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UI 607 Bacteriology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary cell target for rickettsia?

A

endothelial cells (non professional phagocytes)

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2
Q

What is the morphology of rickettsia?

A

very small pleomorphic coccobacilli

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3
Q

How is rickettsia spread in the host?

A

reitculoendothelial and vascular endothelial cells or erythrocytes

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4
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for rickettsia?

A

PCR

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5
Q

What age does anaplasma marginale cause the most disease?

A

animals older than 18 months

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6
Q

How is anaplasma marginale spread?

A

ticks and biting flies

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7
Q

How is anaplasma marginale diagnosed?

A

cytology - blood smear and special staining

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8
Q

What kind of cell is targeted by ehrlichia canis?

A

WBCs (different from rickettsia)

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9
Q

What are the CS of ehrlichia canis?

A

pancytopenia, epistaxis, hypergammaglobulinemia, lymphadenopathy, increased RBC sedimentation

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10
Q

What bacteria causes Potomac horse fever?

A

Neorickettsia risticii

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of potomac horse fever?

A

anorexia, fever, leukopenia, explosive diarrhea

usually in the summer months

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12
Q

How is neorickettsia risticii transmitted?

A

new info - ingestion of infected trematodes, also by biting arthropods

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13
Q

How is chlamydia transmitted?

A

direct contact

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14
Q

What are the two life cycle forms, infective and non infective, of chlamydia?

A

Elementary bodies - infective

reticulate or initial bodies - non infectious

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15
Q

What is the cell tropism of chlamydia?

A

epithelial cells of mucous membranes and phagocytes

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16
Q

What inclusion bodies does chlamydia produce?

A

membrane inclusion bodies (not free in cytoplasm like rickettsia)

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17
Q

What is the incubation period for young and older birds for chlamydia psittici?

A

older - a few days to several weeks

young - 3-7 days

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of psitticosis?

A

anorexia, diarrhea, mucopurulent discharge

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19
Q

What is the treatment for psittacosis?

A

chlorotetracycline (peniciillin NOT effective) (intracellular)

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of bartonella henselae?

A

regional lymphadenopathy, cutaneous inoculation lesion, fever, anorexia, resolves in 1 month

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21
Q

What bacteria is the cause of infectious bovine keratoconjuctivitis?

A

Moraxella bovis

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22
Q

What is the morphology of Moraxella bovis? What kind of colonies does it form?

A

gram negative diplobaccilli

forms pits on agar surface

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23
Q

How does Moraxella bovis become infectious?

A

opportunistic! (concurrent viral or mycoplasma infection), solar radiation

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24
Q

What are the two important virulence factors for moraxella bovis?

A

pilli

hemolysin - lyse RBCs and corneal cells

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25
Q

What is the treatment of choice for moraxella bovis?

A

oxytetracycline (intracellular)

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26
Q

Which burkholderia species is non motile and mammalian host adapted?

A

B. mallei

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27
Q

What species is burkholderia an obligate parasite?

A

equidae family

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28
Q

How does Pseudomonas and Burholderia encounter the host?

A

inhalation or wounds

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29
Q

What are the two pigments produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

pyoverdin and pyocanin

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30
Q

What are the diseases caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in swine, cows, dogs, sheep, and chinchillas?

A 
Swine - necrotic pneuomonias, enteritis, and rhinitis
Cow - mastitis
Dogs - otitis externa
sheep - green wool or fleece rot
chins - hemorrhagic pneumonia
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31
Q

What is the unifying feature of the CMN group? (coryne, myco, nocardia)

A

mycolic acids - long chain, alpha branched, beta-hydroxy fatty acids in cell wall

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32
Q

What is the cord factor and in what bacteria is it found?

A

cord factor - glycolipid composed of mycolic acid and an oligosaccharide
found in M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

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33
Q

How does cord factor act as a virulence factor?

A

grow in serpentine cords –> granulomatous reaction

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34
Q

What two stains can be used for mycobacterium?

A

acid fast and carbol-fuschsin stain

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35
Q

What two media can be used to culture mycobacterium?

A

middlebrooks and lowenstein-jensen (both have glycerol)

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36
Q

What is the morphology of mycobacterium?

A

small rods, non motile, strict aerobes

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37
Q

What can tissue be treated with to kill competing organisms to look for mycobacterium?

A

1:1000 bleach and 2% NaOH (myco are resistant to acid and alkali)

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38
Q

What happens with M. tuberculosis infects an immunodeficient host?

A

dissemination of tubercle bacilli (instead of nodules)

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39
Q

What is the term for cell density dependent communication system in bacteria that use N-acyl hemoserine lactones or small peptides to coordinate virulence?

A

quorum sensing (master regulator of virulence)

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40
Q

What starts biofilm formation in Pseudomonas?

A

rhamnolipids

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41
Q

What are the three advantages to Pseudomonas when in a biofilm?

A

antiphagocytic
protection from antimicrobials
mutate at higher frequency

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42
Q

What kind of disease does Burkholderia pseudomallei cause?

A

meliodosis - pain, skin infections, associated with suppurative or caseous lesions

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43
Q

Where is B. pseudomallei endemic to?

A

SE asia, other tropical countries, saprophytic, high humidity

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44
Q

What media can be used to help diagnose Burkholderia pseudomallei? What does it look like microscopically?

A

Ashdowns media = unique colony form (purple, wrinkled) and odor
bipolar, safety pin shaped

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45
Q

What can B. pseudomallei do different with its TT3S than pseudomonas?

A

form multinucleated giant cells

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46
Q

What causes Glanders disease in animals and humans?

A

Burkholderia mallei

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47
Q

What does B. mallei cause in horses?

A

(glanders)ulcerating nodules in URT, lungs and skin –> fatal

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48
Q

What are the CS of acute glanders dz?

A

septicemia with high fever, followed by thick discharge and resp distress –> death

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49
Q

What are CS of the chronic nasal form of glanders?

A

nodules in nasal cavity, star shaped scars

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50
Q

What are the CS of the pulmonary form of chronic glanders?

A

tubercle like nodules with calcified centers, consolidation, upper respiratory tract infection

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51
Q

What is the name for the cutanous form of chronic glanders. What are CS?

A

Farcy = purulent lymphadenitis, nodules along course of lymph and extremities

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52
Q

What is the test for glanders?

A

Mallein test - injected into eyelid, eyelid will swell in 1-2 days
or PCR

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53
Q

What is cord factor composed of?

A

basically 2 glucose and 2 mycolic acids

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54
Q

How is M. bovis transmitted?

A

airoborne, humans can get thru milk, congenital, sexual

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55
Q

What causes Johnes dz?

A

M. avium subspecies paratuberculosis (MAP)

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56
Q

How can pigs become infected with Mycobacterium avium?

A

wild and domestic birds

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57
Q

How is Mycobacteria avium complex diagnosed?

A

acid fast staining or reference lab

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58
Q

What does Johnes dz cause in ruminants?

A

chronic enteritis and severe diarrhea in cattle

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59
Q

How is MAP (paratuberculosis) diagnosed?

A

PCR of 16S rRNA

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60
Q

What intracellular bacteria causes fever, headache, rash, and loss of appetite?

A

R. rickettsii

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61
Q

What is the cell tropism for Anaplasma marginale?

A

RBCs

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62
Q

What symptoms are caused by Anaplasma marginale?

A

severe anemia, depression, inappetance, fever, dehydration

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63
Q

How is chlamydia different from rickettsia when it enters endothelial cells?

A

chlamydia is not free in the cytoplasm

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64
Q

What are the early CS of IBK?

A

excessive tear production, dislike of sun, closed eyelids

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65
Q

What are the later CS of IBK?

A

cloudy eye, ulcer, painful, weight loss

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66
Q

When you find one cow with moraxella bovis, what is your next step?

A

see if more than one animal is affected (usually is)

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67
Q

What is the correlation between Moraxella bovis and clinical disease in calves and dams?

A

Calves - positive correlation

cows - no correlation

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68
Q

What is the culture requirement for pigment production for P. aeruginosa?

A

grow at 42 degrees C

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69
Q

What characteristics make P. aeruginosa preliminarily identifiable on mueller hinton agar?

A

green hue appearance and grape like odor

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70
Q

What are the three disposing factors to Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?

A
  1. parasitic or fungal infections of the skin
  2. prolonged exposure to antimicrobials
  3. poor sanitation
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71
Q

What are the bacteria in the CMN group?

A

corynebacteria, mycobacteria, and nocardia

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72
Q

What drugs are effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

necessary to run sensitivity tests!

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73
Q

What are the CS of burkholderia pseudomallei?

A

vary widely, most are subclinical

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74
Q

What are the two important preventative measures for B. pseudomallei? What is the treatment?

A

raise animals off soil, clean drinking water, minimize environmental contamination
tx - initial intensive therapy

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75
Q

What is the pathogenesis of nodules in M. tuberculosis in healthy animals/humans?

A

inhaled via aerosols –> alveolar macrophages –> macrophage activated by Th1 cytokines –> granuloma

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76
Q

What is the result of M. tuberculosis in immunodeficient hosts?

A

“Miliary tuberculosis” - unrestricted growth within macrophages –> dissemination of tubercle bacilli

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77
Q

What bacteria causes the ileum and colon to become corrugated and thickened and causes malabsorption of nutrients?

A

Johnes disease (M. avium ssp paratuberculosis)

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78
Q

What makes corynebacterium different than other bacteria in the CMN group?

A

not acid fast (despite mycolic acids)

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79
Q

What are two characteristic cellular components of corynebacterium?

A

metachromatic granules and “palisades” (picket fence) or chinese letters

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80
Q

What does it mean when you isolate corynebacterium from a clinical sample?

A

not necessarily cause of disease, is a commensal

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81
Q

What bacteria causes caseous lymphadenitis?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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82
Q

What are the three species of corynebacterium renale group?

A

renale, pilosoum, cystitidis

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83
Q

What does the cell morphology of rhodococcus depend on?

A

pleiomorphic, 24 hours vs. 48 hours

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84
Q

What disease does C. renale cause?

A

posthitis (pizzle rot), also pyelonephritis, urethritis, and cystitis in cattle, sheep, horses

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85
Q

What makes Rhodococcus like the CMN group?

A

has mycolic acids

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86
Q

What can rhodococcus cells stain with if from fresh culture?

A

acid fast positive

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87
Q

What age are foals affected by rhodococcus equi?

A

4 - 12 weeks, coincides with decline in colostral Ab

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88
Q

What are the CS of rhodococcus equi?

A

slowly progressive, fever, increased respiratory rate, harsh lung sounds

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89
Q

What gross lesions are seen with Rhodococcus equi?

A

chronic pyogranulomatous bronchopneuomonia with extensive lung abcesses

90
Q

How does Rhodococcus equi cause enteritis?

A

coughed up and swallowed

91
Q

What bacteria causes rocky moutain spotted fever?

A

R. rickettsii

92
Q

How does Rickettsia spp cause damage?

A

capillary thrombi

93
Q

What species are most affected by psittacosis?

A

parrots, parakeets, turkeys

94
Q

Whats the virulence factor of p. aeruginosa?

A

biofilm

95
Q

What bacteria requires ashdown media to dagnose?

A

burkholderia pseudomallei

96
Q

How does M. tuberculosis or M. bovis cause infection?

A

inhaled –>alveolar macrophages –> activation of other macrophages –> granuloma

97
Q

What are the two problems with treating mycobacterium diseases?

A

long course of treatment, resistance can develop rapidly

98
Q

Which bacteria can be cultured by using a cold enrichment technique? What temperatures can this bacteria grow at?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

grows between 0.4C and 50C

99
Q

What bacteria produces a camp reaction with staph aureus besides strep agalactiae?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

100
Q

What is the cell tropism of L. monocytogenes?

A

CNS and placenta

101
Q

What are the 4 types of listeriosis?

A

Intestinal, visceral, abortive, neural

102
Q

What is the most common and fatal form of listeriosis usually seen in ruminants?

A

circling dz - prevelant in winter and early spring when sheep cut teeth

103
Q

How does listeria get to the brain?

A

along trigeminal nerve

104
Q

What is the sequence of stages of infection for listeria?

A
  1. internaliation
  2. escape from phagolysosomes
  3. nucleation of actin filaments
  4. cell to cell spread
  5. membrane vacuole
105
Q

What bacteria causes diamond skin dz in swine?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

106
Q

What are the 3 forms of diamond skin dz?

A

acute - die suddenly
subacute - high fever, walk stiffly, skin discoloration
chronic - arthritis

107
Q

What is the root pathogenesis of diamond skin dz?

A

septic emboli

108
Q

What is a sequelae of diamond skin dz acute and subacute forms?

A

endocarditis

109
Q

What can be incorporated into culture media to allow obligate anaerobic growth?

A

reducing agents - sulfhydryl compounds and metallic iron

110
Q

What are some causes of Eh lowering in host tissue?

A

loss of vascular supply, acid production, trauma

111
Q

What are the important gram positive anaerobic bacilli?

A

actinomyces (aerotolerant)

clostridium - spore forming

112
Q

What are the important gram negative anaerobic bacilli?

A

bacteroides, fusobacterium

113
Q

What bacteria are in the toxin forming-non invasive group of clostridium?

A

tetani and botulinum

114
Q

What 4 bacteria can cause blackleg disease?

A

C. chauvoei

also C. novyi, septicum, and sordellii

115
Q

What bacteria has an alpha toxin that degrades phosphatidylcholine on cell membranes?

A

Clostridium chauvoei

116
Q

What does phospholipase C (alpha toxin) break phosphatidylcholine into?

A

Diacylglycerol and phosphorylcholine (blackleg dz, chauvoei)

117
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with blackleg dz?

A

hemorrhagic necrotizing myositis with substantial gas formation

118
Q

What bacteria causes malignant edema?

A

Clostridium septicum

119
Q

What are predisposing factors for malignant edema?

A

switch from succulent to dry/icy feed

120
Q

What kind of disease is malignant edema? (C. septicum)

A

infection of abomasal lining

121
Q

What is malignant edema called in sheep?

A

braxy

122
Q

What bacteria causes red water disease (hemoglobinuria)?

A

Clostridium hemolyticum

123
Q

What is the predisposing factor to infection with Clostridium hemolyticum?

A

liver fluke damage allows for anaerobiosis

124
Q

What are the two types of Clostridium novyi and what diseases do they cause?

A

Type A - gas gangrene

Type B - black disease

125
Q

What bacteria causes “big head” disease in yearling rams?

A

Clostridium novyi

126
Q

What bacteria causes Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme

127
Q

What are the two types of Tyzzer’s disease?

A
  1. necrotizing hepatitis

2. hemorrhagic enteritis - melana

128
Q

What Gr + bacteria can show up gram negative when gram stained in aerobic conditions?

A

Clostridium pilliforme

129
Q

What bacteria causes pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

A

Clostridium difficile

130
Q

What clostridium can cause enterotoxemia?

A

clostridium perfringens

131
Q

What two toxins does clostridium perfringens have?

A

alpha

beta = profuse diarrhea

132
Q

What bacteria causes yellow lamb dz in nursing lambs and horses?

A

Clostridium perfringens

133
Q

What are the gross lesions of clostridium perfringens?

A

purple gut - necrosis and bleeding into gut lumen

134
Q

What are the two diseases caused by C. perfringens type D?

A

enterotoxemia in sheep and goats

pulpy kidney disease (overeating disease)

135
Q

What are the CS of overeating disease?

A

colic, muscle tremors, convulsions, nystagmus, grinding of teeth, frothing

136
Q

What are the important steps in preventing overeating disease?

A

vaccination, colostrum, gradual food transitions, lots of clean water

137
Q

What is the MOA of tetanus toxin?

A

block release of inhibitory neurotransmitters persynaptically (GABA, glycine)

138
Q

What is the MOA of botulinum toxin?

A

inhibits release of excititatory neutrotransmitter (AcH) in PNS –> flaccid paralysis –> respiratory failure

139
Q

What is the target for both tetanus and botulinum toxin?

A

synaptobrevins (prevents fusion of vescile)

140
Q

What causes contagious foot rot in sheep when combined with fusobacterium necrophorum?

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

141
Q

What is a secondary invader that causes foot rot in cattle sheep and deer?

A

fusobacterium necrophorum

142
Q

What bacteria causes foot rot in cattle with F. necrophorum?

A

Bacteroides malninogenicus

143
Q

What should urine samples never be sent in?

A

EDTA

144
Q

What is the gold standard in culturing for urine?

A

culture and susceptabilities prior to therapy and 3-5 days after completion of therapy

145
Q

What are the two most common bacterial causes of UTIs?

A 
E coli (50%)
Staph pseudintermedius (16%)
146
Q

What are the virulence factors of uropathogenic e coli?

A

fimbrial adhesins (s and p) and cytotoxigenic necrotizing factor (CNF 1 and 2)

147
Q

What can be used against MDR e coli?

A

nitrofurantoin

148
Q

What is the term for hypae without septa?

A

coenocytic

149
Q

What are three examples of dimorphic fungi?

A

blastomyces, histoplasma an coccidiodes

150
Q

What is the term for sexual state of fungus and asexual state?

A 
sexual = teleomorph
asexual = anamorph
151
Q

Term for a spre resulting from fragmentation of a hypha a t the septum.

A

arthrospores

152
Q

What does invasion of hair usually yield with dermatophyes?

A

masses of arthrospores

153
Q

Term for spores outside hair shaft. Inside hair shaft.

A

ectothrix - outside

endothrix - inside

154
Q

Term for asexual spore usually produced at tip or side of a hypha. Basis for identification

A

conidium

155
Q

Is transmission more common to be indirect or direct with dermatophytes?

A

indirect

156
Q

What are the three opportunistic fungi?

A

aspergillus, candida, cryptococcus

157
Q

What is the predominant pathogenic aspergillus species?

A

fumigatus

158
Q

What is unique about the cultureability of aspergillus fumigatus?

A

can grow over wide temp range

159
Q

What is the most comon mycosis of birds?

A

aspergillus fumigatus

160
Q

What is the face like structure called on A. fumigatus?

A

sterigmata

161
Q

What is the structure between the sterigmata and the conidiophore on A. fumigatus?

A

vesicle

162
Q

What is the stalk in A. fumigatus called?

A

conidiophore

163
Q

Where is C. albicans usually found? A. fumigatus?

A

albicans - normal inhabitant

fumigatus -widespread in nature

164
Q

What is the first test for C. albicans?

A

germ tube test - incubate 1-2 hours to see if germ tube forms

165
Q

What fungi is prominant in pigeon droppings?

A

cryptococcus

166
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of cryptococcus yeast form?

A

capsules can be much thicker than fungal cells

167
Q

How does cryptococcus get inside the host?

A

inhalation then hematogenous spread

basidiospore can penetrate lower resp tract

168
Q

What is a popular target for cryptococcus because of low molecular weight nitrogen compounds?

A

CNS

169
Q

What are the two important virulence factors for cryptococcus?

A

polysaccharide capsule and phenoloxidase (produces melanin)

170
Q

What can be given orally for treating dermatophytes but is not active against other fungi?

A

griseofulvin

171
Q

What is the MOA of griseofulvin?

A

disrupts mitotic spindle structure

172
Q

What is the MOA of amphotericin B?

A

binds to ergosterol in fungal membrane –> leakage of ions

173
Q

What is amphotericin B used to treat and how?

A

used IV - deep seated fungal infections,

174
Q

What is the toxicity of amphotericin B?

A

nephrotoxic

175
Q

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

A

disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis

176
Q

How does flucytosine avoid affecting host cells?

A

enters via permease (only fungi have)

177
Q

What is the MOA of azoles?

A

interfere with ergosterol biosynthesis

178
Q

What azole has a broad spectrum and effects dermatophytes?

A

itraconaozole

179
Q

What azole affects candida and cryptococcus but is ineffective against aspergillus?

A

fluconazole

180
Q

What is the newer azole that is effective against aspergillus?

A

voriconazole

181
Q

What is the MOA of echinocandins?

A

inhibit synthesis of beta 1,3 glucan in fungal cell wall

182
Q

What are the two echinocandin drugs?

A

caspofungin and micafungin

183
Q

What are the 3 major contagious mastitis pathogens?

A

staph aureus
strep agalactiae
mycoplasma bovis

184
Q

What are the 3 major environmental mastitis pathogens?

A

coliform bacteria
strep (other than agalactiae)
fungi, algae

185
Q

Is bacillus aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

186
Q

What are the three differential culture characteristics between anthracis and other bacilli?

A

not hemolytic on sheep blood agar
has glutamyl polypeptide capsule
is not motile

187
Q

What bacillus species is a food safety hazard?

A

bacillus cereus

188
Q

What are the two forms of B. cereus food poisoning? What is their incubation time?

A

emetic form - short

diarrheal form - long

189
Q

What do B. anthracis colonies look like?

A

ground glass colonies

medusa head edges

190
Q

What are the microscopic characteristics of b. anthracis?

A

large Gr + rods, with square or concave ends in chains

191
Q

What are some symptoms of b. anthracis?

A

sudden onset, high fever, bleeding from orifices, edema, peracute death in 1-2 hours

192
Q

What can cutaneous anthrax cause?

A

black necrotic ulcer

193
Q

What are the two virulence factors of anthrax?

A

capsule and exotoxin

194
Q

What are the three components of anthrax exotoxins?

A

1 - edema factor
2-protective antigen –> host binding and pore formation
3 - lethal factor

195
Q

What is the most important exotoxin of anthrax for virulence?

A

protective antigen

196
Q

What is the MOA of anthrax toxin?

A

increased camp –> local edma

Lf and PA -> degradation of MAPKK= cell death

197
Q

What are the 4 pathogenic species that are transition bacteria?

A

actinomyces bovis
actinomyces viscosus
trueperella pyogenes
nocardia

198
Q

What bacteria causes lumpy jaw disease in cattle?

A

actinomyces bovis

199
Q

How can actinomyces bovis be diagnosed?

A

horse shoe shape sulfur granules

200
Q

What are characteristics of “transition” bacteria?

A

generally anaerobic, Gr +, branching growth pattern that forms mycelium

201
Q

What transition bacteria can be combined with fusobacterium necrophorum to form heal abcesses (foot rot) in sheep?

A

trueperlla pyogenes

202
Q

What bacteria forms star shaped coloies that adhere to agar?

A

nocardia

203
Q

What is important when diagnosing nocardia?

A

grows slowly, must do gram stain also

204
Q

How can nocardia get into the hose?

A

inhalation, cotamination of skin wounds

205
Q

What disease is most severe from nocardia?

A

pulmonary nocardiosis (can also cause mastitis)

206
Q

How can you distinguish transition bacteria from funal infections?

A

mycelial filament diameter is less than 1 uM in transition bacteria (very important)

207
Q

What are the two forms of dermatophilus congolensis?

A

non motile - hyphae

motile form - zoospores

208
Q

What can increase the incidence of dermatophilus congolensis?

A

wet weather - wet skin releases zoospores

209
Q

What are the main diseases caused by dermatophilosis?

A

lumpy wool in sheep
cutaneous stretothricosis in cattle
(exudative dermatitis with scabs)

210
Q

How is dermatophilus congolensis transmitted?

A

mechanically (tree branches, dipping, biting insects)

211
Q

What is the pathogenesis of dermatophilosis?

A

hyphae invade epidermis - serous exudate leask to surface –> thick scab

212
Q

What are the 3 fungi that can cause systemic mycoses?

A

blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidiodes

213
Q

Where is each systemic mycoses found?

A

blasto - eastern and central US
histo - midwest
coccidiodes - desert SW US

214
Q

How are systemic mycoses transmitted?

A

inhalation of spores

215
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of systemic mycoses?

A
  1. geographical restriction
  2. inhaltion transmission
  3. dimorphism
216
Q

What yeast forms a globose with thick refractile walls and buds rise from a wide opening?

A

blastomyces

217
Q

What systemic mycoses can infect normal healthy animals?

A

blastomyces

218
Q

What are the virulence factors of blastomyces?

A

BAD-1 cell surface protein - mediates adhesion to lung tissue

219
Q

Where is histoplasma usually found?

A

in bat and bird droppings

220
Q

What are the yeast characteristics of histoplasma? mold form?

A

very small yeast,intracellular

mold - aerial mycelia

221
Q

What is the most commonly infected animal by histoplasma?

A

dogs

222
Q

What is seen in tissues infected with coccidiodes?

A

spherules

UI 607 Bacteriology (3 decks)

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