Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UI 607 Virology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What characteristics are considered in classifying viruses?

A

host range, virion morphology, nucleic acid type, specific genes, phylogenetic groupings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the suffix for phylogenetic order?

A

ales (virales)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the suffic for subfamily?

A

inae (virinae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the suffix for genus?

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the steps in viral replication known as the “eclipse” phase?

A

uncoating –> assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which viral families an replicate in either the cytoplasm or nucleus?

A

retroviruses, hepadnaviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which types of viruses replicate in the nucleus?

A

most DNA viruses and orthomyxo (exception: pox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What types of viruses replicate in cytoplasm?

A

most RNA viruses and pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two virus families have a ssDNA genome and replicate using host DNA replication system?

A

circo and parvo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two important RNA dependent RNA polymerases? What do they do?

A

replicase - copies viral RNA to produce progeny genomes

transcriptase - produces mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kind of replication system is retroviruses?

A

SS + RNA with DNA intermediate (integrates into host genome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 enzymatic activities of reverse transcriptase?

A
  1. RNA dependent DNA polymerase
  2. RNase H activity (degrades RNA from RNA/DNA hybrids)
  3. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What step is required right before a virion becomes infectious?

A

cleaving Gag and Gag/Pol polyproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of a quasispecies?

A

source of phenotypic variants that can rapidly respond to selective pressures by shifting population composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 determinants of tissue tropism?

A

susceptibility, permissivity, accessibility, defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 main functions of Type 1 interferons?

A

resistance to viral replication
increase MHC class 1 and antigen presentation
activate NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does the virus entering cell turn on the antiviral response?

A

TLRs –> IFNs –>ISGs –> Antiviral response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What cell types do DNA viruses “transform”?

A

primary non-permissive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cell types do RNA viruses transform?

A

permissive or non-permissive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What types of oncogenes are involved in DNA virus transformation?

A

unique early viral genes, essential for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of oncogenes are involved in RNA virus transformation?

A

c-onc or homologue (v-onc), non essential for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the MOA of transformation with DNA viruses?

A

inhibit stop signals, inactivates TSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 MOA of transformation in RNA viruses?

A

activate go signals

  • transduction : v-onc
  • insertional mutagenesis: near c-onc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does the interaction of transformation differ between RNA and DNA viruses?

A

RNA = steady state productive

both can be non-productive or integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the cell tropism for parvo?

A

crypt cells and myeloid system cells (panleukopenia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the pantropic form of parvo in neonatal dogs and cats?

A

dogs - myocardium

cats - cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What problems does parvo porcine virus cause?

A

infertility

>30 days –> mummification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the DsDNA of circovirus code for? (genomic and cdna strand)

A

genomic strand –> replication enzymes

CDNA strand –> encodes capsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does circovirus differ from parvo in assembly?

A

circo assemblies in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the cell tropism for circovirus?

A

lymph nodes

respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is PCV2 transmitted?

A

vertical (other circos are horizontal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is needed for viral clearance of PCV2?

A

cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What syndrome is caused by porcine circovirus type 2?

A

post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What other virus can PCV2 be synergistic with?

A

porcine parvo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the non permissive cells in the skin?

A

undifferentiated –> dermal/basal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the permissive cells in the skin?

A

differentiated –> keratinizing layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does the papilloma virus get into daughter cells in the skin?

A

episome sits in basal cell and is transmitted to daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What causes equine sarcoids?

A

bovine papilloma virus 1 or 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the MOA of amantidine and rimantidine?

A

ion channel locker –>penetration inhibitor (prevents influenza virus from uncoating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What drug is a nucleoside analog?

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What drug is a pyrophosphate analog?

A

foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What viruses may be affected by foscarnet?

A

some DNA and RNA viruses (herpes and retro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What drug is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

A

AZT (zidovudine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 3 protease inhibitors?

A

ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MOA of protease inhibitors?

A

blocks polyprotease –> the gag-pol polyprotein processing of retroviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the MOA of oseltamivir andd zanamivir?

A

neuraminidase inhibitor –> alteration of particle aggregation and release (keeps virus from budding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the virus characteristics for adenoviridae?

A

ds DNA, nonenveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the epitopes of adenovirus that determine species specificity?

A

pentamers (vertices of capsid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the epitopes of adenovirus that determine genus host specificity?

A

hexamers

50
Q

What is the significance of the fibers on an adenovirus?

A

epitopes for antigens and help in initial attachment onto host cell

51
Q

What 3 systems do adenoviruses have tropism to?

A

epithelial –> especially respiratory, enteric, and kidney

52
Q

What is the incubation period of adenoviruses?

A

long - weeks

53
Q

What is the overall pathogenesis of adenoviruses?

A

remains localized

54
Q

Where does the adenovirus persist in the host animal?

A

pharyngeal or gut associated lymphoid tissue

55
Q

What is the definition of ubiquitous in relation to viruses?

A

highly species specific

56
Q

What adenovirus is an exception to the localized infection rule?

A

canine adeno 1 (infectios canine hepatitis)

57
Q

What CS are there in the hepatic form of canine adenovirus 1?

A

hepatocellular destruction, hemorrhages, encephalitis

58
Q

What 2 immune complex dzs are caused by CADV1?

A

arthus rxn - glomerulonephritis and blue eye

59
Q

What dz does CADV2 cause?

A

tracheobronchitis, mild

60
Q

What dz does equine adenovirus cause?

A

mild respiratory - bad in SCID foals

61
Q

What is the problem with vaccines to adenoviruses?

A

too many serotypes (except CAdV)

62
Q

What should you think when you hear poxvirus?

A

skin lesions and zoonotic potential

63
Q

What are the characteristics of the poxviridae family?

A

ds DNA, complex virion, very big, can be enveloped or non-enveloped

64
Q

What are the two morphological forms of pox viruses?

A

brick shaped - most

ovoid - parapoxvirus

65
Q

Where does poxvirus replicate?

A

cytoplasm (exception to DNA rule)

66
Q

What is the cell tropism of pox?

A

epithelial cells (permissive)

67
Q

What are the 2 forms of pathogenesis of pox?

A

localized infection - skin

systemic by respiratory inhalation - skin and organ lesions

68
Q

What is the incubation period for pox?

A

short

69
Q

What are the 3 ways of transmission of pox?

A

skin abrasions, respiratory, mechanical vectors (NO vertical)

70
Q

What two important viruses are in the orthopoxvirus subfamily?

A

smallpox, cowpox,

71
Q

What is the resevoir for cowpox?

A

rodents

72
Q

What is the diff dx of cowpox?

A

bovine mammilitis (BHV-2)

73
Q

What are the 2 important viruses in the parapoxvirus subfamily?

A

orf, pseudocowpox

74
Q

What are the CS of orf in lambs and kids?

A

severe oral lesions, high mortality

75
Q

What are the CS of orf in adult sheep?

A

localized - eyelids, feet, teats,

generalized skin lesions

76
Q

What does pseudocowpox cause in humans?

A

milkders nodules

77
Q

What are the CS of pseudocowpox in cows?

A

localized infection - teats, mouths of calves, ring or horseshoe scab

78
Q

What are the two forms of fowlpox virus?

A 
skin (dry form) 
mucous membrane (wet) - systemic, diphtheritic, high mortality
79
Q

What are the viral characteristics for asfaviridae?

A

ds DNA, enveloped (but stable in cold environment)

80
Q

What is the tropism for asfaviridae?

A

lymphoreticular tissues - primary macrophages and monocytes so systemic infection is possible

81
Q

How is asfaviridae transmitted (4 ways)?

A

respiratory (primary)
arbovirus (tick)
oral
reservoir

82
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hemorrhage in asfaviridae?

A

apoptosis of lymphocytes -> endothelial damage ->DIC -> hemorrhage

83
Q

What is the incubation period of asfaviridae?

A

5-15 days, varies

84
Q

What causes hypergammaglobulinemia in asfaviridae infection?

A

high titers of non neutralizing antibodies that doesnt confer protection against virus

85
Q

What is the acute form of ASF in swine?

A

fatal febrile hemorrhagic dz

86
Q

What happens to swine that survive ASF?

A

persistently infected

87
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for ASF?

A

classical swine fever (hog cholera)

88
Q

What is the method of control for ASF?

A

rapid dianostics - slaughter, quarantine
no effective vax
disinfectants

89
Q

What are the characteristics of herpes?

A

ds DNA, enveloped, large

90
Q

What 7 important viruses are in the alphaherpes subfamily?

A

avian infectious laryngotracheitis, mareks dz, IBR, EHV 1 and 4, feline rhinotracheitis, pseudorabies

91
Q

What is the host range for alpha, beta, and gamma herpes?

A

alpha - variable animal host range
beta - host specific
gamma - restricted host range

92
Q

What does beta herpes cause in cells?

A

cytomegalia

93
Q

Where do latent infections stay in beta herpes? (3)

A

secretory glands, lymphoreticular tissue, kidneys

94
Q

Where do latent infections stay in gamma herpes?

A

lymphoid tissue

95
Q

What disorders do gamma herpes cause?

A

lymphoproliferative disorders

96
Q

How does herpes exit the cell from the nucleus?

A

buds thru nucleus -> ER cisternae -> exocytosis or cytolysis

97
Q

What are the 4 different outcomes for viral-cell interations for all herpes viruses?

A

cytolysis
syncytia formation
latency - natural host
transformation

98
Q

What is the MOA for latency in herpes virus?

A

episome reactivates - usually sublinical

99
Q

What is the cell tropism for alpha herpes?

A

pneumotrophic and neurotropic (TQ)

100
Q

What can a localized infection of a virus produce in the fetus?

A

systemic dz

101
Q

How is herpes transmitted?

A

horizontal - close contact, lactogenic and blood

vertical - tranplacental - systemic

102
Q

What causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

A

BHV type 1

103
Q

What 2 dzs does IBR cause?

A

red nose - abortions (systemic) (inhalation)

genital dz by coitus (abortion rare)

104
Q

What causes equine abortion virus?

A

EHV-1

105
Q

What can cause equine herpesvirus myeloencephalopathy in adult horses?

A

EHV1 mutates - increased virulence - neuropathogenic

106
Q

What virus causes equine rhinopneuomonitis?

A

EHV4

107
Q

What are the ages and CS of equine rhinopneumonitis?

A

after weaning - acute resp dz

adults - subclinical, sporadic abortion

108
Q

What are the CS of feline rhinotracheatis in young kittens?

A

rhinotracheitis, stomatitis, ulcerative keratoconjunctivitis

109
Q

What are the CS of feline herpes in adult cats?

A

latent infection
abortion 2nd to fever and toxemia
herpetic ulcerative dermatitis from stress

110
Q

What disease causes “pump handle” respiration in young chickens?

A

avian infectious laryngotracheitis

111
Q

What are the permissive and semi permissive cells for mareks disease?

A

respiratory and feather follicle epithelium – permissive

lymphoblastic cells - semi-permissive

112
Q

What is the end result of mareks dz pathogenesis?

A

polyneuritis (neural lymphomatosis = range paralysis)

113
Q

What are gross lesions associated with mareks dz?

A

enlarged nerves, lymphoproliferation in various organs and skin

114
Q

What are the 4 overlapping syndromes of mareks dz and what kind of dz do they cause? (acute, classical, ocular, cutaneous)

A

acute - respiratory
classical - neural lymphomatosis
ocular lymphomatosis - gray eye
cutaneous - lymphoproliferative skin form

115
Q

What herpes virus is enzootic in feral pig population?

A

pseudorabies

116
Q

What 2 diseases does pseudorabies cause in dead end hosts?

A

mad itch -> death

pseudorabies -> death

117
Q

What species are betaherpesviruses economically important for?

A

cattle, swine, horses

118
Q

What are the resevoirs for bovine malignant catarrhal fever?

A

sheep, zoos, wild deer

119
Q

What is the cell tropism for bovine malignant catarrhal fever?

A

lymphoid tissue - > viremia –> latency

epithelial cells - resp and GI

120
Q

What are the two primary clinical features of bovine malignant catarrhal fever

A

peripheral corneal opacity

profuse nasal and ocular discharge and diarrhea

121
Q

Which subfamily of herpes viruses has continuous shedding?

A

gamma

UI 607 Virology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions