BAL?

A

Simonsiella sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the bacterial characteristics of Lactobacillus sp?

A

long gram + rod, catalase negative, facultative anaerobe

84
Q

What oppurtunistic infection does Lactobacillus cause?

A

peritonitis from GIT sx leakage

85
Q

Where are alpha streptococci normally present?

A

nasal pharyngeal flora

86
Q

What is a good diagnostic method for fastidious gram negative bacteria such as f. tularensis?

A

16s rRNA gene sequencing

87
Q

What are the two major serovars of F. tularensis and their virulence?

A

Type A - US - most virulent

Type B - Europe - less virulent

88
Q

How is F. tularensis transmitted from rabbits to other vertebrates?

A

bite of insects, ingestion, inhalation

89
Q

What are the two major virulence factors associated with F. tularensis?

A

capsule, acid phosphatase

also escapes phagolysosomes and unusual LPS

90
Q

What are the 3 drugs of choicce for F. tularensis?

A

streptomycin, doxycycline, gentamycin (intracellular penetration)

91
Q

How is Y. pestis spread?

A

rodents - spread by fleas

92
Q

What is the tx of choice for Y. pestis?

A

streptomycin

93
Q

Where is the flagella located in spirochetes?

A

endoflagella in periplasmic space

94
Q

What diagnostic tests help to speciate spirochetes?

A

PCR and serology

95
Q

What is the pathogenesis of persistance of borrelia burgdorferi?

A

membrane derived cysts –> L forms, resistant

96
Q

How does the borrelia bacteria migrate from tick to human during feeding?

A

change in temp activates OspA to chance to OspC adhesin

97
Q

How is leptospira diagnosed? 3 ways

A

PCR of urine, clin chem, serology (MAT)

98
Q

What is the outcome of a host-adapted leptospira infection?

A

animal becomes reservoir host

99
Q

What is the outcome of non-host adapted leptospira infections?

A

accidental dz, sporadic infection

100
Q

How does leptospira encounter and enter the host?

A

through urine, ingestion of urine or feces or sexual contact (treponema)

101
Q

What is the main cause of damage by leptospira?

A

endothelium damage –> affects any organ system

102
Q

What is the pathogenesis of leptospira in the kidney?

A

interstital nephritis, tubular necrosis, impaired capillary permeability –> hypovolemia –>kidney failure

103
Q

What are the different host adapted serovars of leptospira for cattle, swine and horses?

A

Cattle - hardjo

Swine and horses- bratislava

104
Q

What are the different host adapted serovars of leptospira for dogs, deer, rodents, and raccoons?

A

dog - canicola
deer - pomona
rodents - icterohaemorrhagiae
raccoons - autumnalis

105
Q

What is the most common manifestation of lepto in pigs?

A

abortions occuring 2-4 weeks before term

106
Q

What plays a role in maintenence of lepto in pigs?

A

veneral transmission from carrier boars and sows

107
Q

What does lepto cause in attle?

A

calves –> fever, anorexia, hemolytic anemia

108
Q

What are the CS of lepto in horses?

A

uveitis or abortions

109
Q

What is the etiologic agent of swine dysentery?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

110
Q

What kind of lesions will be seen with swine dysentery?

A

necrohemorrhagic enterocolitis

111
Q

What spirochete colonizes the hindgut of vertebrates and causes colonic spirochetosis?

A

Brachyspira pilosicoli

112
Q

What diagnostic test is the acute indicator of leptospira infection?

A

quantitative PCR (vax does not effect)

113
Q

What diagnostic test is a chronic indicator of lepto infection?

A

MAT (microagglutination titer)

114
Q

When will peak serum antibody titers occur for lepto?

A

17-21 days post infection

115
Q

Which host species would lawsonia be a differential diagnosis for diarrhea?

A

pigs, horses, rodents

116
Q

What disease does lawsonia cause?

A

proliferative enteropathy

117
Q

What are the 4 different forms of proliferative enteropathy in swine based on age of animal and chronicity?

A

Chronic forms- young animals –> porcine intestinal adenomatosis, necrotic enteritis, regional ileitis
Acute form- old –>proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy

118
Q

What are the unique histopath lesions of Lawsonia inracellularis?

A

long branched crypts –> increased PMNs, decreased goblets

119
Q

What are the unique gross lesions of Lawsonia intracellularis?

A

proliferative enteritis - mucosal expansion

120
Q

What are the 2 diagnosis tests for ante mortem detection of lawsonia intracellularis?

A

PCR in feces

serology

121
Q

What are the 2 subspecies of campylobacter fetus and their hosts?

A

C. fetus var veneralis - bovine

C. fetus var fetus - ovine and bovine

122
Q

What specimen should always be taken in LA abortions?

A

stomach contents of fetus

123
Q

What toxin is responsible for the damage caused by campy jejuni?

A

cytolethal distending toxin (e coli also has)

124
Q

Why is Campy jejuni such a scary zoonotic pathogen?

A

common in small ruminants, cattle, dogs –> enteritis, abortions
also guilian barre syndrome

125
Q

What is the biology of the C. jejuni cytolethal distending toxin?

A

cdtB encodes active/toxic component (unlike A/B toxi)

cdTB enters nuclease and causes DNA double strand breaks

126
Q

Why must specific C. jejuni culture be requested during diagnosis?

A

microaerophilic environment and specific media

127
Q

What are the 3 important species of Hemophilus?

A

parasuis, paragallinarum, somnus

128
Q

What is the bacterial characteristics for all of the HAP group of bacteria?

A

pleomorphic gram - rod, facultative or aerobic

129
Q

What two factors are needed to grow Hemophilus in culture?

A

X factor : heme
V factor: NAD
can use chocolate agar

130
Q

What is the satellite phenomenon?

A

Staph streak down middle of plate - hemophilus only grows near it

131
Q

Where is hemophilus usually found and transmitted?

A

normal flora

respiratory transmission by close contact

132
Q

What is the main predisposing factor to infection with hemophilis parasuis?

A

concurrent viral infection - SIV, PRRS

133
Q

What are the 2 forms of Hemophilis parasuis disease?

A

respiratory

Glassers - polyserositis, vasculitis

134
Q

What dz does Hemophilis somnus cause?

A

thromboembolic meningoencephalitis

135
Q

When does hemophilus somnus disease usually occur in calves?

A

feedlot cavles a few weeks after being brought together in the fall

136
Q

What is the eitologic agent of Fowl Coryza?

A

avibacterium paragallinarum (in pasteurella family)

137
Q

What species are affected by wooden tongue, A. lignieresii?

A

cattle, sheep, swine, horses

138
Q

What species is affected by Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia?

A

swine (nasal cavities)

139
Q

What CS does actinobacillus equuli cause?

A

sleepy foal dz (septicemia)

140
Q

What causes damage and death in A. pleuropneumonia?

A

endotoxin - sudden death

repeating tandem x toxin family - highly toxic to macros and endothelial cells

141
Q

What lesions will be seen in swine infected with A. pleuropneumoia?

A

exudative, proliferative, hemorrhagic and necrotic bronchopneumonia

142
Q

What is the treatment for A. pleuropneumonia?

A

no vax, must do susceptibility testing

143
Q

What 4 diseases result from infection with pasteurella multocida?

A

atrophic rhinitis
fowl cholera
ruminant hemorrhagic septicemia
bite wounds (cat)

144
Q

What is the significance of the capsule of pasteurella multocida?

A

serogrouping and related to pathogenicity/host specificity

145
Q

What are the two most important virulence factors of pasteurella multocida?

A

capsule

PMT - causes cytoskeletal arrangements in host cells

146
Q

What is the co-infection requirement for P. multocida in atrophic rhinitis in swine?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

147
Q

What kind of disease is fowl cholera?

A

avian hemorrhagic septicemia

148
Q

How does P. multocida evade immune response?

A

immunological mimicry - sialic acid –> can cause autoimmune dz

149
Q

What is the most frequent bacterial isolate in lungs of pneumonic cattle?

A

Mannheimia hemolytica

150
Q

What are the important morphological characteristics for mycoplasma?

A

gram negative, no cell wall, very small, fried egg on media

151
Q

What are the culture reqs for mycoplasma spp?

A

rich media, sterols needed, incubation for 2-10 days, 9% CO2, osmotically fragile

152
Q

What are the 3 host specific respiratory mycoplasmas?

A

M. bovis - CPPS, BRD, and mastitis
M. hyopneumoniae - enzootic pneumonia in swine
M. gallisepticium - chronic resp dz

153
Q

What is the most likeley mechanism of mycoplasma damage to host?

A

innocent bystander - immune response causes damage

154
Q

What are the virulence mechanisms of mycoplasma spp?

A

surface lipoprotein phase variation - slipping of tandem repeats
some have “terminal organelle” - adhesins

155
Q

What 2 antibiotics are mycoplasma species resistant to?

A

penicillin, sulfonamides (cell wall)

156
Q

How can M. bovis be diagnosed?

A

ELISA serology or PCR of lung post mortem

157
Q

What drug is effective in treatment of M. bovis?

A

Tulathromycin

158
Q

How is M. hyopneumoniae in swine diagnosed?

A

PCR of BAL, nasal swabs

159
Q

What are the important haemotropic mycoplasmas in dogs and cats? (4)

A

dog - M. haemocanis

cat - M. haemofelis, M. haemominutim, M. turicensis

160
Q

What is the host and disease of Ureaplasma diversum?

A

cattle - reproductive and respiratory infections, abortion

161
Q

What test differs strep from staph?

A

strep - catalase negative

staph - catalase positive

162
Q

What kind of metabolism does strep use? What test can aid in diagnosis?

A

strictly fermentative

CHO broth –>yellow

163
Q

What are the two unique cell wall components of strep?

A

lipoteichoic acid pilli + M protein

hyaluronic acid capsule

164
Q

How are streptococcus grouped and what species is in each group?

A 
Lancefield grouping - C-carbohydrate on wall
A - S. pyogenes
B - S. agalactiae
C - S. equi
D - S. bovis, uberi, AND enterococcus
G - S. canis
165
Q

Which strep group (and pathogen) result in auto immune dzs?

A

group A - pyogenes (rheumatic fever or glomerulonephritis)

166
Q

What 3 diseases are caused by group B strep, S. agalactiae?

A

pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis

167
Q

What does group C strep cause?

A

pharyngitis and pneumonia in equines, dogs, guinea pigs and humans

168
Q

What are the 3 soluble virulence factors of streptococcus species?

A

Hemolysins - varies
streptokinase - lyses clots
hyaluronidase - spread

169
Q

What are the two important hemolysins in streptococcus spp?

A

Streptolysin O - oxygen sensitive, immunigenic

Streptolysin S - stable, non immunogenic

170
Q

What are the two insoluble factors aiding in streptococcus virulence?

A

M protein - pilus like structure
F - protein - fibronectin binding
both are adhesins

171
Q

What virulence related protein is different between staph and strep?

A

staph - Protein A
strep - protein G
anti-phagocytic

172
Q

What toxin causes the rash associated with scarlet fever in strep infections?

A

pyrogenic (erythrogenic) toxin

173
Q

What 3 strep toxins are nephritogenic?

A

Streptokinase
streptodomase (dnase B)
streptolysins

174
Q

Why is strep more invasive than staph?

A

strep breaks down fibrin –> less likely to abcess and can spread

175
Q

How does strep survive in macrophages?

A

has superoxide dismutase (even though catalase negative)

176
Q

What are two easy diagnostic tests to identify streptococcus genus?

A

hemolysis rxn, CAMP rxn (arrow on blood agar)

177
Q

What test determines if the strep is S. bovis or S. suis?

A

hydrolysis of esculin

178
Q

What strep group grows in bile or salt broth?

179
Q

What antibiotics should be used against strep?

A

beta lactams and cephalosporins

180
Q

How is strangles, S. equi (beta strep), diagnosed?

A

M protein PCR detection

181
Q

What is usefule in reducing CS in equine strangles?

182
Q

Which beta strep causes upper resp infections in foals?

A

S. equi ssp. zooepidemicus

183
Q

What beta strep causes septic arthritis in pigs?

A

S. dysgalactiae ssp. equisimilis

184
Q

What beta strep causes oppurtunistic infections associated with allergy?

A

Strep canis

185
Q

What mastitis causing strep is an obligate IM pathogen and is camp + and B hemolytic?

A

S. agalactiae

186
Q

What two strep spp are environmental causes of mastitis? What is there hemolysis pattern?

A

S. uberis - alpha

S. dysgalactiae - gamma

187
Q

What is recommended for treatment in alpha strep (group D, non enterococcus)?

A

susceptibility testing

188
Q

Which strep causes meningitis and septicemia in young pigs? What are the two types?

A

strep suis
Type 1 - baby pigs
Type 2 - older young pigs

189
Q

Which strep is an important zoonotic dz in pig farmers/handlers?

A

strep suis

190
Q

What dzs does strep bovis cause in calves?

A

resp, meningitis, endocarditis

191
Q

What can strep bovis lead to with diets high in starch?

A

feedlot bloat

192
Q

What 2 autoimmune dzs is a sequelae of strep throat?

A

acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

193
Q

What are problems caused by a superantigen such as in strep species?

A

large subset of T-cells –> excess cytokines –> shock

194
Q

What 2 antibiotics should be avoided in strep tx?

A

fluoroquinolones and vancomycin

195
Q

What are alternatives to antibiotics in tx of strep?

A

bacteriophage (use once)

bacteriocins - streps inhibit other streps

196
Q

What are the morph characteristics of bordetella?

A

gram - rods, obligate aerobe, slow growing, oxidase and catalase positive

197
Q

What are the toxins produced by bordetella?

A

dermonecrotic, endotoxin, iron acquisition

198
Q

What other animals can be infected by bordetella besides dogs?

A

pigs, rabbits, cats, horses

199
Q

What are some cell proteins that bordetella possesses and what do they do?

A

Fimbriae (pertussis vax)
filamentous hemagglutinin - binds on cilia
pretactin - host cell attachment, immunogenic
LPS

200
Q

What 2 bordetella species infect birds?

A

B. avium, hinzii,

201
Q

What are the 3 A/B toxins we have talked about?

A

E labile toxin
cholera toxin
pertussis toxin

202
Q

What toxin is present in all gram negative bacteria peptidoglycan and stimulates TNF alpha?

A

tracheal cytotoxin (used by bordetella –> cilia)

203
Q

What does the bordetella toxin, adenlate cyclase/hemolysin target?

A

phagocytes

204
Q

How does bordetella bronchiseptica release its toxins?

A

type 3 secretion system

205
Q

What two bacteria have a two component signal transduction system that conserves energy while not in the host?

A

strep equi and bordetella

206
Q

What is the MOA of S. aureus toxic shock toxin?

A

crosslinks TCR peptide chain with MHC class 2 molecule –> excessive secretion of cytokines

207
Q

What does streptolysin do?

A

forms membrane pores

UI 607 Bacteriology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions